wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Biology Final Exam

Total questions: 128

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which type of reasoning involves starting with specific observations and developing a general principle based on those individual observations?

a)

irrational

b)

flawed

c)

deductive

d)

inductive

2.

The __________ rule states that atoms tend to establish full outer energy levels when bonding.

a)

octet

b)

duplicate

c)

covalent

d)

electronegative

3.

Use the periodic table (attached to the back of the exam) to determine how many valence electrons nitrogen (N) has.

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

4.

________ bonds are found WITHIN one water molecule, and ________ bonds develop BETWEEN 2 or more water molecules.

a)

Covalent, hydrogen

b)

Hydrogen, covalent

c)

Ionic, covalent

d)

Covalent, ionic

5.

These are the weakest type of bond we discussed in class and involve the constant shifting of electrons around an atom, creating temporary and ever-changing positive and negative regions of an atom (even in nonpolar molecules).

a)

covalent bonds

b)

Van der Waals forces

c)

ionic bonds

d)

hydrogen bonds

6.

Which term does the following definition match best with: the attraction of a particular atom for the electrons in a covalent bond?

a)

Hydrogen bonding

b)

Van der Waals interactions

c)

Electronegativity

d)

Valence number

7.

Water expands when it freezes (goes from its liquid to solid form). What effect below results from this property of water?

a)

ice sinks in water

b)

ice floats on water

c)

ice cannot form in liquid water

d)

water can move from the roots to the crown of a tree

8.

This figure is depicting a molecule of ___________.

a)

Hydrogen peroxide

b)

Water

c)

Carbon Dioxide

d)

Methane

9.

Which characteristic(s) below describe(s) this molecule?

a)

polar

b)

nonpolar

c)

ionically bonded

d)

a & c

10.

This molecule is attracted to glass due to which of the properties listed below?

a)

Hydrophobic nature

b)

Acidity

c)

Adhesion

d)

Cohesion

11.

Which functional group is circled below?

a)

Hydroxyl

b)

Carboxyl

c)

Carbonyl

d)

Methyl

12.

Water is very good at dissolving a lot of different substances. Therefore, we say that water is a powerful ______________.

a)

solute

b)

solvent

c)

solution

d)

ion

13.

Which lipid makes up the majority of cell membranes?

a)

Phospholipid

b)

Triglyceride

c)

Steroid

d)

Ribose

14.

What is the covalent bond that bonds monosaccharides together called?

a)

Peptide bond

b)

Glycosidic linkage

c)

Phosphodiester bond

d)

Van der Waals interactions

15.

Which of the following polysaccharides acts as a structural component in plants?

a)

Cellulose

b)

Starch

c)

Glycogen

d)

Chitin

16.

Which of the following polysaccharides acts as a storage component in animals?

a)

Cellulose

b)

Starch

c)

Glycogen

d)

Chitin

17.

Sucrose is made of which two monosaccharides?

a)

Glucose + fructose

b)

Galactose + glucose

c)

Galactose + ribose

d)

Glucose + glucose

18.

Which type of lipid is composed of 3 fatty acid chains attached to a glycerol backbone?

a)

Triglyceride

b)

Fatty acid

c)

Phospholipid

d)

Steroid

19.

What type of covalent bond joins individual amino acids together?

a)

Peptide bond

b)

Glycosidic linkage

c)

Amino bond

d)

Phosphate bond

20.

Nucleotides are bonded together via a ________________ bond.

a)

Peptide

b)

Phosphodiester

c)

Glycosidic linkage

d)

Hydrogen

21.

The chemical formula C6H12O6 represents which of the following?

a)

Ribose

b)

Glucose

c)

Amino acid

d)

Sucrose

22.

Antibodies are a type of which group of biological macromolecules?

a)

Lipid

b)

Protein

c)

Carbohydrate

d)

Nucleic Acid

23.

Which of the following is function of proteins?

a)

speeding up chemical reactions

b)

structure

c)

cell-to-cell communication

d)

all of the above

24.

