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PHAR 648 EXAM 3 FALL 2021

Total questions: 35

Worksheet time: 9hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the causative agent of Progessive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy?

a)

Cytomegalovirus

b)

John Cunningham virus

c)

Human reovirus

d)

Respiratory syncytial virus

e)

Rubella virus

2.

Which of the following is an indication of Arabinoside cytosine? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY):

a)

Acute lymphocytic leukemia

b)

Acute granulocytic leukemia

c)

Burkitt's lymphoma

d)

Shingles

e)

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

3.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Foscavir?

a)

Hypercalcemia

b)

Anemia

c)

Hypomagnesemia

d)

1st-degree AV block

e)

Hyperphosphatemia

4.

Caliseta melanura is the vector for which of the following? ______ virus:

a)

St. Louis encephalitis

b)

Dengue fever

c)

Yellow fever

d)

Eastern equine encephalitis

e)

Zika disease

5.

Mr. Zet is receiving two injections of Cabenuva monthly for the treatment of his AIDS; which of the following is Mr. Zet being injected with? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY):

a)

Doravirine

b)

Rilpivirine

c)

Emivirine

d)

Cabotegravir

e)

Dolutegravir

6.

Which of the following is a specialized strand of mycelium upon which fungal asexual spores are borne?

a)

Conidia

b)

Hyphae

c)

Conidiophore

d)

Thallus

e)

Mycelia

7.

Which of the following is an example of Fungi imperfect?

a)

Fusicoccum amygdali

b)

Pseudallescheria boydii

c)

Nocardia brasilensis

d)

Phialiphora verrucose

e)

Rhinosporidium seebri

8.

Which of the following inhibits protein synthesis is fungi by inhibiting leucyl-tRNA synthase?

a)

Candicidin

b)

Tavaborole

c)

Tolnaftate

d)

Halprogin

e)

Undecylenic acid

9.

Which of the following is the PRIMARY indication of Kerydin?

a)

Versicolor

b)

Dandruff

c)

Onychomycosis

d)

Maduromycosis

e)

Chromoblastomycosis

10.

Which of the following is used to treat fungal infection of the nails?

a)

Penlac

b)

Ertaczo

c)

Femstat

d)

Vagistat-1

e)

Terazol-3

11.

Which of the following inhibits fungal cell wall synthesis by inhibiting Chitin synthase?

a)

Natamycin

b)

Nikkomycin

c)

Polyoxin-D

d)

Naftin

e)

Luzu

12.

The mechanism of action of Ancobon involves the inhibition of which of the following?

a)

Chitin synthase

b)

Squalene epoxidase

c)

Thymidylate synthase

d)

14C-demethylase

e)

Delta-14 reductase

13.

Which of the following should be monitored or conducted during long-term therapy with Lamisil? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY);

a)

Serum alkaline phosphatase

b)

Complete blood count

c)

Renal function test

d)

Liver function test

e)

EKG

14.

Which of the following is effective in the treatment of blepharitis or keratoconjunctivitis caused by Fusarium solani? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY):

a)

Terconazole

b)

Natamycin

c)

Isavuconazole

d)

Ciclopirox

e)

Voriconazole

15.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an example of a heterothallic fungus?

a)

Histoplasma capsulatum

b)

Blastomyces dermatiditis

c)

Sporothrix schenckii

d)

Paracoccidiodes brasiliensis

e)

Pseudallescheria boydii

16.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be classified as a Protease inhibitor

a)

Penciclovir

b)

Nelfinavir

c)

Darunavir

d)

Atazanavir

e)

Saquinavir

17.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be employed in treating systemic mycoses?

a)

Ambisome

b)

Vfend

c)

Eraxis

d)

Mycostatin

e)

Cancidas

18.

Which of the following is the appropriate and usual dosage of Fuzeon?

a)

150mg SQ BID

b)

5 mg/kg IV q 12 hr

c)

6 mg/kg IV QD

d)

600 mg IV once

e)

90 mg SQ BID

19.

Which of the following is the appropriate dosage of Tamiflu for the prophylaxis of the "flu" in a young man who weighs 20 kg?

a)

30mg PO BID

b)

45mg PO BID

c)

60mg PO QD

d)

45 PO QD

e)

75mg PO BID

20.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be classified as an anti-HIV NNRTI ?

a)

Rescriptor

b)

Viramune

c)

Intelence

d)

Pifeltro

e)

Invirase

21.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Sustiva? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY):

a)

Bradycardia and Flushing

b)

Rash and Steevens-Johnson syndrome

c)

Abnormal dreams and Depression

d)

Insomnia and Somnolence

e)

Sialosis and Pancreatitis

22.

