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CVS-RESPI ME REVIEW

Total questions: 132

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is/are the effect of sodium as primary determinant of ECF volume?

a)

Increased intravascular volume

b)

Increased blood pressure

c)

Increased extravascular volume

d)

Decreased blood pressure

2.

Which of the following is/are the effect of sodium as primary determinant of ECF volume?

a)

Increased intravascular volume

b)

Increased blood pressure

c)

Increased extravascular volume

d)

Decreased blood pressure

3.

Which of the following leads to increased heart rate and contractility?

a)

α1

b)

α2

c)

β1

d)

β2

4.

Which of the following best defines hypertension?

a)

SBP: ≥140 or DBP: ≥90 mm Hg

b)

SBP: ≥140 and DBP: ≥90 mm Hg

c)

SBP: >140 or DBP: >90 mm Hg

d)

SBP: ≥140 and/or DBP: ≥90 mm Hg

5.

Which of the following are primary determinants of cardiac output?

a)

TPR and SV

b)

HR and SV

c)

Preload and SV

d)

Preload and afterload

6.

Which of the following is the primary ECF cation?

a)

Potassium

b)

Sodium

c)

Calcium

d)

Chloride

e)

Phosphorus

7.

Which of the following contributes highest to vasoconstriction?

a)

Angiotensin I

b)

Angiotensin II

c)

Aldosterone

d)

Renin

8.

All of the following are appropriate steps in carotid pulse examination EXCEPT:

a)

Raise the head to about 30 degrees.

b)

Palpate both carotid arteries at the same time

c)

lowly increase pressure until maximal pulsation, then slowly decrease pressure until sensing the arterial pressure and contour.

d)

Assess the amplitude, contour, variations, and timing of the pulse.

9.

Which of the following is the primary intracellular cation?

a)

Potassium

b)

Sodium

c)

Calcium

d)

Chloride

e)

Phosphorus

10.

Systolic pressure is recorded upon hearing what type of sound?

a)

Tapping sound

b)

Soft swishing sound

c)

Crisp sound

d)

Blowing sound

e)

Silence

11.

All of the following are important elements in patient history of hypertension EXCEPT

a)

Lifestyle factors

b)

Current and previous medications

c)

Presence of vascular and abdominal bruits

d)

Symptoms suggesting causes of hypertension

e)

Duration of hypertension

12.

Which of the following tests are appropriate to test the endocrine system of the patient?

a)

BUN, Crea, Albumin

b)

Potassium, Calcium, TSH

c)

Total cholesterol, HDL, LDL

d)

Hematocrit, ECG, 2D echo

13.

Nicola, a 21-year old physician inspects the heart of her patient. Upon examination, she heard a soft decrescendo higher-pitched diastolic murmur. What does this indicate?

a)

Mitral stenosis

b)

Mitral regurgitation

c)

Aortic stenosis

d)

Aortic regurgitation

14.

In diagnosing a patient with hypertension, which of the following is/are applicable?

a)

Make 3 BP readings; use the average of 2nd to 3rd reading

b)

If <130/85 mmHg, re-measure after 3 years; 1 year in those with risk factors

c)

If home BP is ≥135/85 mmHg or 24h ambulatory BP ≥130/80 mmHg, there is hypertension diagnosis

d)

All of the options

15.

In the clinic, Nicola diagnosed her patient with grade 1 hypertension. Which of the following actions must she recommend to her patient?

a)

Do Diet (e.g. reduce food intake rich in sodium)

b)

Do Exercise (e.g. brisk walking for 30min/d)

c)

Start Drug treatments (e.g. amlodipine)

d)

Two of the options

16.

Which of the following antihypertensive drugs inhibits renin secretion?

a)

Captopril

b)

Losartan

c)

Diazoxide

d)

Aliskerin

e)

Verapamil

17.

Which of the following drugs inhibit Na/Cl pump in the DCT?

a)

HCTZ

b)

Furosemide

c)

Spironolactone

d)

Eplerenone

e)

Amiloride

18.