Which list below includes all parts that make up a nucleotide?

a)

Nitrogenous base

b)

Nitrogenous base + sugar + phosphate group

c)

Sugar + phosphate group

d)

Sugar + phosphate group + amino acid

25.

Which type of fat is solid at room temperature?

a)

saturated

b)

unsaturated

c)

polar

d)

glucose

26.

ATP stands for:

a)

Amino triphosphate

b)

Amino triplephosphate

c)

Adenine triphosphate

d)

Adenosine triphosphate

27.

What do the initials “DNA” stand for?

a)

deoxynucleic acid

b)

ribonucleic acid

c)

deoxyribonucleic acid

d)

deoxyribose

28.

Carbon has four electrons in its valence shell. Therefore, it needs _____ more electrons to completely fill its valence shell.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

29.

Which macromolecule generally has 2 hydrogen atoms for every 1 oxygen and 1 carbon atom?

a)

Amino acid

b)

Protein

c)

Nucleic acid

d)

Carbohydrate

30.

Which is the correct order of the “central dogma” of biology?

a)

RNA - DNA - protein

b)

protein - RNA - DNA

c)

DNA - RNA - protein

d)

DNA - protein - RNA

31.

Muscle cells contain numerous _____________ to serve their high demand for ATP.

a)

Golgi apparatuses

b)

ribosomes

c)

mitochondria

d)

lysosomes

32.

Who was the first person to observe cells (cork cells) under a microscope?

a)

van Leeuwenhoeke

b)

Remak

c)

Hooke

d)

Schleiden

33.

Which of the following is/are (a) tenet(s) of the modern cell theory?

a)

all living things are composed of at least one cell

b)

cells are the smallest/most basic unit of life

c)

all cells come from other cells via cell division

d)

all of the above

34.

A cell with a lot of ribosomes is producing a lot of ___________.

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

energy

d)

proteins

35.

Which statement below best describes why cell size is limited?

a)

cells with a large volume and relatively low surface area are highly efficient at transporting nutrients across the membrane

b)

cells with a low volume and relatively high surface area are highly efficient at transporting nutrients across the membrane

c)

the larger the surface area to volume ratio is, the more likely a cell is to be hypertonic

d)

the smaller the surface area to volume ratio is, the more likely a cell is to be hypotonic

36.

Which of the following can be found in animal (eukaryotic) cells but NOT in bacteria (prokaryotic cells)?

a)

DNA

b)

nucleus

c)

ribosomes

d)

phospholipids

37.

Mitochondria likely arose ________________________.

a)

from prokaryotic endosymbionts

b)

from the endomembrane system

c)

from genetic mutations

d)

as a response to increased sunlight on Earth

38.

What is the largest organelle in a eukaryotic cell?

a)

ribosome

b)

nucleus

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

lysosome

39.

Autolysis (or cell suicide) involves the digestion of a surplus cell by itself. What organelle is responsible for this process?

a)

ribosome

b)

nucleus

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

lysosome

40.

In order for a plant cell to remain in its “normal” state (turgid), the environment surround the cell must be ___________________compared to the cell’s internal solute concentration.

a)

isotonic

b)

hypertonic

c)

hypotonic

d)

plasmolyzed

41.

Regions of the cell membrane that contain a lot of cholesterol molecules ______________.

a)

detach from the plasma membrane and clog arteries

b)

have higher rates of lateral diffusion of lipids and proteins into and out of these regions

c)

are more fluid than the rest of the membrane

d)

are less fluid than the rest of the membrane

42.

Which of the following types of molecules will need a transport protein to help it move across the plasma membrane?

a)

large, polar molecule

b)

charged molecule

c)

non-polar molecule

d)

both a and b

43.

Cell membrane proteins are important for transporting materials across the membrane, but they also have other functions. Which of the following is/are (a) functions of membrane proteins?

a)

enzymatic activity

b)

signal transduction

c)

intercellular joining

d)

all of the above

44.

