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PRE PSPM

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

In particular molecule, the ratio of hydrogen atoms is twice to carbon atoms. This molecule must be

a)

belong to proteins group

b)

belong to carbohydrates group

c)

belong to lipids group

d)

belong to nucleic acids group

2.

Chargaff's rules state that DNA from any species of any organism should have a 1:1 stoichiometric ratio of purine and pyrimidine bases. Which of the following shows the relationships of purine and pyrimidine in wide range of organisms

a)

A + T = C + G

b)

A = C, G = T

c)

A = G, G = T

d)

G + A = C + T

3.

Three potato strips are in contact to each other. The water potential for Potato strip A is -30 kPa, Potato strip B is -80 kPa and water potential for Potato strip C is 0 kPa. Predict the direction of osmosis across the potato strips.

a)

A to B, A to C, C to A

b)

C to B, A to B, C to A

c)

B to C, B to A, A to C

d)

B to A, A to C, A to C

4.

The solutions in the arms of a U-tube are separated at the bottom of the tube by a selectively permeable membrane. If you examine side A after three days, you should find

a)

a decrease in the concentration of NaCl and glucose and an increase in the water level

b)

a decrease in the concentration of NaCl, an increase in water level, and no change in the concentration of glucose

c)

a decrease in the concentration of NaCl and a decrease in the water level

d)

no change in the concentration of NaCl and glucose and an increase in the water level

5.

Suppose a young boy is always tired and fatigued, suffering from a metabolic disease. Which of the following organelles is most likely involved in this disease?

a)

lysosomes

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

ribosomes

d)

mitochondria

6.

When we first see chiasmata under a microscope, we know that _____.

a)

separation of homologs has occurred

b)

Corresponding segments of non-sister chromatids are exchanged.

c)

Two sister chromatids exchange identical pieces of DNA.

d)

Two chromatids get tangled, resulting in one re-sequencing its DNA

7.

Which of the following events occurs during meiosis?

I. Centrioles moves to opposite poles

II. Crossing over and exchange of genetic materials

III. Sister chromatids joined together at single centromere

a)

I and II

b)

I and III

c)

II and III

d)

I, II and III

8.

In particular cell, there are 44 units of DNA during G1. How many units of DNA in the cell during G2?

a)

88

b)

44

c)

22

d)

48

9.

Feather color in budgies is determined by two different genes, Y and B, one for pigment on the outside and one for the inside of the feather. Two budgies were crossed. What are the most likely genotypes for the two budgies that produce heterozygous offspring (YyBb)?

I. YYBb X yyBB

II. YYbb X YyBB

III. yyBb X Yybb

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

10.

A woman who has blood type A positive has a daughter who is type O positive and a son who is type B negative. Rh positive is a trait that shows simple dominance over Rh negative. Which of the following is a possible phenotype for the father?

a)

A negative

b)

O negative

c)

B positive

d)

AB negative

11.

A man has extra digits (six fingers on each hand and six toes on each foot). His wife and their daughter have a normal number of digits. Having extra digits is a dominant trait. The couple's second child has extra digits. What is the probability that their next (third) child will have extra digits?

a)

1/2

b)

1/4

c)

1/8

d)

3/4

12.

A normal couple, half of the sons are colour blind while half of the daughters are carriers. The gene or colourblind is located..

a)

X chromosome of the father

b)

Y chromosome of the father

c)

one -X chromosome of the mother

d)

both X chromosomes of the mother

13.

In a population that is Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, 18% of the individual show the recessive trait. What is the frequency of the dominant allele in the population?

a)

0.58

b)

0.42

c)

0.18

d)

0.82

14.

In a population, 14% of the babies are born with sickle-cell anaemia. What is the frequency of the carrier genotype in the population?

a)

0.453

b)

0.346

c)

0.654

d)

0.400

15.

Which of the following changes to a segment of a gene containing 5' ACTCCG 3' triplet code has the most serious effect on an individual?

a)

5' ACCCCG 3'

b)

5' CATCCG 3'

c)

5' AATCCG 3'

d)

5' ACCTCCG 3'

16.