Mr. Zot's hepatitis C infection is being treated with Viekira: based on the contents of that drug, which of the following is Mr. Zot NOT receiving?

a)

Danoprevir

b)

Ombitasvir

c)

Ritonavir

d)

Dasabuvir

e)

Partitaprevir

23.

Which of the following monoclonal antibodies with potential efficacy in COVID-19 is an inhibitor of IL-6 ?

a)

Imdevimab

b)

Casirivimab

c)

Etesevimab

d)

Bamlanivimab

e)

Sarilumab

24.

The mechanism of action of Molnupiravir, when employed in the treatment of COVID-19, involves the inhibition of which of the following?

a)

RNA-dependent DNA-polymerase

b)

DNA-dependent RNA-polymerase

c)

DNA-dependent DNA-polymerase

d)

RNA-dependent RNA-polymerase

e)

DNA ligase

25.

Which of the following prevents gene transcription by inhibiting the endonuclease activity of polymerase acidic protein?

a)

Zanamivir

b)

Peramivir

c)

Oseltamivir

d)

Baloxavir

e)

Boceprevir

26.

Which of the following is effective in the management of Shingles because it inhibits APEX nuclease-1? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY):

a)

Brivir

b)

BVDU

c)

Herplex

d)

Zostex

e)

Fiacitabin

27.

Ribavirin has been shown to be effective in the management of which of the following ?

a)

Hepatitis C

b)

Influenza type A

c)

Influenza type C

d)

Respiratory syncytial virus infection

e)

Genital herpes

28.

Which of the following is the usual and appropriate dosage of Zovirax when it is employed in the treatment of Chickenpox ?

a)

200mg PO 5 times daily

b)

20 mg/kg PO QID

c)

10 mg/kg IV q 8 hr x 21 days

d)

400 mg PO BID

e)

800 mg PO 5 times daily

29.

Which of the following statements about intelence is FALSE?

a)

It exhibits auto-induction

b)

The parent compound is mainly excreted through the feces

c)

It has a half-life of 41 hours

d)

It is a substrate for cytochrome P450 3A4, 2C9 and 2C19

e)

It has a 99.6% binding capability to albumin

30.

Select the INCORRCT statement: A concurrent administration of Raltegravir and ______ may result in increased incidence of _______:

a)

Lovastain

rhabdmyolysis

b)

Acetaminophen

hepatotoxicity

c)

Darunavir/Ritonavir

Rash

d)

Fenofibrate

depression

e)

Isoniazid

hepatotoxicity

31.

Which of the following statements about Amphotericin B is FALSE ?

a)

It can be administered intravenously, intraventricularly and intramuscularly

b)

Its terminal half-life is about 15 days

c)

It is adequately distributed to the pleura, peritoneum and synovium

d)

Amphotec is lipid complex preparation of the drug that contains DMPC and DMPG in a 7:3 ratio

e)

It is highly plasma protein-bound but is not extensively metabolized

32.

Which of the following sets contains an adverse effect that is LEAST LIKELY to be experienced during therapy with Amphotericin B ?

a)

An increase in BUN, Serum creatinine and Glomerular filtration rate

b)

Hematuria, Hemoptysis and Epistaxis

c)

Melena and Anorexia

d)

Dyspnea, Nausea and Vomiting

e)

Anuria and Azotemia

33.

Which of the following statements about Voriconazole is FALSE ?

a)

It can be administered PO and IV

b)

It is a substrate for cytochrome P450 3A4, 2C9 and 2C19

c)

It can undergo zero-order kinetics

d)

It can cause blurred vision, impaired night vision and chromatopsia

e)

Its loading dose is 6 mg/kg PO q 12 hours x 2 doses

34.

Select the INCORRECT statement:

a)

Itraconazole causes negative inotropism while Fluconazole does not

b)

Itraconazole is biotransformed by cytochrome P450 3A4 while Fluconazole is mostly excreted unchanged

c)

Itraconazole is less likely than Fluconazole to cause torsade de Pointes

d)

Itraconazole is effective against Leishmania while Fluconazole is not

e)

Itraconazole has a higher plasma protein-binding capability than Fluconazole

35.

Which of the following is NOT matched with its correct contents ?

a)

DOVATO

Dolutegravir + Lamivudine

b)

BIKTARVY

Bictegravir + Emtricitabine + Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate

c)

SYMFI

Efavirenz + Lamivudine + Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate

d)

DELSTRIGO

Doravirine + Lamivudine + Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate

e)

PREZCOBIX

Darunavir + Cobicistat

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