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Dealing With Threats Exam 3, Part 8

Total questions: 185

Worksheet time: 2hrs 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In most cases of neurotoxicity, the toxins are so potent that most presentations will be classified as:

a)

Chronic

b)

Subacute

c)

Acute

d)

Subchronic

2.

Which of the following choices does not require metabolic activation to become toxic?

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Ethylene glycol

c)

Carbmates

d)

Organophosphates

3.

T or F: SLUDDE signs refer to sympathetic overstimulation.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

If Ops and carbamates both lead to inhibition of acetylcholinesterase, which receptors are affected?

a)

Adrenergic

b)

Muscarinic

c)

Nicotinic

5.

With accumulation of acetylcholine at nicotinic receptors, will you see CNS depression or stimulation?

a)

Depression

b)

Stimulation

6.

In order to treat the muscarinic signs of OP/carbamate toxicity, you would administer what drug?

a)

Propranolol

b)

Propofol

c)

Atropine Sulfate

d)

Epinephrine

7.

What is the major mechanism of death in animals poisoned with OPs/carbamates?

a)

Respiratory Failure

b)

Liver Failure

c)

Heart Failure

8.

What is the mechanism of action for the OP/carbamate antidote?

a)

Irreversible binding to mACh receptors

b)

Non-competitive antagonism for mACh receptors

c)

Enhance parasympathetic tone

d)

  Decreased sympathetic tone

9.

T or F: Atropine sulfate works on both muscarinic nicotinic ACh receptors.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

What might you treat OP toxicity with, but not carbamate toxicity?

a)

Atropine Sulfate

b)

Propanolol

c)

Dimercaprol

d)

2-PAM

11.

What treatment for OPs alleviates both muscarinic and nicotinic signs?

a)

Atropine Sulfate

b)

2-PAM

c)

Bathing in dawn dish soap

d)

No treatment does this

12.

Which type of Pyrethroids contains the alpha cyano group?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

13.

Which type of Pyrethroids contains Permethrin?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

14.

T or F: Type II Pyrethroids lead to CNS stimulation.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Which type of Pyrethroid leads to suppression of action potentials?

a)

I

b)

II

16.

Choreoathetosis syndrome is caused by intoxication with:

a)

Type I Pyrethroids

b)

Permethrin

c)

Type II Pyrethroids

d)

OPs

17.

Choreoathetosis syndrome is caused by intoxication with:

a)

Type I Pyrethroids

b)

Permethrin

c)

Type II Pyrethroids

d)

OPs

18.

If a cat is administered pyrethrin (concentrated) products and develops CNS stimulation. How would you treat?

a)

Functional antagonism (methocarbamol, diazepam)

b)

Chemical antagonism (methacarbmol, diazepam)

c)

Bathe only

d)

Hydration station

19.

Which neurotoxicant blocks the action of glycine? If this neurotransmitter inhibitory or excitatory?

a)

Strychnine; excitatory

b)

Strychnine; inhibitory

c)

OP; inhibitory

d)

Lead; excitatory

20.

T or F: Blocking the action of glycine leads to massive tetanic skeletal muscle contractions.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

21.

What is the mechanism of death associated with Strychnine?

a)

Diaphragmatic tetany

b)

CNS depression

c)

Diaphragmatic hernia

22.

You perform a biochemical panel on a cat and see that it is azotemic. This is an elevation of what?

a)

Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)

b)

pH

c)

Creatnine

23.

If an animal is azotemic, your first rule out would be dehydration. What might your second rule out be?

a.     Liver damage

b.    Kidney damage

c.     Respiratory failure

d.     Choleliths

a)

Liver damage

b)

Kidney damage

c)

Respiratory failure

d)

Choleliths

24.

What plant causes nephrotoxicity in large animals?

a)

Lilies

b)

Oak

c)

Sequoia

d)

Pine

25.

What plants generally cause GI irritation and kidney damage in cats?

a)

Oak

b)

Pine

c)

Lilies

d)

Daffodils

26.