Which of the following drugs is/are first line for hypertension?

a)

CCB

b)

ACEI

c)

ARBs

d)

Thiazides

e)

All of the options

19.

Which of the following calcium blockers is drug of choice for hypertension?

a)

Nicardipine

b)

Lacidipine

c)

Amlodipine

d)

Nifedipine

e)

Felodipine

20.

Which of the following diuretic drugs has the most efficacy?

a)

HCTZ

b)

Furosemide

c)

Spironolactone

d)

Eplerenone

e)

Amiloride

21.

Which of the following drugs is the first line for hypertensive emergencies?

a)

Nitroprusside

b)

Nicardipine

c)

Labetalol

d)

Esmolol

e)

Hydralazine

22.

Which of the following drugs is most cardioselective?

a)

Atenolol

b)

Metoprolol

c)

Nebivolol

d)

Betaxolol

23.

All of the following drugs are used for hypertension in pregnant EXCEPT:

a)

Methyldopa

b)

Hydralazine

c)

Nifedipine

d)

Labetalopl

e)

Esmolol

24.

In hypertensive patients, how much salt intake is recommended per day?

a)

<4g

b)

<5g

c)

<6g

d)

<7g

25.

All of the following are adverse effects of thiazide diuretics EXCEPT:

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Hyperlipidemia

c)

Hyperuricemia

d)

Hypercalcemia

e)

Hyperkalemia

26.

All of the following is/are TRUE about sinus rate firing EXCEPT:

a)

Acetylcholine decreases sinus rate

b)

Epinephrine increases sinus rate

c)

Norepinephrine increases sinus rate

d)

None of the options

27.

All of the following is/are TRUE about P wave EXCEPT:

a)

Precedes QRS complex

b)

Has a duration of 0.06 to 0.12s

c)

Represents atrial depolarization

d)

Usually rounded and upright

e)

None of the options

28.

Rapid regular beating of sudden onset and offset are commonly caused by which of the following?

a)

Atrial Flutter

b)

Premature ventricular contractions

c)

Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardias

d)

Atrial fibrillation

e)

Any of the options

29.

Which of the following is the normal duration of PR interval?

a)

0.04 to 0.12s

b)

0.06 to 0.12s

c)

0.12 to 0.20s

d)

0.16 to 0.20s

e)

0.18 to 0.30s

30.

All of the following is/are TRUE about QRS complex EXCEPT:

a)

Follows the PR interval

b)

Has a duration of half the PR interval

c)

Represents ventricular depolarization

d)

Two of the options

e)

None of the options

31.

Intermittent palpitations are commonly caused by which of the following?

a)

Premature atrial contraction

b)

Premature ventricular contractions

c)

Supraventricular tachycardias

d)

Atrial fibrillation

e)

Any of the options

32.

Which of the following mainly supplies blood to the SA and AV nodes?

a)

Circumflex artery

b)

Right coronary artery

c)

Left coronary artery

d)

Left descending artery

33.

Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for ventricular arrhythmia?

a)

Myocardial infarction

b)

Congestive heart failure

c)

Coronary artery disease

d)

Cardiomyopathy

e)

Myocarditis

34.

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about QT interval?

a)

Measures ventricular depolarization and repolarization

b)

The faster the heart rate, the longer the QT interval

c)

Amiodarone decreases QT interval

d)

Two of the options

e)

All of the options

35.

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about normal sinus rhythm?

a)

Impulse formation begins in the SA node

b)

Heart rate of adults is higher than that of children

c)

P wave is upright in leads I and II

d)

Two of the options

e)

All of the options

36.

It is the only electrical connection b/w atria and ventricles.

a)

SA node

b)

AV node

c)

His bundle

d)

Left and right bundle branch

e)

Purkinje fiber

37.

Which of the following drugs has the highest potency as sodium channel blocker?

a)

Quinidine

b)

Lidocaine

c)

Mexiletine

d)

Flecainide

38.

