wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

AUBF LONG EXAM 2021_BSMLS3

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In urinalysis, the image below is reported as ______

a)

Average number seen in 10 oio

b)

Average number seen in 10 hpfs

c)

Average number seen in 10 lpfs

d)

Counted using a Neubauer chamber

2.

This shows a urinary sediment viewed under 400× magnification using bright field microscopy. This colorless crystal is presumptively identified as:

a)

Hippuric acid

b)

Calcium phosphate

c)

Acetaminophen

d)

Cystine

3.

Which is true about the formed element shown below?

a)

May be found in normal alkaline urine

b)

Associated with renal pathology

c)

Characteristic of glomerulonephritis

d)

Associated with lung pathology

4.

Which of the following will be characterized by an increased number of the urinary component seen in below?

a)

Nephrotic syndrome

b)

Contamination from vaginal discharge

c)

Acute glomerulonephritis

d)

Biliary tract obstruction

5.

The formed element in the high-power field shown below is most likely a ________

a)

Waxy cast

b)

Hyaline cast

c)

Granular cast

d)

Fiber artifact

6.

"Glitter cell" is a term used to describe a specific type of _____________

a)

Fatty droplet

b)

Ketone body

c)

Oval fat body

d)

Neutrophil

7.

What condition is suggested by the number of the formed element that predominates in the high-power field of the image below?

a)

Pyelonephritis

b)

Improperly collected specimen

c)

Glomerulonephritis

d)

Normal sample

8.

Below is the most frequent parasite encountered in the urine.

a)

Schistosoma haematobium

b)

Trichomonas vaginalis

c)

Enterobius vermicularis

d)

None of the above

9.

Identify the image below

a)

Calcium oxalate

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Leucine

d)

Ammonium biurate

10.

Identify the image below

a)

Uric acid

b)

Triple phosphate

c)

Amorphous urates

d)

Calcium oxalate

11.

The best way to break the chain of infection is:

a)

Hand sanitizing

b)

Personal protective equipment

c)

Aerosol prevention

d)

Decontamination

12.

Urine specimens must be tested within:

a)

1 hour

b)

2 hours

c)

3 hours

d)

4 hours

13.

This specimen is used for monitoring insulin therapy:

a)

Glucose tolerance specimen

b)

2-hour postprandial

c)

Fasting specimen

d)

First morning specimen

14.

Urine clarity described as "many particulates, print blurred through urine" is reported as:

a)

Turbid

b)

Clear

c)

Hazy

d)

Cloudy

15.

A specimen containing 2 g/dL of protein and 1 g/dL of glucose has a specific gravity reading of 1.035. As the medtech on duty, you will:

a)

Report as 1.035

b)

Report as 1.030

c)

Report as 1.025

d)

Report as 1.020

16.

Which among the following reagent strip reactions require the longest time?

a)

pH

b)

Blood

c)

Nitrite

d)

Leukocyte esterase

17.

What is the cell usually used as reference in focusing the microscope?

a)

Squamous cell

b)

Transitional cell

c)

White blood cell

d)

Red blood cell

18.

On chemical examination, a urine specimen tested positive for protein. Also, the Medtech noted the presence of hyaline casts, granular casts, and a number of RBCs on microscopic examination. This is most probably due to:

a)

Renal failure

b)

Strenuous exercise

c)

Pyelonephritis

d)

Diabetic nephropathy

19.

A urine specimen tested 4+ for protein. On microscopic examination, fatty casts as well as RBCs and renal tubular cells were observed. This could indicate:

a)

Acute tubular necrosis

b)

Acute interstitial nephritis

c)

Nephrotic syndrome

d)

Glomerulonephritis

20.

Tube 2 CSF samples are for_________ and must be maintained in _______________

a)

Microbiology tests, Refrigerated

b)

Hematology tests, Refrigerated

c)

Microbiology tests, Room temp

d)

Chemical tests, frozen

21.

Blood evenly distributed on all three CSF specimen tubes indicate:

a)

Contamination

b)

Traumatic tap

c)

Cerebral hemorrhage

d)

None of the above

22.