What is the toxin in oak that causes kidney damage in large animals?

a)

Gallotannins

b)

Amygdalin

c)

Otoxin

d)

Renotannins

27.

Vitamin D3 is found in some rodenticides. What is the other name for this toxin?

a)

Ergocalciferol

b)

Cholecalciferol

c)

Brodifacoum

28.

T or F: Vitamin D3 toxicity can occur from ingestion of commercial dog foods.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Other than renal tubular necrosis, what also occurs with vitamin D3 toxicity?

a)

Bleeding

b)

Calcification of tissues

c)

Hyperphosphatemia

d)

All the above

30.

What type of urine might you see produced from an animal that ingested too much cholecalciferol?

a)

Hypersthenuria

b)

Hyposthenuria

c)

Isosthenuria

31.

How does cholecalciferol cause mineralization of tissues and bleeding?

a)

   Increased calcium and phosphorus in the blood

b)

   Increased potassium and phosphorus in the blood

32.

If a dog presented to your clinic several hours after ingesting rodenticide containing cholecalciferol, how might you treat him/her?

a)

V fluids (sodium chloride)

b)

Furosemide/Lasix/Salix

c)

Prednisone

d)

Pamidronate

e)

All the above

33.

Which treatment method for vitamin D3 toxicity is specifically a calcium chelator?

a)

Prednisone

b)

Furosemide

c)

Calcitonin

d)

Pamidronate

34.

Antifreeze and deicing agents contain which nephrotoxic agent?

a)

Vitamin D3

b)

Ethylene Glycol

c)

Strychnine

d)

Cholecalciferol

35.

Which enzyme in the body metabolizes ethylene glycol into its toxic metabolites?

a)

Lactate dehydrogenase

b)

Alcohol dehydrogenase

c)

Phosphatase

d)

Glycolase

36.

Which of the following are not toxic metabolites of ethylene glycol?

a)

Glycolate

b)

Formate

c)

Glyoxylate

d)

Oxalate

37.

Which type of crystalluria will you see with ethylene glycol intoxication?

a)

Calcium oxalate monohydrate

b)

Triple phosphate

c)

Cystine

d)

Tyrosine

38.

Which toxic metabolite of ethylene glycol does not cause metabolic acidosis?

a)

Glycolate

b)

Formate

c)

Glyoxylate

d)

Oxalate

39.

Which stage of ethylene glycol presentation has cardiopulmonary signs?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

40.

Which stage of ethylene glycol presentation has gastrointestinal signs?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

41.

Which of the following clinical findings is not associated with ethylene glycol intoxication?

a)

Azotemia

b)

Crystalluria

c)

Oliguria

d)

Decreased Anion Gap

42.

What type of urine crystals are these?

a)

Calcium oxalate monohydrate

b)

Cystine

c)

Triple phosphate

43.

Testing for ethylene glycol involved a colorimetric test. This is a:

a)

Quantitative test

b)

Qualitative test

44.

What is the name of the drug that used to be available for EG toxicity?

a)

Famotidine

b)

Omeprazole

c)

Fomepizole

d)

Tapazole

45.

What condition might predispose an animal to NSAID toxicity?

a)

Liver failure

b)

Hypoalbuminemia

c)

Hemorrhage

d)

All the above

46.

Which body system do NSAIDs not cause toxicity in?

a)

Kidneys

b)

Liver

c)

GI

d)

Integument

47.

What do NSAIDs block to reduce prostaglandin synthesis?

a)

COX enzymes

b)

Arachidonic acid

c)

Cholesterol

48.

Inhibition of which cyclooxygenase enzyme leads to nephrotoxicity?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

49.

What do NSAIDs do to the kidneys?

a)

Vasodilation

b)

Vasoconstriction

c)

Hyperoxia

d)

Anoxia

50.

Which species of animal is most sensitive to NSAID toxicity?

a)

Dogs

b)

Monkeys

c)

Cats

d)

Guinea pigs

51.