Elodea is a plant which normally grows in freshwater ponds.  If Elodea leaves are placed in a jar of sea water (which has a very high salt content), the solution outside the cell will be

a)

hypotonic to the Elodea cells

b)

hypertonic to the Elodea cells

c)

isotonic to the Elodea cells

d)

none of the above

45.

The sodium-potassium pump is moving sodium (Na+) _______________ its concentration gradient and potassium (K+) _____________ its concentration gradient.

a)

up, up

b)

down, down

c)

up, down

d)

down, up

46.

Which of the following types of transports requires a transport protein but no ATP (energy)?

a)

active transport

b)

simple diffusion

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

none of the above

47.

One result of the sodium-potassium pump is a ______________ charge inside the cell, which creates a type of energy referred to as membrane potential.

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

neutral

d)

none of the above

48.

When does a cell check to determine if the spindles have attached to the chromosomes?

a)

S phase checkpoint

b)

metaphase checkpoint

c)

G0

d)

G1 checkpoint

49.

Which list below places the stages of mitosis in the correct order, from first to last?

a)

Prometaphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

b)

Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, prometaphase, telophase

c)

Prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase

d)

Prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

50.

Which stage of the cell cycle is the cell below currently in?

a)

interphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

51.

Which checkpoint(s) in the cell cycle check(s) for errors/damage in the DNA?

a)

G1 checkpoint

b)

M checkpoint

c)

G2 checkpoint

d)

both a and c

52.

You are looking at a cell under a microscope and notice that it only has one copy of DNA. Which stage(s) below might the cell currently be in?

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

Prophase

d)

a or b

53.

During which of the following stages of the cell cycle is DNA replicated/synthesized?

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

S

d)

Prophase

54.

One purpose of the cell cycle is to regenerate tissues. Which of the following descriptions most accurately describes what that means?

a)

the chromosomes in a cell move to opposite poles

b)

a multi-celled organism develops from a single cell, which multiplies many times to allow for growth

c)

a single-celled organism reproduces

d)

dead cells are replaced by living ones

55.

During which stage of the cell cycle is DNA still in its uncondensed form (i.e., chromatin)?

a)

interphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphase

56.

Which statement below best describes the result of mitosis?

a)

one cell with two copies of DNA

b)

two cells, each with one copy of DNA

c)

two cells, each with two copies of DNA

d)

one cell with one copy of DNA

57.

Which stage of mitosis is the cell below currently in? (Hint: the chromatids are moving to opposite poles of the cell.)

a)

anaphase

b)

metaphase

c)

prophase

d)

telophase

58.

Which statement below describes the relationship between photosynthesis and respiration?

a)

glucose is created during photosynthesis and broken down during respiration

b)

glucose is broken down during photosynthesis and created during respiration

c)

photosynthesis occurs in the mitochondria and respiration occurs in the chloroplast

d)

all of the above

59.

Energy is ____________ during an exergonic reaction.

a)

conserved

b)

unchanged

c)

used

d)

released

60.

How does an enzyme speed up the rate of a chemical reaction?

a)

By increasing the activation energy

b)

By increasing the free energy

c)

By decreasing the activation energy

d)

By decreasing the free energy

61.

A system that is highly ordered contains a lot of free energy (high G) and is also ______ than a system with a small amount of free energy.

a)

less stable

b)

more stable

c)

less able to perform work

d)

a & c

62.

What is the name of the process that leads to one phosphate group being removed from ATP (and thus, releasing energy) with the help of water?

a)

hydrolysis

b)

phosphorylation

c)

Kinase

d)

dehydrogenase

63.

The reaction in the graph above is ___________.

a)

Isogonic

b)

Endergonic

c)

Exergonic

d)

Catabolic

64.

Is the change in free energy (DG) in the reaction above negative or positive?

a)

negative

b)

positive

65.

What category below do many antibiotics fall into?

a)

Cofactors

b)

Enzyme activators

c)

Coenzymes

d)

Enzyme inhibitors

66.

Energy ________ an ecosystem.

a)

is recycled in

b)

flows through

c)

builds up in

d)

none of the above

67.