The insertion of Adenine at the beginning of DNA sequence 5' ACT CCG CTG 3', will produce what sequence of mRNA?

a)

5' UUG AGG CGA C 3'

b)

3' UUG AGG CGA C 5'

c)

5' AAC TCC GCT G 3'

d)

3' TTG AGG CGA C 5'

17.

The frameshift mutation of DNA sequence 5' TAA ACT CCG CTG 3', will produce what sequence of DNA?

a)

5' TAA ACT CCG ATG 3'

b)

5' TAA CTC CCG ATG 3'

c)

5' TAA CTC CGA TG 3'

d)

5' TAA ACT CCG ATT 3'

18.

Non disjunction of sex chromosome can cause the following genetic disorder

I. Turner syndrome

II. Klinefelter syndrom

III. Down syndrome

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III only

19.

Which of the following would be the most suitable vector to carry a target gene that consists of 39 900 bases?

a)

Plasmid

b)

Bacteriophage

c)

Cosmid

d)

Yeast Artificial chromosome

20.

To produce cDNA, the following tools are required

a)

Source of gene interest: DNA from Prokaryotic, Reverse transcriptase enzyme, Host cell: Eukaryotic cell

b)

Source of gene interest: DNA from Eukaryotic cell, Reverse transcriptase enzyme, Host cell: Prokaryotic cell

c)

Source of gene interest: DNA from Eukaryotic cell, Taq polymerase, Host cell: Prokaryotic cell

d)

Source of gene interest: DNA from Prokaryotic, Reverse transcriptase enzyme, Host cell: Prokaryotic cell

21.

The presence of white and blue colonies in Blue-White screening indicates that?

a)

Transformation or uptake of recombinant and recombinant plasmid occurred

b)

Insertion process, target gene inserted into plasmid successful

c)

White colonies originates from host cell transformed with plasmid carrying intact lac Z

d)

Blue colonies originates from host cell transformed with plasmid carrying target gene

22.

A gene cloning experiment was carried out by using the plasmid as the cloning vector. The screening process will utilise which component(s) of the plasmid?

a)

Origin of replication (ori) and ampicillin resistance gene (ampR)

b)

ampicillin resistance gene (ampR)

c)

multiple cloning site (MCS) containing lacZ

d)

ampicillin resistance gene (ampR) and multiple cloning site (MCS) containing lacZ

23.

A gene cloning experiment was carried out by using the recombinant plasmid as the cloning vector and E.coli as a host cell. The origin of replication (ori) of the plasmid become mutated. If cultured in media containing ampicillin and X gal. Which of the following observation are true of the bacteria?

I. The bacteria survive

II. No colony of bacteria will form

III. X gal is not digested

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

24.

What is the purpose to treat cDNA-mRNA hybrid with RNase before the addition of DNA polymerase III, during production of cDNA?

I. To release the mRNA, to be reused

II. To degrade the mRNA

III. To release the cDNA, to form a template for DNA polymerase III to synthesis second cDNA strand

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

25.

Pollen germination and tube growth are processes fundamental for reproduction of flowering plants. The growth of the pollen tube towards the ovary is due to...

a)

Gravitational force

b)

Chemical signals released by polar nuclei

c)

Chemical signals released by the egg

d)

Chemical signals released by synergid cells

26.

At birth, the ovaries together contain about 1–2 million primary oocytes, of which about 500 fully mature between puberty and menopause. What situation can conserve the number of secondary oocytes?

a)

Pregnant

b)

Menopause

c)

Menstruation

d)

Stress

27.

A child were born with less body hair and skin problem. If the problem is due to error in gastrulation, which germ layer (s) may be defected?

a)

Ectoderm

b)

Endoderm

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Ectoderm and endoderm

28.

Which of the following is the hormone released by ovary in female reproductive cycle?

a)

I and II

b)

II and III

c)

III and IV

d)

I, II, III and IV

29.

If the sperm that fertilised the egg have an abnormal chromosomal number. Which part of the seeds with abnormal chromosomal number in it cells?

a)

1 and 2

b)

2 and 3

c)

1, 4 and 5

d)

3, 4 and 5

30.

An arthropod goes through a complete life cycle with several distinct stages, which stages of growth that is critical for an arthropod?

a)

Imago

b)

Instar

c)

metamorphosis

d)

ecdysis