T or F: giving activated charcoal with sorbitol for several doses would be helpful in NSAID toxicities.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Administering which drug is helpful during NSAID toxicities as it is a synthetic prostaglandin?

a)

Ranitidine

b)

Misoprostol

c)

Sucralfate

d)

Lansoprazole

53.

T or F: Grapes/raisins are toxic to domestic animals such as cats and dogs.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Which is not a hallmark clinical finding associated with Acetaminophen toxicity in domestic animals?

a)

Methemoglobinemia

b)

Carboxyglobinemia

c)

Hepatotoxicity

55.

Which species’ RBCs are more prone to oxidative injury?

a)

Dogs

b)

Cats

c)

Equine

d)

Cattle

56.

Which symptom occurs in cats, but not other species?

a)

Facial and paw edema

b)

Tachypnea

c)

Depression

d)

V/D

57.

Which of the following is not an effective treatment for acetaminophen toxicity?

a)

Activated charcoal

b)

N-Acteylcysteine

c)

S-Adenosyl Methionine

d)

None of the above

58.

What is the toxin in blue-green algae that causes hepatotoxicity?

a)

Anatoxin-a

b)

Gallotannin

c)

Microcystins

d)

Mycotoxin

59.

How would you treat water that has blue-green algae overgrowth?

a)

  SAMe

b)

  Silymarin

c)

Copper Sulfate

d)

Atropine Sulfate

60.

  Aflatoxicosis is caused by fungi that prefer to grow in _____ weather.

a)

Cool, humid

b)

Cool, dry

c)

Hot, humid

d)

Hot, dry

61.

Which of the following is the metabolite that induced hepatotoxicity in aflatoxicosis?

a)

Aflatoxin B1

b)

Aflatoxin B1 8, 9-Epoxide

c)

Aflatoxin

d)

Aflatoxin B2

62.

Other than hepatotoxicity, what other clinical condition can aflatoxin cause?

a)

Hepatocellular necrosis

b)

Hepatocellular dysplasia

c)

Hepatocellular carcinoma

d)

Prostatic carcinoma

63.

Which species actively convert aflatoxin to its toxic metabolite more than other species?

a)

Chickens

b)

Dogs

c)

Cats

d)

Turkeys

64.

What sugar substitute can induce toxicity in domestic veterinary species?

a)

Aflatoxin

b)

Xylitol

c)

Epoxide

d)

Microcystin

65.

What does xylitol induce in the body?

a)

Massive glucagon release

b)

Massive insulin release

c)

Massive epinephrine release

d)

Insulin suppression

66.

T or F: Insulin cannot bind xylitol.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

Which of the following will not occur in xylitol toxicity?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Thrombocytopenia

c)

Prolonged coagulation

d)

Hyperkalemia

e)

Elevated liver enzymes

68.

T or F: Activated charcoal is effective for xylitol intoxication.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

When should you induce emesis in cases of corrosive agent ingestion?

a)

ASAP

b)

Within 1 hour

c)

Within 30 minutes

d)

NEVER

70.

What type of lesions do corrosive agents produce in the GIT?

a)

Erosions

b)

Ulcers

71.

Which types of batteries are considered emergency situations when ingested?

a)

Lithium button disc batteries

b)

Lead Batteries

72.

How do insoluble oxalate-containing plants cause toxicity and GI irritation?

a)

Triple phosphate crystals

b)

Calcium oxalate crystals

c)

Cystine crystals

d)

Tyrosine crystals

73.

1.     What might be released after ingestion of insoluble oxalate-containing plants?

a)

Histamine

b)

Secretin

c)

Motilin

d)

Epinephrine

74.

Mole and gopher rodenticide is made up of gray-purple pellets. What toxin do they contain?

a)

Insoluble oxalate

b)

Brodifacoum

c)

Zinc phosphide

d)

Cholecalciferol

75.

What does aluminum phosphide transform into in the stomach?

a)

  Phosphine gas

b)

Oygen Gas

c)

CO2 Gas

76.

