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EXAM

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the below will not develop pitching moment?

a)

A symmetrical airfoil set at positive AOA

b)

A camber airfoil that is not developing lift

c)

A camber airfoil set at zero AOA

d)

A camber airfoil that is producing lift

2.

An airplane is making a constant airspeed, level turn. It's velocity

a)

is increasing.

b)

is decreasing.

c)

remains the same.

d)

is changing.

3.

Airfoil camber is defined as

a)

the maximum thickness of the airfoil

b)

the maximum distance between the camber line and the chord line

c)

the percentage of the mean camber line

d)

ratio of the thickness to chord

4.

Which control surface produces large amount of drag without affecting other lift producing surfaces of the aircraft?

a)

Spoilers

b)

Speedbrakes

c)

Slats

d)

Flaps

5.

The elevator is commonly installed onto the

a)

leading edge of horizontal stabilizer

b)

trailing edge of the horizontal stabilizer

c)

tip of the mainplane

d)

inboard of the mainplane

6.

In longitudinal control,

a)

the elevator controls pitch about the lateral axis

b)

the aileron control roll about the longitudinal axis

c)

the rudder control direction about the yaw axis

d)

the aileron control pitch about the lateral axis

7.

The maximum distance between the mean camber line and the chord line is the

a)

mean camber

b)

mean camber line

c)

maximum camber

d)

maximum chord

8.

To compensate for nose down tendency the

a)

flaps are set at positive AOA

b)

elevators are set at positive AOA

c)

elevators are set at negative AOA

d)

horizontal stabilisers are set at negative AOA

9.

The coefficient of drag can be defined as:

a)

the ratio of lift forces to drag forces

b)

the measure of the efficiency of the airplane

c)

the ratio of drag forces to lift forces

d)

the ratio of drag pressure to dynamic pressure

10.

The speed of sound depends on

a)

air density alone

b)

pressure and density

c)

temperature alone

d)

density, temperature and viscosity

11.

Induced drag results from the lift vector being tilted to the rear. This is caused by:

a)

the wing tip vortices cause downwash behind the wing

b)

the relative wind behind the wing is pushed downwards

c)

the local relative wind at the AC is depressed

d)

all choices the mentioned here.

12.

Calculate the pressure if 16 lbs force is being applied to a piston in a cylinder given the area of the piston is 4 inches squared

a)

32 psi

b)

64 psi

c)

16 psi

d)

4 psi

13.

Mil-H-83282 belongs to what type of fluid and what is the colour?

a)

mineral, violet

b)

mineral, red

c)

synthetic, violet

d)

synthetic, red

14.

The disadvantage of using gas to transmit forces is that

a)

it is compressible

b)

it is lighter

c)

it takes up more space

d)

it is flammable

15.

What is the purpose of pressurising the reservoir?

a)

Prevent foaming and evaporation

b)

Endsure positive supply of fluid at high altitude only.

c)

Allow expansion of fluid under high temperature.

d)

In case of pump failure, the pressure in the reservoir will supply the fluid pressure.

16.

The advantage of a variable displacement pump is that

a)

direction of pump rotation can vary

b)

flow of hydraulic fluid can be regulated

c)

various type of pump can be installed in a same hydraulic system

d)

it is interchangeable between aircraft types

17.

If there is excessive pressure in the reservoir, where does it relief to?

a)

Hydraulic fluid relief through reservoir relief valve to the ambient

b)

Hydraulic fluid relief through manual bleed valve to the ambient

c)

Hydraulic fluid relief through system relief valve back to the reservoir

d)

Hydraulic fluid relief through manual bleed valve back to the reservoir

18.

Excess fluid pressure relieved by system relief valve is diverted to

a)

supply line

b)

return line

c)

atmosphere

d)

bypass valve

19.

Excessive air load on the wing flap is diverted to return-line by

a)

thermal relief valve

b)

blow-back relief valve

c)

system relief valve

d)

check valve

20.

Which is not a correct servicing procedures?

a)

Flush out the new pipelines with different type of hydraulic fluid

b)

Blank off the disconnected pipes

c)

Make sure all components are cleaned before installation

d)

Use a proper tray to hold the components

21.

If the caution light in the cockpit remains on, what is the causes?

a)

insufficient fluid in the reservoir

b)

system pressure too high

c)

air in the system

d)

pressure switch stuck opne

22.