Which of the following produce a characteristic starburst pattern on CSF specimens?

a)

N. meningitidis

b)

H. influenza

c)

C. immitis

d)

C. neoformans

23.

Using a 1:20 dilution, sperms counted in RBC squares on each side of the hemocytometer were 80 and 86 on a 3 mL specimen. Calculate the sperm concentration.

a)

80M per mL

b)

83M per mL

c)

86M per mL

d)

169M per mL

24.

Where is the mitochondrial sheath of the sperm located?

a)

Tail

b)

Midpiece

c)

Neckpiece

d)

Head

25.

What color on the diamond-shaped hazardous material classification represent health hazards?

a)

Blue

b)

White

c)

Yellow

d)

Red

26.

A specimen contaminated with toilet paper was delivered by a patient to the laboratory. The med tech on duty must:

a)

Accept the specimen

b)

Ask the patient to remove the toilet paper then accept specimen

c)

Accept the specimen and remove the toilet paper before processing

d)

Reject the specimen

27.

The most valuable initial aid for identifying crystals in a

urine specimen is:

a)

pH

b)

Solubility

c)

Staining

d)

Polarized microscopy

28.

Given the following data, calculate the creatinine clearance. Serum creatinine = 1.2 mg/dL; urine creatinine = 100 mg/dL; urine volume = 1.4 L/day; body surface area = 1.80 m2

a)

47 mL/min

b)

78 mL/min

c)

100 mL/min

d)

116 mL/min

29.

Which of the following would be least affected in a specimen that has remained unpreserved at room temperature for more than 2 hours?

a)

Protein

b)

Glucose

c)

Leukocyte esterase

d)

RBC and WBC casts

30.

A 2 p.m. urinalysis has a trace glucose by the dry reagent strip test. A fasting blood glucose drawn 8 hours earlier is 100 mg/dL. No other results are abnormal. Select the most appropriate course of action.

a)

Repeat the urine glucose and report if positive

b)

Perform a test for reducing sugars and report the result

c)

Perform a quantitative urine glucose; report as trace if greater than 100 mg/dL

d)

Request a new urine specimen

31.

Given the following urinalysis results, select the most appropriate course of action:

a)

Recheck urine pH

b)

Report these results, assuming acceptable quality control

c)

Repeat the dry reagent strip tests to confirm the ketone result

d)

Request a new sample and repeat the urinalysis

32.

Urinalysis results from a 35-year-old woman are:

a)

Recheck the blood reaction; if negative, look for budding yeast

b)

Repeat the WBC count

c)

Request a list of medications

d)

Report all results except blood

33.

A urine specimen is dark orange and turns brown after storage in the refrigerator overnight. The technologist requests a new specimen. The second specimen is bright orange and is tested immediately. Which test result would differ between the two specimens?

a)

Nitrite

b)

Urobilinogen

c)

Ketone

d)

Leukocyte esterase

34.

A patient’s random urine consistently contains a trace of protein but no casts, cells, or other biochemical abnormality. The first voided morning sample is consistently negative for protein. These findings can be explained by:

a)

Microalbuminuria

b)

Orthostatic or postural albuminuria

c)

Early glomerulonephritis

d)

Normal diurnal variation in protein loss

35.

A urine sample with a pH of 8.0 and a specific gravity of 1.005 had a small positive blood reaction, but is negative for protein and no RBCs are present in the microscopic examination of urinary sediment. What best explains these findings?

a)

An error was made in the microscopic examination

b)

Hemoglobin is present without intact RBCs due to hemolysis

c)

The blood reaction and protein reaction are discrepant

d)

High pH and low SG caused a false-positive blood reaction

36.

A quantitative serum hCG is ordered on a male patient. The technologist should:

a)

Perform the test and report the result only if greater than 25 IU/L

b)

Perform the test and report the result if negative

c)

Request that the order be cancelled

d)

Perform the test and report the result

37.

A CSF sample submitted for cell counts has a visible clot. What is the best course of action?

a)

Count RBCs and WBCs manually after diluting the fluid with normal saline

b)

Tease the cells out of the clot before counting, then dilute with WBC counting fluid

c)

Request a new sample

d)

Perform a WBC count without correction

38.