What does phosphine gas do in the body?

a)

Blocks anaerobic respiration

b)

Increased glycolysis

c)

Inhibits insulin

d)

Blocks aerobic respiration

77.

If you smell dog breath that smells like rotten fish, what toxin might they have ingested recently?

a)

Zinc phosphide / Aluminum Phosphide

b)

Bromine

c)

Iron

78.

How do you decrease phosphine gas production in the animal?

a)

Administration of SAMe

b)

  Administration of Mucomyst

c)

Administration of antacids

d)

Administration of Propanolol

79.

Where might a horse develop colic in response to Phenylbutazone toxicity?

a)

Left dorsal colon

b)

Right dorsal colon

c)

Cecum

d)

Rectum

80.

Which NSAID is most potent ulcerogen in horses?

a)

Ketoprofen

b)

Firocoxib

c)

Banamine

d)

Phenylbutazone

81.

What causes protein-losing enterocolopathy (PLE) in horses with NSAID toxicity?

a)

    1. Ulcerative lesions

2. malabsorption

3. Loss of plasma proteins

b)

    1. Ulcerative lesions

2. malabsorption

82.

What is the toxin present in Blister Beetles that causes GI toxicity?

a)

Microcystin

b)

Cantharidin

c)

Vesiculant

d)

Aflatoxin B1

83.

How does cantharidin cause blistering and toxicity?

a)

Release of histamine

b)

Release of kinins

c)

Release of serine proteases

d)

Release of phosphatases

84.

What occurs during primary photosensitization?

a.

a)

Increased susceptibility to UV light damage

b)

Increased melanin production

c)

Decreased susceptibility to UV light damage

d)

Decreased melanin production

85.

What alkaloid causes primary photosensitization, and which causes secondary?

a)

Pyrrolizidine; hypericin

b)

Hypericin; Pyrrolizidine

86.

When light reacts with the plant compounds causing photosensitization, what is released?

a)

Free radicals

b)

Radicals

c)

Lumen Buds

87.

What is the toxin present in Yew plants that causes bradycardia, vasodilation and hypotension?

a)

Gallotannins

b)

Taxines

c)

Microcystins

88.

The toxins found in Yew plants are _____ antagonists.

a)

Sodium

b)

Calcium

c)

Potassium

89.

Moldy Sweet Clover is often considered a/an _______.

a)

Yew plant

b)

Taxine

c)

Nitrate

d)

Anticoagulant rodenticide

90.

What is present in anticoagulant rodenticides that exerts its effects on the blood?

a)

Coumarin

b)

Vitamin K

91.

1.     What is specifically antagonized in anticoagulant rodenticides?

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Vitamin K-epoxide reductase

c)

Cholecalciferol

d)

Fibrin

92.

Which factor has the shortest half-life?

a)

1

b)

10

c)

7

d)

9

93.

Which coagulation test would you run to check for early vitamin K antagonism?

a)

PT

b)

PTT

c)

ACT

d)

TT

94.

Which coagulation test would you run to determine if your patient’s vitamin K is recovering?

a)

PT

b)

PTT

c)

ACT

d)

TT

95.

What is the major concern in domestic veterinary species with ingestion of second generation anticoagulant rodenticides?

a)

Shorter half-life

b)

Higher LD50

c)

Lower LD50

d)

Less potent

96.

T or F: Warfarin is a first generation anticoagulant?

a)

True

b)

False

97.

How do you treat vitamin K antagonism?

a)

Vitamin K3

b)

Vitamin K1

c)

Plasma transfusion

d)

Cerenia

98.

Which route of administration leads to more rapid absorption of Vitamin K?

a)

PO

b)

SC

c)

  IM

99.

T or F: Vitamin K1 can be given IV for more effective absorption.

a)

True

b)

False

100.

What hematological abnormality will you see with cattle exhibiting nitrate toxicity?

a)

Methemoglobinemia

b)

Anoxia

c)

Vasoconstriction

101.

What is nitrate reduced to what in cattle?



(a)  

102.

What are two treatments for methemoglobinemia associated with nitrate toxicity?

a)

Methylene Blue

b)

Vitamin C

103.