Choose a most suitable actuator to operate 2 mechanisms simultaneously

a)

single-action

b)

3-port

c)

double-action

d)

triple-action

23.

Fitting is used to

a)

close a hole in a line

b)

link up the lines between the hydraulic components

c)

join the return lines to the reservoir

d)

pressurise the joint between pipelines

24.

What is the effect of low humidity in the aircraft?

a)

Fog appear in cabin

b)

Decrease cabin temperature

c)

Prevent freezing of aircraft parts

d)

De-pressurisation in cabin

25.

Where does the air conditioning system begin?

a)

At the flow control valve

b)

At the temperature control valve

c)

At aircon unit outlet

d)

When the air enters the cabin

26.

In the cabin pressurisation system which component controls the rate of discharge of the cabin air into the atmosphere?

a)

Cold air unit

b)

Flow control valve

c)

Cabin pressure regulator

d)

Temperature control valve

27.

Which components control the chamber pressure up to 10 000 feet?

a)

The outflow valve and differential bellow

b)

Differential bellow and needle valve

c)

Cabin air bleed orifice and filter

d)

Isobaric bellow and needle valve

28.

Climbing from 10 000ft to 30 000ft, the pressure differential in a military aircraft will

a)

be maintained constant

b)

increase with altitude

c)

decrease with altitude

d)

increase of decrease depending on pilot selection

29.

Which of the following is correct about the constant differential pressure?

a)

When the maximum differential pressure is reached, the cabin altitude increases at the same rate as aircraft altitude.

b)

When the maximum differential pressure is reached, the cabin altitude decreases at same rate as aircraft altitude

c)

When the aircraft altitude increases, the cabin altitude decreases

d)

When the aircraft altitude decreases, the cabin altitude increases.

30.

Which one of the following is NOT an effect of ice formation on an aircraft?

a)

Hamper's pilot vision

b)

Increases the drag on the aircraft

c)

Causes stalling of the engine compressor

d)

Causes failure of cabin pressurisation and air-conditioning of the aircraft.

31.

Which of the following methods may be used to prevent or control ice formation on an aircraft?

a)

Using fluid spray.

b)

Using vortex generator

c)

Heating by thermocouples

d)

Using ram air to away the ice

32.

In the anti-icing system, what is the principle used in the thermal type?

a)

Hot air.

b)

De-icing fluid.

c)

Inflatable boots.

d)

Electrical elements.

33.

Which of the following is the correct heater mat used in propeller anti-icing system?

a)

A layer of heating element molded to a layer of insulating rubber

b)

Two layers of heating element sandwiching a layer of insulating rubber

c)

Two layers of insulating rubber sandwiching a layer of heating element.

d)

A layer of heating rubber molded into a layer of insulating element

34.

Which two factors control the temperature of heating element in an electrical heating anti-icing system?

a)

Electrical power and bleed air supply

b)

Cooling condition and electrical power

c)

Cooling condition and location of heating element

d)

Bleed air supply and location of heating element

35.

How is ice formed on aircraft?

a)

Ice in clouds sticks to the aircraft and makes an ice layer that is equally thick over the whole aircraft.

b)

When super-cooled water droplets hits the surfaces of the aircraft, changes to solid.

c)

Aircraft take off when wet, the water form into ice due to low temperatures

d)

Ice is formed when rain hits the surfaces of the aircraft.

36.

Which of the following method is recommended for inspecting the surfaces of a cable for broken wires?

a)

Run a small magnet over the cable. The broken wires will exposed itself

b)

Run a rag over the cable, back and forth for any catching with the cable experienced

c)

Bend the cable

d)

Bend the cable and inspected with a magnifying glass

37.

What is the maximum deflection allowed on a cable fairleed?

a)

4 degrees

b)

3 degrees

c)

5 degrees

d)

6 degrees

38.

Name one advantage of a push-pull rod system over a cable system?

a)

It is lighter

b)

It comes in larger in diameter size

c)

It is less affected by temperature change

d)

It has less mechanical play

39.

You have an aluminium alloy sheet with series number beginning with 6, what main alloying metal would that be?

a)

Copper

b)

Zinc

c)

Manganese

d)

Magnesium and Silicon

40.

The core material of Alclad 2024-T4 is

a)

heated-treated aluminium alloy, and the surfaces material is commercially pure aluminium

b)

commercially pure aluminium, and the surface material is heat-treated aluminium alloy

c)

strained-hardened aluminium alloy, and the surfaces materials is commercially pure aluminium

d)

strained-hardened aluminium alloy, and the surfaces materials is heat-treated aluminium alloy

41.