P-pulmonale is caused by which of the following?

a)

RA overload

b)

LA overload

c)

RVH

d)

LVH

39.

Which of the following causes abnormal U wave in ECG?

a)

Amiodarone

b)

Sotalol

c)

Dofetilide

d)

Quinidine

e)

All of the options

40.

Prominent U wave in ECG indicates which of the following?

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Hypercalemia

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Hyperkalemia

41.

Which of the following is the most common cause of physiologic sinus tachycardia?

a)

Infection

b)

Anemia

c)

Exercise

d)

Anxiety

e)

Hyperthyroidism

42.

Regular sustained palpitations are commonly caused by which of the following?

a)

Ventricular tachycardias

b)

Premature ventricular contractions

c)

Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardias

d)

Atrial fibrillation

43.

Which of the following is/are TRUE about atrial fibrillation?

a)

95% of AF patients are >60years old

b)

Men is commonly affected than women

c)

Hypertension is a risk factor

d)

All of the options

44.

Which of the following represents ventricular recovery?

a)

ST segment

b)

J point

c)

T waveQT interval

d)

QT interval

e)

U wave

45.

Which of the following is characterized by symptomatic sinus tachycardia that occurs from a supine position to standing?

a)

Nonphysiologic sinus tachycardia

b)

Inappropriate sinus tachycardia

c)

Postural orthostatic tachycardia

d)

Any of the options

46.

Which of the following is the most common site of focal atrial tachycardia?

a)

Crista terminalis

b)

Valve annuli

c)

Atrial septum

d)

Pulmonary veins

e)

Coronary sinus

47.

Which of the following is/are TRUE about ventricular tachycardia?

a)

3 or more consecutive beats at 100bpm

b)

Non-sustained VT terminates w/in 30 seconds

c)

Sustained VT terminates more than 30 seconds

d)

All of the options

48.

Which of the following drugs can produce torsades de pointes?

a)

Propranolol

b)

Magnesium sulfate

c)

Verapamil

d)

Procainamide

49.

Which of the following is the most alarming symptom of ventricular fibrillation?

a)

Lightheadedness

b)

Exercise tolerance

c)

Syncope

d)

Cardiac arrest

50.

Which of the following is the drug of choice for acute SVT?

a)

Adenosine

b)

Magnesium

c)

Esmolol

d)

Amiodarone

e)

Potassium

51.

Which of the following is/are TRUE about supraventricular tachycardias?

a)

May originate from SA and AV node

b)

Mostly characterized by wide QRS complex

c)

Example is ventricular fibrillation

d)

Two of the options

e)

All of the options

52.

Which of the following drugs is mostly used for life-threatening arrhythmias?

a)

Dronedarone

b)

Amiodarone

c)

Propranolol

d)

Esmolol

e)

Digoxin

53.

Irregular sustained palpitations are commonly caused by which of the following?

a)

Atrial Flutter

b)

Premature ventricular contractions

c)

Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardias

d)

Atrial fibrillation

54.

All of the following are class IV antiarrhythmic drug EXCEPT:

a)

Verapamil

b)

Diltiazem

c)

Benazepril

d)

Two of the options

e)

None of the options

55.

Which of the following is considered as first choice for most VT?

a)

Verapamil

b)

Esmolol

c)

Sotalol

d)

Quinidine

e)

Flecainide

56.

Which of the following is/are TRUE about focal atrial tachycardia?

a)

Can be caused by small reentry circuit

b)

Only occurs in patients with heart diseases

c)

Has one P-wave morphology in ECG findings

d)

Two of the options

e)

All of the options

57.

Which of the ff is associated with the ST segment?

a)

K efflux

b)

Na influx

c)

Ca influx

d)

Ca efflux

e)

K influx

58.

Which of the following is not a symptom of hypokalemia?

a)

Muscle weakness

b)

Cardiac arrhythmia

c)

Hypotension

d)

Paralytic ileus

e)

Fatigue

59.