Which species of snake causes the largest proportion of bites in veterinary species?  

  

a)

Coral snakes

b)

Garden snakes

c)

Pit vipers

d)

Water moccasins

104.

Which type of snake causes the most deaths?

a)

Rattle snakes

b)

Copper heads

c)

Coral

d)

Green-eyed

105.

What type of snake is pictured below?

a)

Rattle snake

b)

Copperhead

c)

Timber rattlesnake

d)

Diamond back

106.

State the four general types of toxins in snake venom.

a)

Coagulants

b)

Hemorrhagins / hemolytics

c)

Myotoxins

d)

Cytotoxins

107.

Which enzymatic protein in snake venom breaks down cell membranes?

a)

Hyaluronidase

b)

Phospholipase A

c)

Thromboxane

d)

Histamine

108.

Which species of snake has the most toxic venom?

a)

Water moccasins

b)

Copperheads

c)

Diamondback

d)

Rattlesnakes

109.

What can you give animals biten by rattle snakes?

(a)  

110.

What are some sources for Arsenic?

a)

Water

b)

Soil

c)

Commercial products (treated wood)

d)

Inorganic arsenical pesticides

111.

Which form of arsenic is most associated with toxicity?

a)

Organic

b)

Inorganic

c)

Gas

112.

What does arsenic react with to cause uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

-SH groups

d)

  -OH groups

113.

Which enzyme does arsenic inhibit?

a)

Lactate dehydrogenase

b)

Alcohol dehydrogenase

c)

Pyruvate dehydrogenase

d)

Succinate dehydrogenase

114.

Which of the following is the chelator of choice for arsenic toxicity in large animals?

a)

DMSA

b)

BAL

c)

Dimercaprol

d)

Sodium thiosulfate

115.

Which form of antagonism does chelation therapy use in arsenic toxicity?

a)

Dispositional

b)

Chemical

c)

Functional

d)

Receptor

116.

What are sources of copper?

a)

Feed

b)

Pet food

117.

Which species often gets copper storage disease?

a)

Dogs

b)

Cats

c)

Sheep

d)

Cattle

118.

What occurs in copper storage disease?

a)

Increased intake of copper

b)

Decreased excretion of copper

119.

Which chelator can you use to treat copper toxicity?

a)

Dimercaprol

b)

BAL

c)

D-penicillamine

d)

Zinc

120.

Which body system is least affected by copper toxicity?

a)

Hepatic

b)

Renal

c)

GI

121.

Which of the following is most commonly affected by iron toxicity?

a)

Cats

b)

Adult pigs

c)

Piglets

d)

Sheep

122.

Which organ is least affected by iron toxicity?

a)

Heart

b)

GI

c)

Liver

d)

Kidneys

123.

What is the ideal chelator that specifically binds iron?

a)

Deferoxamine iron chelation

b)

Deferoxamine mesylate

124.

What is a common source of lead?

a)

Paint after 1970

b)

Paint before 1970

c)

Pet food

d)

Bullets

125.

Where are large animal likely to obtain lead toxicosis?



(a)  

126.

Where does lead bind?

a)

Liver

b)

Brain

c)

Kidney

d)

Bone

e)

All the above

127.

How does lead cause toxicity?

a)

Interferes with molybdenum

b)

Interferes with calcium

c)

Interferes with zinc

d)

  It doesn’t

128.

Why does lead cause CNS signs in neonates more often than adults?

(a)  

129.

When submitting samples for lead testing what should you send?

a)

Serum

b)

Plasma

c)

Whole blood

d)

Anticoagulated whole blood

130.

Which chelator for lead toxicity may be nephrotoxic?

a)

DMSA

b)

Dimercaprol

c)

Calcium Disodium EDTA

d)

EDTA

131.

What is a major source of zinc toxicity?

a)

Paint

b)

Pennies

c)

Quarters

d)

Hay

132.

T or F: skeletal abnormalities are most often seen with zinc toxicosis.

a)

True

b)

False

133.