During which phase of flight do aircraft structures suffer the greatest amount of fatigue?

a)

Take off and landing

b)

Straight and level flying

c)

Slow descent

d)

Taxying

42.

When computing weight and balance, an aircraft is considered to be in balance when

a)

all moment arms of the plane fall within the CG range

b)

The movement of passengers will not cause the moment arms to fall outside the CG range

c)

The movement of the fuel will not cause the moment arms to fall outside the CG range

d)

The average moment arm of the loaded airplane falls within it's CG range

43.

When using a coloured dye penetrant what colour would the faults appear?

a)

Red

b)

Green

c)

White

d)

Yellow

44.

A structure that made use of it's outer skin for strength is called

a)

Tension skin construction

b)

Stress skin construction

c)

Semi-monocoque construction

d)

Monocoque construction

45.

When the aircraft is on jack, it mainplanes experience

a)

Bending stress

b)

Compression stress

c)

Tension Stress

d)

Torsion Stress

46.

Which of the following fabric is noted for being flexible?

a)

Kevlar

b)

Boron

c)

Glass

d)

Carbon

47.

In the process of weighing an airplane towards obtaining the CG, the arms from the weighing points always extend

a)

parallel to the centreline of the airplane

b)

straight forward from each of the landing gear

c)

directly from each weighing point to the others

d)

parallel to the chord line of the wing

48.

What is meant by the flash point of fuel?

a)

The flash point of fuel is the lowest temperature at which the fuel starts to vaporise completely

b)

the flash point of the fuel is the lowest at which fuel creates just enough vapour to become flammable

c)

the flash point of fuel is the lowest at which fuel ignites without an external flame

d)

the flash point is the highest temperature which can be reached is a fuel/air mixture is burned

49.

What is unique about the FSII element?

a)

improve fuel/air mixture

b)

increased fuel flow to the engine

c)

increase the flashpoint of fuel

d)

lower freezing point of fuel

50.

JP5 fuel is safer than other types of fuel as

a)

the flash point is lower

b)

the flash point is higher

c)

the freezing point is higher

d)

the freezing point is lower

51.

In a water scavenge system, the method used to suck out the water from the tank is

a)

venturi effect

b)

suction

c)

pumping

d)

vacuum

52.

The respective tank switches in the control panel during refuelling is used to control

a)

refuelling coupling

b)

refuelling valve

c)

refuelling pump

d)

refuelling manifold

53.

If the fuel pressure warning light illuminate

a)

it shows normal fuel pressure

b)

the fuel pressure in the manifold is high

c)

fuel quantity is low

d)

the fuel boost pump is not switched on

54.

Which element is not part of the basic fuel quantity indicating system?

a)

Tank units

b)

Amplifier

c)

Indicator

d)

Induction Motor

55.

The fuel quantity probes in the tank are installed

a)

horizontally and in different length

b)

horizontally and in equal length

c)

vertically and in different length

d)

vertically and in equal length

56.

What is the most important principle to consider in winter survival

a)

protection from wind and cold

b)

be located by rescuers

c)

water rationing

d)

food rationing

57.

Name 2 of the items can be found in the Personal Survival Packs (PSP)?

a)

salt tablets and strobe light

b)

flu tablets and strobe light

c)

salt tablets and lamb

d)

salt tablets and stroke light

58.

What is the purpose of Floating Knife fitted on the life raft

a)

to cut the rescue line

b)

to cut the water pocket

c)

to cut the life raft painter cord and entangled cordage

d)

to cut life rift valves

59.

Life rafts are generally inflated by

a)

Oxygen gas

b)

Nitrogen gas

c)

Carbon dioxide gas

d)

compressed air

60.

Which part of the parachute is strong and contain some elasticity and it absorb much of the shock load?

a)

Parachute pack

b)

Pilot chute, canopy, suspension lines, pack and harness

c)

Suspension Lines

d)

Canopy

61.

Which component is designed to operate within 2 seconds after being immersed in seawater

a)

SEAWARS (Seawater Artificial Release System)

b)

SEAWARS (Seawater Activated Release System)

c)

UWARS

(Universal Water Activated Release System)

d)

UWARS

(Universal Water Artificial Release System)

62.