Which of the following is responsible for ventricular repolarization?

a)

Ca efflux

b)

K efflux

c)

Na influx

d)

Na efflux

e)

K influx

60.

Which of the following ECG segments corresponds with the phase 0 of the ventricular action potential?

a)

ST segment

b)

PR interval

c)

QRS complex

d)

QT interval

e)

P wave

61.

What is the characteristic ECG finding in atrial flutter?

a)

Loss of P waves

b)

Sawtooth appearance

c)

Wavy P wave

d)

At least 3 different P wave morphologies

e)

Biphasic P wave

62.

All of the following conditions predispose to infective endocarditis EXCEPT:

a)

congenital heart disease

b)

rheumatic heart disease

c)

degenerative heart valve

d)

IV drug use

e)

None of the options

63.

Which of the following is a normal component of the oral cavity flora?

a)

S. viridans

b)

S. aureus

c)

S. gallolyticus

d)

Actinobacillus

e)

All of the options

64.

Which of the following laboratory manifestations has the highest frequency on patients with IE?

a)

Fever

b)

Heart murmurs

c)

Anemia

d)

Elevated CRP

e)

Elevated ESR

65.

Which of the following should you opt to use if you're suspecting Brucella as causative agent of IE?

a)

Blood culture

b)

PCR recovery of microbial DNA

c)

Cardiac Imaging

d)

ESR and CRP-level

e)

CBC

66.

Which of the following is the best option to view valve vegetations?

a)

Chest Xray

b)

ransthoracic echocardiography

c)

Transesophageal endocardiography

d)

CT scan + MRI

67.

These are small, painless, erythematous lesions on the palms or soles

a)

Splinter hemorrhages

b)

Osler nodes

c)

Janeway lesions

d)

Roth spots

68.

Which of the following is the major offender in IE among IV drug abusers?

a)

S. viridans

b)

S. aureus

c)

S. gallolyticus

d)

Haemophilus

69.

Which of the following is the adverse effect of using aminoglycoside antibiotics?

a)

Hepatotoxicity

b)

Renal toxicity

c)

GI upset

d)

Torsades de pointes

e)

Cardiac arrest

70.

A 21 year old physician suspects that her patient has infective endocarditis caused by Enterococci species. Which of the following should she give to the patient?

a)

Oxacillin + Nafcillin

b)

Ceftriaxone + Vancomycin

c)

Vancomycin + Streptomycin

d)

Penicillin + Ceftriaxone + Gentamicin

e)

Gentamicin only

71.

What is the most common affected heart valve in infective endocarditis?

a)

Aortic valve

b)

Pulmonic valve

c)

Bicuspid valve

d)

Tricuspid valve

72.

Which of the following is the most common cause of acute endocarditis?

a)

S. viridans

b)

S. aureus

c)

S. gallolyticus

d)

CoNS

e)

HACEK group

73.

All of the following are TRUE about RHD EXCEPT:

a)

Resulted from recurrences of rheumatic fever

b)

Most common b/w 25 to 40 years old

c)

Women > Men

d)

May progress to stroke and heart failure

e)

None of the options

74.

Which of the following drugs should be given if the cause is MSSA infecting prosthetic valves?

a)

Nafcillin + Gentamicin + Rifampin

b)

Vancomycin + Gentamicin + Rifampin

c)

Cefazolin + Vancomycin + Ceftriaxone

d)

Oxacillin + Cefazolin + Vancomycin

75.

After valve replacement, the risk of PVE is greatestduring which of the following?

a)

2-3 months

b)

4-6 months

c)

6-12 months

d)

12-24 months

76.

Which of the following is the most common cause of native endocarditis?

a)

S. viridans

b)

S. aureus

c)

S. gallolyticus

d)

CoNS

e)

HACEK group

77.

Which of the following is the most common clinical features of ARF?

a)

Monoarthritis

b)

Polyarthritis

c)

Endocarditis

d)

Pancarditis

e)

Chorea

78.