Which organ system is affected with zinc intoxication?

a)

Liver

b)

GI

c)

Kidney

d)

All the above

134.

T or F: Bromethalin gets rapidly absorbed by ther liver and disrupts the NA + K Pump

a)

True

b)

False

135.

Which animal is most suseptible to Bromethalin?

a)

Cats

b)

Dogs

c)

Guinea Pigs

136.

Where do you see Selenium Toxicty most?

a)

Livestock

b)

Dogs

c)

Cats

137.

Selenium Deficiency can be due to?

a)

Mixing Feed Errors

b)

Deficients in soil

c)

Injections

138.

T or F: Selenium toxicity can lead to hair loss and hoof lesions

a)

True

b)

False

139.

Selenium toxicity is due to?

a)

Ingestion of plants

b)

Overdose (injection)

c)

Feed mixing errors

140.

Zinc deficiency are found in what species?

(a)  

141.

Zinc deficiency is due to?

a)

Zinc deficits in soil

b)

Genetic predisposiions causing malabsortion of zinc from GI tract

142.

When Zinc is high it can lyse ____?

a)

RBCs

b)

WBCs

143.

We are most concerned with Aflatoxin ____

a)

A1

b)

B1

c)

B2

144.

T or F: Organophosphat/Carbamate Insecticides are considered lipophilic

a)

True

b)

False

145.

Barium sulfate is a ____ salt?

a)

Soluble

b)

Insoluble

146.

Ionized Compounds are more _____soluble and not passively absorbed.

Unionized Compounds are more ______soluble and passively absorb

a)

Lipid; Water

b)

Water;Lipid

147.

The lower the pKa the stronger the?

a)

Base

b)

Taste

c)

Fun

d)

Acid

148.

Why is nitrites bad in cattle?

a)

Nitrite cross into respiratory system

b)

Nitrite cross over into the BBB

c)

Nitrite can cross over into the bloodstream

149.

Which are tends to exclude the hydrophilic poisons/drugs?

a)

Liver

b)

Kidney

c)

BBB

150.

Functionalization Reactions are Phase ____.

Conjugation Reactions are Phase ____.

a)

3, 4

b)

2, 3

c)

2, 1

d)

1, 2

151.

If animals are exposed to acetominophen the liver tries to attach _____ & _____.

a)

Gluconaride and sulfate

b)

Meth

c)

Weed

152.

What are the 3 routes of excretion (Toxicokinetics (ADME))?

a)

Kidneys

b)

Bile

c)

Milk

153.

When cattle ingest Snake Root Poisoning, in the milk, if ingested by humans, what can we get?

a)

Milk Sickness

b)

Milk Poisoning

c)

Milk Turnover

154.

What increases the rate of excretion where you can literally "trap" toxins in their ionized form which makes it more water soluble?

a)

Happy Star

b)

Urine Trapping

c)

Ion Trapping

155.

T or F: In order to ionize you must acidify the urine

a)

True

b)

False

156.

Is Invermectin considered toxic or non-toxic?

a)

Toxic

b)

Non-Toxic

157.

Which is involved in Nephrotoxicity?

a)

Aresnic

b)

Copper

c)

Iron

d)

Lead

e)

Zinc

158.

Which is involved in Hepatotoxicity?

a)

Aresnic

b)

Copper

c)

Iron

d)

Lead

e)

Zinc

159.

Which is involved in Gastrointestinal Toxicity?

a)

Aresnic

b)

Copper

c)

Iron

d)

Lead

e)

Zinc

160.

Which is involved in RBC Hemolysis Toxicity?

a)

Aresnic

b)

Copper

c)

Iron

d)

Lead

e)

Zinc

161.

Which is involved in Metabolic Acidosis?

a)

Aresnic

b)

Copper

c)

Iron

d)

Lead

e)

Zinc

162.

____ are the most affected by Iron Toxicity?

a)

Cows

b)

Horses

c)

Piglets

d)

Adult Pigs

163.

