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Worksheets

Chapter 3 & 4 Review

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The small intestine is made up of which structures?

a)

duodenum

b)

jejunum

c)

ileum

d)

cecum

2.

The large intestine is made up of these structures except:

a)

cecum

b)

rectum

c)

duodenum

d)

colon

3.

Peristalsis is voluntary waves of contraction traveling the whole length of the alimentary tract.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Hyperguesia is a mechanical aspect of digestion.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Enzymes enable metabolic reactions to proceed at a faster rate without being exhausted.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Dysguesia is a condition of the loss of smell, limiting the capacity to detect the flavor of food and beverages.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Gluten sensitivity, an allergic condition, is an example of a systemic condition.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Consuming milk or milk products while taking tetracycline decreases the amount of antibiotic and calcium available to the

a)

True

b)

False

9.

The use of over-the-counter tablets might not be beneficial to patients because the active ingredient within the product is digested before it can be used.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Which sensory perceptions influence food choices?

a)

Gustatory

b)

Visual

c)

Smell

d)

Sound

11.

Taste buds are found on the dorsal surface of the tongue, contain 30-100 papillae and replace themselves every 3-10 days.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Impairment of the olfactory nerves will change the taste of foods.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Saliva extracts calcium and phosphate from demineralized tooth surfaces.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Some chemical action or hydrolysis of nutrients begins in the mouth. Salivary amylase initiates starch digestion.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

The accessory organs are the salivary gland, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. They provide secretions essential for digestion and absorption.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Chewing firm food helps to maintain a proper balance between bone breakdown and new bone formation within the alveolar process.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Even after a patient becomes fully adjusted to well-fitted dentures, masticatory efficiency is reduced compared with that of patients with their natural teeth.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Which are true of a bolus?

a)

Swallowing moves it into the esophagus.

b)

The lower esophgeal sphincter allows food into the stomach

c)

A bolus is mass of food

d)

A bolus travels to the stomach with osmosis.

19.

The pyloric sphincter releases small amounts of chyme from the stomach into the small intestine for digestion and absorption.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Patients with ulcers of certain gastrointestinal tract disorders should avoid dietary constituents that increase hydrochloric acid and pepsin secretion. Foods to avoid include proteins, calcium, caffeine, coffee, and alcohol.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

An adult stomach functions as a reservoir to hold an average meal for 3 to 4 hours. The stomach empties at different rates depending on its size and the composition of the chyme.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

The rate of passage, fastest to slowest, is liquids, carbohydrates, proteins, and fats.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Which components can be absorbed in the stomach?

a)

Amino acids

b)

Water

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Glucose

24.

Villi decrease the surface area of the alimentary tract by contraction and compression.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Proteins can be broken down by which enzyme?

a)

Amylase

b)

Proteolytic enzymes

c)

Lipase

26.

Passage of a permeable substance from a more to a less concentrated solution is called passive diffusion.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

The portal circulation enables passage of nutrients from the gastrointestinal tract and spleen through the portal vein to the liver. Most nutrients are absorbed from the small intestine through the mucosa into the portal circulation.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Most absorption occurs in the large intestine.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

More than 1 trillion harmless bacteria thrive in the colon. Approximately 400 different species or microorganisms compose the microflora within the colon.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Prebiotics are food ingredients that must be digested to stimulate growth and activity of microorganisms.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Lactose intolerance is associated with a deficiency of lactase only.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Cellulose, a carbohydrate found in plants, cannot be completely digested because the human body lacks enzymes that can hydrolyze and break it down.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Bile is produced and secreted by the liver and stored in the:

(a)  

34.

The salivary amylase, called ptyalin, initiates starch digestion.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Carbohydrates play the most significant role in the development of dental caries.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Cooking decreases the digestive process of some polysaccharides.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Which monosaccharide is the most sweet?

a)

Glucose

b)

Dextrose

c)

Fructose

d)

Sucrose

38.

A sugar alcohol called xylitol that is produced from sugar beets, does not contribute tooth decay because oral bacteria lack the enzymes to ferment xylitol.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Dietary fiber is digested and absorbed in the stomach

a)

True

b)

False

40.

The principle role of absorbed sugars is to provide energy for body functions and maintain body temperature.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Excess glucose is converted into

(a)  

42.

Used in moderation, sugar substitutes are beneficial.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Complex carbohydrates are also called disaccharides.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

How many monosaccharides does a carbohydrate need to contain to be "complex"?

a)

3 or more

b)

5 or more

c)

10 or more

d)

100 or more

45.

A fermentable carbohydrate that can reduce salivary pH to less than 5.5 is cariogenic.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Lactose, the sugar found in milk, is less cariogenic than other sugars.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Which nonnutritive sweetener cannot be given to patients with phenylketonuria?

a)

Sucralose

b)

Aspartame

c)

Saccharine

d)

Xylitol

48.

Excessive intake (more than 20 g per day) of sorbitol can lead to unintended weight loss as a result of chronic diarrhea. One stick of sugar-free gum contains about 1.25 g of sorbitol.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Consumption of caloric sweeteners is increasing faster than that of low-calorie sweeteners.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Types of soluble fibers are pectins, gums, psyllium, mucilages, and algal polysaccharides. Soluble fibers are important for their gel-forming ability, which results in increased viscosity of chime and delays gastric emptying.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Which snacks would the best choice for a dental hygienist to recommend to reduce the risk of dental caries?

a)

peanut butter and crackers

b)

cheese cubes

c)

caramel candy

d)

raisins

52.

Approximately 90% of commonly consumed snack foods contain fermentable carbohydrates.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Saccharin is not safe to recommend during pregnancy. It is known to cross the placenta.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

As the digestive muscles become more toned, colonic pressure is diminished, not increased; this prevents the gut from bulging into pouches known as diverticula.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Ideal foods to recommend to patients to increase their fiber intake include

a)

Fruits with skin

b)

Unbuttered popcorn

c)

Carrots

d)

Whole grains

56.

Which structures are a part of the alimentary canal?

a)

oral cavity

b)

pharnyx

c)

esophagus

d)

small intestine