Choose the best definition for metabolism.

a)

The recycling of water by an organism

b)

The creation of energy by an organism

c)

The conservation of energy

d)

The sum of all chemical reactions in an organism

68.

Which circled part of the ATP molecule below contributes most to its ability to provide energy for cells?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

69.

How many molecules of ATP are made during cellular respiration?

a)

2

b)

20

c)

32

d)

36

70.

The products of respiration are: ATP, carbon dioxide, and _________.

a)

pyruvate

 

b)

water

c)

oxygen

d)

glucose

71.

Which process does fermentation keep going over and over again?

a)

citric acid cycle

b)

chemiosmosis

c)

electron transport chain

d)

glycolysis

72.

Where do the six molecules of CO2 produced in respiration come from?

a)

2 from pyruvate oxidation, 4 from citric acid cycle

b)

4 from pyruvate oxidation, 2 from citric acid cycle

c)

1 from glycolysis, 5 from citric acid cycle

d)

5 from glycolysis, 1 from citric acid cycle

73.

Assuming you start respiration with one molecule of glucose, how many rounds of the citric acid (Krebs) cycle is required to complete the respiration process?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

74.

What is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain at the end of respiration?

a)

carbon

b)

water

c)

oxygen

d)

phosphate

75.

Which two molecules combine at the beginning of the citric acid (Krebs) cycle to create citrate?

a)

glucose + pyruvate

b)

pyruvate + acetyl CoA

c)

acetyl CoA + oxaloacetate

d)

oxaloacetate + G3P

76.

What is the purpose of the electron transport chain? (What process is it powering?)

a)

pumping of H+ ions across a membrane

b)

the citric acid cycle

c)

pyruvate oxidation

d)

regeneration of oxaloacetate

77.

Which stage of respiration produces the majority of the total ATP produced by respiration?

a)

glycolysis

b)

pyruvate oxidation

c)

oxidative phosphorylation

d)

citric acid cycle

78.

Which molecule below shuttles electrons to the electron transport chain during respiration?

a)

amino acids

b)

NADH

c)

ATP

d)

ADP

79.

What stage of respiration is shown by the following reaction: C6H12O6 à 2 pyruvate?

a)

glycolysis

b)

citric acid cycle

c)

Calvin cycle

d)

pyruvate oxidation

80.

Which of the following parts of respiration is the only one that occurs outside the mitochondria?

a)

chemiosmosis

b)

citric acid cycle

c)

glycolysis

d)

pyruvate oxidation

81.

What is the very first step in photosynthesis?

a)

Chemiosmosis

b)

Electron transport chain

c)

Electron excitation

d)

Light absorption

82.

H+ gradients (differences in concentration across a membrane) are created during which of the following processes?

a)

respiration

b)

photosynthesis

c)

enzyme inhibition

d)

a & b

83.

Oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis. Which statement below best describes where this oxygen comes from?

a)

water is split during the light-dependent reactions, resulting in the release of an oxygen molecule

b)

glucose is split in the Calvin cycle, resulting in the release of an oxygen molecule

c)

electrons are added to NAD+, resulting in the production of NADH and oxygen

d)

rubisco helps “fix” CO2, which creates oxygen as a by-product

84.

To create ATP in photosynthesis, H+ ions diffuse from the ___________ to the ____________ through ATP synthase.

a)

thylakoid space, stroma of the chloroplast

b)

stroma of the chloroplast, thylakoid space

c)

stroma of the chloroplast, intermembrane space

d)

intermembrane space, stroma of the chloroplast

85.

How many CO2 molecules are required for one round of the Calvin cycle?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

86.

Many leaves are green because ____________.

a)

they only absorb green light

b)

they reflect green light

c)

they absorb all colors of light equally

d)

they reflect all color of light equally

87.

In CAM (Crassulacean acid metabolism) photosynthesis, plants open their stomata to exchange gases during the ____________.

a)

day

b)

night

c)

a & b

d)

none of the above

88.