Iron Toxicity chelator is called?

a)

Calcium Disodium EDTA

b)

Deferoxamine Mesylate

c)

D-Penicillamine or Trientine

d)

Sodium Thiosulfate

164.

Copper Toxicity chelator is called?

a)

Calcium Disodium EDTA

b)

Deferoxamine Mesylate

c)

D-Penicillamine or Trientine

d)

Sodium Thiosulfate

165.

Lead Toxicity chelator is called?

a)

Calcium Disodium EDTA

b)

Deferoxamine Mesylate

c)

D-Penicillamine or Trientine

d)

Sodium Thiosulfate

166.

Aresenic Toxicity (in LARGE ANIMALS) chelator is called?

a)

Calcium Disodium EDTA

b)

Deferoxamine Mesylate

c)

D-Penicillamine or Trientine

d)

Sodium Thiosulfate

167.

Why are young animals exposed to lead will primarily exhibit neurological clinical signs?

(a)  

168.

What is the distribution of lead in an animal's body after it is absorbed into the blood stream?

a)

Liver

b)

Brain

c)

Kidney

d)

Bone

e)

All of the above

169.

What is the most common source of lead poisoning in large animals (cattle)?

a)

Pennies

b)

Water and Soil

c)

Commerical Products

d)

Inorganic Arsenical Pesticides

e)

Batteries

170.

What is the most common source of zinc poisoning in large animals (cattle)?

a)

Pennies

b)

Water and Soil

c)

Commerical Products

d)

Inorganic Arsenical Pesticides

e)

Batteries

171.

What is the most common source of zinc poisoning in large animals (cattle)?

a)

Pennies

b)

Water and Soil

c)

Commerical Products

d)

Inorganic Arsenical Pesticides

e)

Batteries

172.

What is the clinical presentation of diarrhea associated with some aresenic cases?

a)

Chocolate/Mud

b)

Bloody

c)

Rice Water

d)

Soup

173.

If you have a lead toxicology case, when you collect blood to send off to the lab it should be?

a)

Whole

b)

Half

c)

Third

174.

What is the most common source of copper toxicity?

a)

Silage

b)

Pennies

c)

Plants

d)

Pet Food

175.

T or F: Sheep can excrete copper well

a)

True

b)

False

176.

How does Calcium Disodium EDTA treat Lead Toxicosis?

a)

Absorbs fluid

b)

Pulls heavy metals from the tissues

c)

Pulls mannitol from the bones

177.

What are the 2 forms of Inorganic Arsenic?

a)

As+3

b)

As+5

c)

As+1

178.

Dogs with Copper Storage Disease more susceptible to copper toxicity due to the autosomal recessive train due to lack of a gene (a)   coding for a liver portein involved in excretion of copper bile?

179.

Lab Retrievers have 2 autosomal recessive traits due to gener mutation.

ATP7A is in _________ and important for copper mobilization

ATP7B is in _________ and important for excreting excess liver copper in bile

a)

Heart; Lungs

b)

Endothelial Cells; Intestinal Epithelial Cells

c)

Muscosa, Endothelial Cells

d)

Intestinal Epithelial Cells; Hepatocytes

180.

There are 2 phases in Chronic Copper Toxicity, what are they.

a)

Accumulation or Pre-Hemolytic Phase; Hemolytic Phase

b)

Pre Hemolytic Phase; Post Hemolytic Phase

c)

Pre Respiratory Phase; Post Respiratory Phase

181.

What Copper Toxicity Phase is when copper is accumulating in liver overtime?

a)

Phase 1

b)

Phase 2

182.

What Copper Toxicity Phase is when copper gets into the blood because it is released by the liver? Copper Dump

a)

Phase 1

b)

Phase 2

183.

What is the normal concentration of copper to molybdenum in sheep (Ratio)?

(a)  

184.

T or F: Molybdenum is a copper angonist?

a)

True

b)

False

185.

Molybdeum is there to manage copper so when molybdenum is not there copper in the animal will be?

a)

Decreased

b)

Increased