Total hemolytic complement and glucose are ordered on a synovial fluid sample that is too viscous to pipet. What is the best course of action?

a)

Request a new specimen

b)

Warm the sample to 65°C for 10 minutes

c)

Add 1 mg/mL hyaluronidase to the sample and incubate at room temperature for 30 minutes

d)

Dilute the sample in saline

39.

A CSF CytoPrep smear shows many smudge cells and macrophages with torn cell membranes. What most likely caused this problem?

a)

Improper alignment

b)

Centrifuge speed too low

c)

Failure to collect the CSF in EDTA

d)

Failure to add albumin to the cytospin cup

40.

A 5-mL urine specimen is submitted for routine urinalysis and analyzed immediately. The SG of the sample is 1.012 and the pH is 6.5. The dry reagent strip test for blood is a large positive (3+) and the microscopic examination shows 11–20 RBCs per HPF. The leukocyte esterase reaction is a small positive (1+), and the microscopic examination shows 0–5 WBCs per HPF. What is the most likely cause of these

results?

a)

Myoglobin is present in the sample

b)

Some WBCs have been misidentified as RBCs

c)

Insufficient volume is causing microscopic results to be underestimated

d)

Free hemoglobin is present

41.

What is the most likely cause of the following CSF results?

a)

Viral meningitis

b)

Viral encephalitis

c)

Cryptococcal meningitis

d)

Acute bacterial meningitis

42.

Which of the following stains is used to determine sperm viability?

a)

Eosin Y

b)

Hematoxylin

c)

Papanicolaou

d)

Methylene blue

43.

Which of the following results are discrepant?

a)

Small blood but negative protein

b)

Moderate blood but no RBCs in microscopic exam

c)

Negative blood but 6–10 RBCs/HPF

d)

Negative blood, positive protein

44.

The diagnosis of multiple sclerosis is often based upon which finding?

a)

An increased level of CSF β microglobulin

b)

The presence of oligoclonal bands by electrophoresis

c)

A decreased IgG index

d)

The presence of elevated protein and low glucose

45.

Urine that is dark red or port wine in color may be caused by:

a)

Lead poisoning

b)

Porphyria cutanea tarda

c)

Alkaptonuria

d)

Hemolytic anemia

46.

Urine production of less than 400 mL/day is:

a)

Consistent with normal renal function and H2O balance

b)

Termed isosthenuria

c)

Associated with diabetes mellitus

d)

Defined as oliguria

47.

A urine specimen is tested by a reagent strip test and the sulfosalicylic acid test to determine whether protein is present. The former yields a negative protein, whereas

the latter results in a reading of 2+ protein. Which of the following statements best explains this difference?

a)

The urine contained an excessive amount of amorphous urates or phosphates that caused the turbidity seen with the sulfosalicylic acid test.

b)

The urine pH was greater than 8, exceeding the buffering capacity of the reagent strip, thus causing a false-negative reaction.

c)

A protein other than albumin must be present in the urine.

d)

The reading time of the reagent strip test was exceeded (the reading being taken at 2 minutes), causing a false-negative reaction to be detected.

48.

Each of the following is included in the quality assurance program for a urinalysis laboratory. Which one represents a preanalytical component of testing?

a)

Setting collection guidelines for 24-hour urines

b)

Setting a maintenance schedule for microscopes

c)

Reporting units to be used for crystals

d)

Requiring acceptable results for control specimens before any patient results are reported out

49.

If a urine specimen is left standing at room temperature for several hours, which of the following changes may occur?

a)

An increase in the glucose concentration

b)

Multiplication of bacteria

c)

Production of an acid urine

d)

Deterioration of any albumin present

50.

The presence of ketone bodies in urine specimens may be detected by use of a reagent strip impregnated with sodium nitroprusside. This strip test is sensitive to the presence of

a)

Acetoacetic acid and beta- hydroxybutyric acid

b)

Acetoacetic acid and acetone

c)

Diacetic acid and beta-hydroxybutyric acid

d)

Beta-hydroxybutyric acid and acetone