In order to produce one molecule of glucose, how many ATP molecules are used in the Calvin cycle?

a)

3

b)

6

c)

9

d)

18

89.

Where does the Calvin cycle occur?

a)

matrix of mitochondria

b)

thylakoid membrane

c)

stroma of chloroplast

d)

cytoplasm/cytosol

90.

Why is the fact that plants use CO2 in photosynthesis important to us as humans?

a)

They remove CO2 from the atmosphere, which decreases the heat-trapping ability of the atmosphere, keeping the climate stable

b)

They convert CO2 (a carbon molecule that is unusable by us) into glucose (a carbon molecule that we can use).

c)

a & b

d)

none of the above

91.

Photosynthetic pigments (such as chlorophyll) are found in the _____________ of the chloroplast.

a)

thylakoid membrane

b)

stroma

c)

ATP synthase

d)

mitochondria

92.

What enzyme (said to be the most abundant enzyme on earth!) is used to combine RuBP and CO2 in the Calvin cycle?

a)

kinase

b)

dehydrogenase

c)

rubisco

d)

NADPH

93.

Which description below best describes homologous chromosomes?

a)

chromosomes with different genes on them

b)

chromosomes with the same genes, but different alleles on them

c)

chromosomes with the same alleles, but different genes on them

d)

an extra copy of a chromosome

94.

What is the final product of meiosis?

a)

one cell with 2 copies of DNA

b)

two cells, each with 1 copy of DNA

c)

two cells, each with 2 copies of DNA

d)

four cells, each with 1 copy of DNA

95.

At which point in meiosis does Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment apply?

a)

during Prophase I when chromosomes are condensing

b)

during Telophase II when sister chromatids are separating

c)

during Metaphase I when homologous chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell

d)

during the first round of cytokinesis

96.

When does crossing over occur?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Anaphase II

97.

What does it mean to say a cell is haploid?

a)

it has two copies of each chromosome

b)

it has one copy of each chromosome

c)

it is missing a sex chromosome

d)

it has one extra sex chromosome

98.

What is the name for the process when homologous chromosomes pair up?

a)

crossing over

b)

synapsis

c)

independent assortment

d)

none of the above

99.

After Meiosis I, how many cells are present?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

100.

A butterfly is heterozygous for wing color and homozygous dominant for leg length. If the letter “W” is used to denote wing color and the letter “P” is used to denote leg length, what is the genotype of this individual?

a)

WwPP

b)

Wwpp

c)

WWPp

d)

WwPp

101.

If two parents who are heterozygous for two genes (i.e., AaBb) have offspring, what is the phenotype ratio of their offspring?

a)

3:1

b)

1:2:1

c)

9:3:3:1

d)

4:0

102.

The human blood type system does not follow a complete dominance pattern. Which inheritance pattern does the human blood type system fall into?

a)

multiple alleles

 

b)

polygenic inheritance

c)

pleiotropy

d)

environmental influences

103.

What is the name for the inheritance pattern when multiple genes are involved in creating a specific phenotype?

a)

pleiotropy

b)

polygenic inheritance

c)

multiple alleles

d)

complete dominance

104.

If a red-flowered plant is crossed with a white-flowered plant and the heterozygous offspring are pink, what type of dominance is this?

a)

complete dominance

b)

co-dominance

c)

incomplete dominance

d)

anti-dominance

105.

If the genotype of one parent (for a specific gene) is unknown, a homozygous recessive individual can be crossed with the unknown parent to determine his/her genotype. What is the term for this type of cross?

a)

true breeding cross

b)

aneuploid cross

c)

unknown dihybrid cross

d)

test cross

106.

A(n) __________ is an alternative version of a gene (e.g., a purple flower vs. a white flower).

a)

allele

b)

locus

c)

character

d)

none of the above

107.

If you performed a cross between the genotypes Tt and tt, what percent of the offspring would you expect to be homozygous recessive for the gene?

a)

25% (1 of 4)

 

b)

50% (2 of 4)

c)

75% (3 of 4)

d)

100% (4 of 4)

108.