Which of the following drug is used if the patients have severe or immediate B-lactam allergy?

a)

Penicillin G

b)

Ceftriaxone

c)

Gentamicin

d)

Vancomycin

e)

Ampicillin

79.

Which of the following is the standard oral regimen as prophylactic antibiotic of endocarditis in adults with high-risk cardiac lesions?

a)

Amoxicillin

b)

Ampicillin

c)

Azithromycin

d)

Ceftriaxone

e)

Clindamycin

80.

All of the following are features of ARF EXCEPT:

a)

Low grade fever

b)

Elevated CRP-level

c)

Skin rashes

d)

None of the options

81.

Which of the following drug is considered as the mainstay secondary prevention for ARF?

a)

Azithromycin

b)

Penicillin V

c)

Benzathine Penicillin G IV

d)

Benzathine Penicillin G IM

e)

Benzathine Penicillin G PO

82.

Which of the following is the hallmark of rheumatic carditis?

a)

Valvular damage

b)

Epitope spreading

c)

Tissue scarring

d)

Polyarthritis

83.

Which of the following is the most common cause of ARF?

a)

Streptococcus pyogenes

b)

Streptococcus agalactiae

c)

Staphylococcus haemolitycus

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

84.

All of the following are TRUE about chorea EXCEPT:

a)

Also called as Rodenham's chorea

b)

Found mainly in males

c)

Affect particularly the lower limbs

d)

Two of the options

e)

All of the options

85.

Which of the following are cardinal symptoms of a respiratory disease?

a)

Cough and tachypnea

b)

Cough and dyspnea

c)

Cough and chest pain

d)

Cough and wheezing

86.

Which of the following manifestations first appears on a patient with bronchiolitis?

a)

Clear rhinorrhea

b)

Fever

c)

Wheezes

d)

Tachypnea

e)

Dyspnea

87.

Which of the following pathological findings is/are accurate with acute viral bronchiolitis?

a)

Intense neutrophilic and mononuclear infiltration

b)

Necrosis of bronchiolar epithelium

c)

Submucosal and peribronchiolar fibrosis

d)

Two of the options

e)

None of the options

88.

A 21 yr old physician has diagnosed her 2mo patient as tachypneic. Which of the following accurately describes her findings?

a)

RR ≥ 40

b)

RR ≥ 50

c)

RR ≥ 60

d)

RR ≥ 80

e)

None of the options

89.

All of the following is/are criteria in diagnosing bronchiolitis EXCEPT:

a)

Tachypneic

b)

Age 11mo

c)

Alar flaring

d)

Immunodeficient

e)

None of the options

90.

All of the following is/are TRUE about bronchiolitis EXCEPT:

a)

More common to males

b)

LBW and immunodeficiency are risk factors

c)

Rhinovirus accounts for more than 50% of the cases

d)

None of the options

91.

A 21 yr old physician has diagnosed his patient with bronchiolitis. Which of the following is/are TRUE based on 2021 AAP guidelines on bronchiolitis?

a)

Diagnosis must be made clinically

b)

Salbutamol is an option

c)

Epinephrine nebulization is an option

d)

Hypertonic saline should be used in the ER

92.

A 21 yr old physician uses WARM respiratory scoring tool to help in her assessment of the 8mo patient. Her findings include end expiratory wheezing, normal air exchange, RR of 50, and subcostal retractions. Based on the tool, how many points do the results indicate?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

93.

pH = 7.02; PaCO2 = 28

a)

Metabolic Acidosis

b)

Metabolic Alkalosis

c)

Respiratory Acidosis

d)

Respiratory Alkalosis

94.

Which of the following is/are TRUE about prognosis of bronchiolitis?

a)

Self-limited

b)

Resolves within 7 to 10 days

c)

Significant morbidity and low mortality

d)

Development of asthma may occur

e)

All of the options

95.

Which of the following is characterized by a high pitched expiratory noise?

a)

Stertor

b)

Stridor

c)

Wheezing

d)

Rhonchi

e)

Crackles

96.