The Anti-G suit gives protection against the effect of G-forces by

a)

applying counter-pressure to the abdomen, thighs and legs

b)

applying counter-pressure to the head, thighs and legs

c)

applying counter-pressure to the abdomen and head

d)

applying counter-pressure to the abdomen, thighs and arms

63.

The air supply to the Anti-G suit is automatically controlled by

a)

oxygen valve

b)

inflation valve

c)

Anti-G valve

d)

inlet and inflation valve, relief and safety topping-up valve, deflation plug

64.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of oxygen

a)

Combustible

b)

Support combustion

c)

Odorless

d)

Tasteless

65.

What happens to the combination valves when the servicing hose of the LOX cart is connected to the fill port?

a)

build-up port is closed and the gas port is opened to vent

b)

build-up port is closed and fill port is opened to vent

c)

both build-up port and fill port are opened to vent

d)

both fill and gas ports are closed

66.

The pressure closing valves is shut when the LOX converter pressure is

a)

below 75 psi

b)

above 75 psi

c)

above 110 psi

d)

above 210 psi

67.

The heat exchanger in the LOX system

a)

extract heat from the oxygen so that it is cooler for the aircrew to inhale

b)

helps to cool the oxygen as it flows to the regulator

c)

cools the return

d)

ensures that liquid oxygen is fully converted to gaseous oxygen suitable for breathing

68.

Which is the correct tool for separating the vent and supply hoses from the LOX converter system

a)

multi-grip

b)

vise-grip

c)

approved spanner or wrench

d)

by hand

69.

When the blinker on the oxygen regulator panel is

a)

white, it means that oxygen is flowing

b)

amber, LOX level is low

c)

red, system is over pressure

d)

black, oxygen filter is clogged

70.

The OBOGS oxygen concentrator compromises molecular sieve bed, coalescing filter, rotary valve and

a)

oxygen monitor

b)

oxygen regulator

c)

plenum assembly

d)

backup supply

71.

The hazards involved in handling liquid oxygen are

a)

pressure explosion, freezing and corrosion

b)

fire and explosion, pressure explosion and freezing

c)

fire and explosion, pressure explosion and corrosion

d)

fire and explosion, pressure explosion and high levels of heat

72.

Excessive shoulder wear is caused by

a)

locked or non-rotating wheel on a dry runway

b)

landing on a grooved runway

c)

under inflation of tires

d)

over inflation of tires

73.

The function of the master cylinder is to

a)

produce braking pressure

b)

build-up pressure to control the brake metering valve

c)

give artificial feel on the steering system

d)

standby as backup for emergency use

74.

What pushes the lock links over centre against the drag links point to ensure a positive down lock on the main undercarriage?

a)

safety pin

b)

downlock sensors

c)

downlock springs

d)

aircraft weight

75.

What is the function of the torque link?

a)

allow the inner cylinder to rotate and to move up and down in the outer cylinder

b)

allow the inner cylinder to move up and down in the outer cylinder but not to rotate

c)

prevent vibration build-up in the landing gear during take off and landing

d)

give improved steering capabilities when taxiing or narrow curves

76.

Normal slippery action on a thin film of water is

a)

viscous hydroplaning

b)

dynamic hydroplaning

c)

static hydroplaning

d)

reverted rubber hydroplaning

77.

What will happen if the micro-switches in the landing gear indicating system is not properly rigged?

a)

Every system will still continue to function normally

b)

The brake system on the landing gear will not be able to function

c)

The indicting system will not display the correct status of the landing gear

d)

The indicating system will be totally unserviceable (no indication at all)

78.

When the landing hear position indication system is not displaying the correct status of the landing gear for the right main gear indicator, what could be the fault?

a)

The indication bulb is blown.

b)

There is no electrical power to the landing gear position system

c)

There is no hydraulic power to the landing gear position system

d)

The micro-switches are not properly rigged.

79.

Which are the electrical components in the nose wheel steering system?

i. control unit

ii. feedback potentiometer

iii. command potentiometer

iv. steering amplifier

a)

i, ii & iii

b)

ii, iii & iv

c)

i, iii & iv

d)

i, ii & iv

80.

If the right wing of a monoplane is improperly rigged to a greater angle of incidence than designated in the manufacturer's specifications, it will cause the

a)

airplane to be off balance both laterally and directionally

b)

right wing to have both an increased lift and a decreased drag

c)

airplane to pitch and roll about the lateral axis

d)

right wing will have decrease in lift and drag