In humans, why are X-linked recessive traits more commonly expressed in males than females?

a)

females cannot inherit X-linked genes

b)

females always inherit at least one dominant form of the gene, which means the recessive allele will not be expressed

c)

males have only one X-chromosome, so there is no second allele to potentially mask the recessive allele

d)

males have two X-chromosomes that each contain the recessive allele

109.

Which of the terms below describes a situation where one gene affects multiple phenotypic traits?

a)

polygenic inheritance

 

b)

autosome

c)

multiple alleles

d)

pleiotropy

110.

Non-disjunction of chromosomes during meiosis results in _______________.

a)

aneuploidy

b)

polytropy

c)

pleiotropy

d)

diploidy

111.

If the recombination frequency between two genes is less than 50%, this means __________.

a)

linkage between the two genes in not likely

b)

linkage between the two genes is likely

c)

the parental-type percentage of offspring is also less than 50%

d)

none of the above

112.

Which of the following would be considered a true-breeding individual?

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

heterozygous

d)

a & b

113.

This man, a monk, is known as the “father of modern genetics.”

a)

Mendel

b)

Watson

c)

Crick

d)

Franklin

114.

A mutation has occurred in the chromosome shown below. The one on the left is the normal version of the chromosome; the one on the right is the chromosome with the mutation. What is the name for this type of mutation?

a)

translocation

b)

inversion

c)

deletion

d)

duplication

115.

Another name for Down syndrome is _____________.

a)

Klinefelter’s syndrome

b)

Turner’s syndrome

c)

Trisomy 21

d)

none of the above

116.

What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the strands that make up DNA?

a)

DNA strands form a double helix

b)

Complementary base pairs occur between purines and pyrimidines

c)

The 3’ end of one strand matches up with the 5’ end of the other strand

d)

Electric charge along the DNA molecule differs between the strands.

117.

Which of the following statements about Okazaki fragments is FALSE?

a)

They contain both DNA and RNA

b)

hey are formed on the lagging strand

c)

They remain as discontinuous fragments after replication is completed

d)

They are synthesized in the 5’ to 3’ direction

118.

Which of the following combinations shows the correct bonding pattern between nucleotides (between two individual strands of DNA)?

a)

adenine + guanine

b)

cytosine + guanine

c)

thymine + guanine

d)

cytosine + thymine

119.

Which protein is responsible for adding new bases to the growing DNA daughter strand?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

ligase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

isomerase

120.

Which of the people below did NOT help to discover the structure of DNA?

a)

Watson

b)

Crick

c)

Franklin

d)

Mendel

121.

What does DNA stand for?

a)

dinitronucleic acid

 

b)

deoxyribonucleic acid

c)

deoxynitronucleic acid

d)

diribonucleic acid

122.

What are the three components of a nucleotide?

a)

sugar, phosphate, and amino acid

b)

sugar, protein, and amino acid

c)

sugar, ATP, and nitrogenous base

d)

sugar, phosphate, and nitrogenous base

123.

Which term below describes the following aspect of DNA replication: the new DNA molecule is made up of one “parent strand” and one “daughter strand.”

a)

semi-discontinuous

b)

bi-directional

c)

semi-conservative

d)

none of the above

124.

To which end of the growing DNA strand are new nucleotides added?

a)

3’

b)

5'

c)

both of the above

d)

none of the above

125.

What type of bond forms between nitrogenous bases on complementary DNA strands?

a)

nitrogen bonds

b)

hydrogen bonds

c)

phosphodiester bonds

d)

glycosidic bonds

126.

The strand labeled EàF is being built continuously, not in fragments like strand CàD. What is this strand (EàF) called?

a)

Okazaki strand

b)

lagging strand

c)

parent strand

d)

leading strand

127.

Point C is located at the ____ end of the newly created strand of DNA.

a)

3'

b)

5'

128.

The ultimate source of energy on Earth is ______________.

a)

Glucose

b)

Inorganic carbon

c)

Water

d)

Sunlight