Which of the following is the best measure to prevent transmission of viruses responsible for bronchiolitis?

a)

Administration of palivizumab

b)

Family education

c)

Hand hygiene

d)

Cessation of smoking

97.

Which of the following is the most common chronic disease in childhood in developed countries?

a)

Bronchiolitis

b)

Acute bronchitis

c)

Bronchial asthma

d)

Chronic bronchitis

e)

Bronchiectasis

98.

A 21 yr old patient has diagnosed her patient with bronchiolitis. Which of the following accurately describes the patient's ABG results?

a)

Metabolic Acidosis

b)

Metabolic Alkalosis

c)

Respiratory Acidosis

d)

Respiratory Alkalosis

99.

All of the following is/are minor risk factors for bronchial asthma EXCEPT:

a)

Allergic rhinitis

b)

Severe LRT infection

c)

Exposure to smoking

d)

Inhalant allergen sensitization

e)

None of the options

100.

Which of the following drugs is/are considered to have a narrow therapeutic index which commonly leads to overdose with nausea and vomiting as adverse effects?

a)

Fluticasone

b)

Theophylline

c)

Montelukast

d)

Prednisone

e)

Salmeterol

101.

A 21 yr old physician has diagnosed her 10mo patient with bronchiolitis obliterans. Which of the following is the most possible causative agent of this disease?

a)

Rhinovirus

b)

RSV

c)

Adenovirus

d)

Influenza virus

e)

Parainfluenza virus

102.

All of the following is/are TRUE about palivizumab EXCEPT:

a)

Administered intramusculaIndicated for <29 wk gestationrly

b)

Indicated for <29 wk gestation

c)

May be given to infants with neuromuscular disease

d)

None of the options

103.

According to GINA 2021 guidelines, which of the following is the best reliever for asthmatic patients 12 years and older?

a)

Budesonide

b)

Mometasone

c)

Fluticasone

d)

Formoterol

e)

Albuterol

104.

All of the following are pathological findings found in bronchial asthma EXCEPT:

a)

Hyperplasia of mucous glands

b)

Mast cell infiltration of the mucosa

c)

Edema of the mucosa

d)

Formation of mucous plugs

105.

Which of the following is considered as drug of choice in acute asthmatic bronchospasms?

a)

Albuterol

b)

Salmeterol

c)

Metaproterenol

d)

Terbutaline

e)

Levosalbutamol

106.

Which of the following sounds should you hear if there is an obstruction in the intrathoracic region?

a)

Stertor

b)

Inspiratory stridor

c)

Expiratory stridor

d)

Wheezing

e)

Rhonchi

107.

A non-invasive mode of oxygen delivery providing some positive and expiratory pressure as rescue therapy

a)

Nasal cannula

b)

High flow nasal cannula

c)

PEF meter

d)

Nasal suctioning

108.

Which of the following correctly describes hospital-acquired pneumonia?

a)

acquired outside of the hospital setting

b)

acquired 48 hours after admission into the hospital

c)

pneumonia acquired 48 hours after endotracheal intubation

d)

pneumonia caused by multidrug-resistant pathogens

109.

Which of the following is the main route of microbe-causing pneumonia?

a)

Aspiration

b)

Hematogenous spread

c)

Contiguous spread

d)

Any of the options

110.

All of the following are respiratory defense mechanisms EXCEPT:

a)

Nasal hair and turbinates

b)

Tracheobronchial tree

c)

L

d)

Gag reflex

e)

None of the options

111.

Which of the following cytokines is responsible for fever?

a)

I

b)

IL2

c)

IL3

d)

IL4

e)

IL5

112.

Which of the following phases correctly describes the presence of proteinaceous exudates are present in the alveoli

a)

Edema

b)

Red hepatization

c)

Gray hepatization

d)

Resolution

113.

Which of the following cell types are dominant in resolution stage of classic pneumonia?

a)

T cells

b)

B cells

c)

Macrophage

d)

Neutrophils

114.

Which of the following is the most common causative agent of pneumonia?

a)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

b)

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Haemophilus influenzae

c)

Haemophilus influenzae

d)

Respiratory viruses

115.

All of the following are atypical pathogens of pneumonia EXCEPT:

a)

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Chlamydia pneumoniae

d)

adenovirus

116.

All of the following are TRUE about community acquired pneumonia EXCEPT:

a)

80% is treated as outpatei

b)

Highest among children <4 years and adults >60 years

c)

Most common cause of death from infection in patients >65 years

d)

None of the options

117.

Which of the following symptoms is highly-associated with atypical pneumonia?

a)

Dry cough

b)

Productive cough

c)

Pleuritic chest pain

d)

Dyspnea

e)

Chills

118.

All of the following may be observed upon physical examination of a patient with pneumonia EXCEPT:

a)

Decreased RR

b)

Increased use of access

c)

Crackles

d)

Friction rub

119.

Which of the following is the standard diagnosis of respiratory viral infection?

a)

Nasopharyngeal aspirates

b)

Nasopharyngeal swab

c)

Blood culture

d)

Gram's stain

120.

Which of the following is highly increased if a patient is infected with pneumonia?

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgE

e)

IgD

121.

A patient was categorized as Class 3 using the Pneumonia Severity Index. Which of the following onset of care should you recommend?

a)

Outpatient

b)

Outpatient on oral antibiotics

c)

Outpatient on oral antibiotics or brief inpatient

d)

Inpatient

122.

All of the following correctly describes CURB-65 as an alternative tool for pneumonia risk assessment EXCEPT:

a)

Confusion

b)

Blood Urea Nitrogen (≥ 20 mg/dL)

c)

Respirations (≥ 24/min)

d)

Blood Pressure (SBP: < 90 mm Hg or DBP: <60 mm Hg)

e)

Age: ≥65 years

123.

A patient was categorized as Class 3 using CURB-65 tool. Which of the following must be recommended?

a)

Outpatietn

b)

Outpatient on oral antibiotics

c)

Outpatient on oral antibiotics or brief inpatient

d)

Inpatient

124.

Which of the following microbiological studies are required for low-risk CAP?

a)

Gram stain

b)

Blood culture

c)

Biopsy

d)

Microbiologic studies are optional

125.

A patient experiences septic shock and needs mechanical ventilation. Which of the following correctly describes the patient's conditions?

a)

Low-risk CAP; Outpatient

b)

Moderate-risk CAP; Ward admission

c)

Moderate-risk CAP; ICU admission

d)

High-risk CAP;

Ward admission

e)

High-risk CAP;

ICU admission

126.

For low-risk CAP without comorbid illness, which of the following remains the standard drug of choice?

a)

Amoxicillin

b)

Penicillin G

c)

Oxacillin

d)

Vancomycin

e)

Ceftriaxone

127.

If no improvement by day 3 or progressively worsening condition despite receiving antibiotics, which of the following should you consider?

a)

Non-infectious causes

b)

Resistance to antibiotics

c)

Wrong dose of antibiotics

d)

All of the options

128.

M. tuberculosis is primarily mediated by which of the following cells?

a)

Th1 cells

b)

Th2 cells

c)

Macrophages

d)

Neutrophils

e)

Monocytes

129.

Tuberculin skin test is based on which of the following?

a)

Cell mediated

b)

Humoral mediated

c)

Delayed hypersensitivity

d)

Any of the options

130.

Which of the following is TRUE about primary TB?

a)

Located in the middle and lower lobes

b)

Also called as reactivation TB

c)

Commonly involves lymph nodes and pleura

d)

Diagnosed via fine-needle aspiration

e)

Any of the options

131.

Which of the following is most commonly seen in chest radiograph of tuberculous patient?

a)

Lung consolidation

b)

Upper-lobe infiltrates with cavities

c)

Ground glass opacities

d)

All of the options

132.

All of the following stimulation results to increased BP EXCEPT ...

a)

α1

b)

β1α2

c)

β1

d)

β2

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