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HEMATOLOGY (FINALS)

Total questions: 190

Worksheet time: 2hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which is being altered at the amino acid structure of hemoglobin in Hemoglobin E Disease? (DLT)

a)

a. Lysine➜glutamic acid (codon 121)

b)

b. Lysine➜glutamic acid (codon 26)

c)

c. Asparagine➜lysine (codon 68)

d)

d. Glutamine➜glutamic acid (codon 121)

2.

Which is being altered at the amino acid structure of hemoglobin in Hemoglobin O-Arab Disease? (DLT)

a)

a. Lysine➜glutamic acid (codon 121)

b)

b. Lysine➜glutamic acid (codon 26)

c)

c. Asparagine➜lysine (codon 68)

d)

d. Glutamine➜glutamic acid (codon 121)

3.

Which is being altered at the amino acid structure of hemoglobin in Hemoglobin D Disease? (DLT)

a)

a. Lysine➜glutamic acid (codon 121)

b)

b. Lysine➜glutamic acid (codon 26)

c)

c. Asparagine➜lysine (codon 68)

d)

d. Glutamine➜glutamic acid (codon 121)

4.

Which is being altered at the amino acid structure of hemoglobin in Hemoglobin G Disease? (DLT)

a)

a. Lysine➜glutamic acid (codon 121)

b)

b. Lysine➜glutamic acid (codon 26)

c)

c. Asparagine➜lysine (codon 68)

d)

d. Glutamine➜glutamic acid (codon 121)

5.

Hg O-Arab and Hg- E disease tests positive in Hemoglobin solubility test. Hg- D and Hg- G tests negative. (DLT)

a)

a. Both are correct.

b)

b. Both are wrong.

c)

c. First sentence is correct. Second sentence is wrong.

d)

d. First sentence is wrong. Second sentence is correct.

6.

In the choices below, which are the defects in megaloblastic anemia caused by Vitamin B12 and Folate Deficiency? (DLT)

a)

a. Impaired thymidine nucleotide production

b)

b. Increased transcobalamin production

c)

c. Homocysteine accumulation

d)

d. Both A and C

e)

e. None of the following

7.

Which of the following is the blood picture for megaloblastic anemia?(DLT)

a)

a. Macrocytic, normochromic anemia

b)

b. Macrocytic, normochromic anemia with hypersegmented neutrophils

c)

c. Normocytic, normochromic with reticulocytopenia and burr cells

d)

d. Normocytic with anisocytosis, poikilocytosis, and basophilic stippling

8.

Which clinical manifestation is seen in Vitamin B12 deficiency and is not normally seen Folate Deficiency? (DLT)

a)

a. Glossitis

b)

b. Fetal spina bifida/ encephalopathy (for pregnant women)

c)

c. Impotence

d)

d. Neurological symptoms

9.

Main features of megaloblastic anemia except? (DLT)

a)

a. Hypersegmented neutrophils

b)

b. Increased reticulocyte count

c)

c. Microspherocytes

d)

d. Pancytopenia

10.

All of the following causes false increase in Vitamin B12 deficiency assays except? (DLT)

a)

a. Occult malignancy

b)

b. Renal Disease

c)

c. Megadose vitamin C therapy

d)

d. Assay technical failure

11.

Which of the following is the structure of hemoglobin structure of Hb A? (MRRC)

a)

a. α 2 β 2

b)

b. α 2 δ 2

c)

c. α 2 γ 2

d)

d. α 2 ε 2

12.

Which of the following is the structure of hemoglobin? (MRRC)

a)

a. Four heme groups, two globin chains

b)

b. Two heme groups, four globin chains

c)

c. Two heme groups, two globin chains

d)

d. Four heme groups, four globin chains

13.

This inherited RBC membrane structure is more widespread in Southeast Asia's malaria belt. (JZL)

a)

a. Hereditary Ovalocytosis (HO)

b)

b. Hereditary Elliptocytosis (HE)

c)

c. Hereditary Spherocytosis (HS)

d)

d.None of the above

14.

It is considered as the most common form of hereditary non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia of (JZL)

a)

a. Pyruvate kinase Deficiency

b)

b. Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase Deficiency

c)

c. Either

d)

d. Neither

15.

True or False: Splenectomy is not recommended in the treatment of Hereditary Hydrocytosis (HH). (JZL)

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Which of the following has a mutated gene: PIEZO 1 Protein, KCNN4? (JZL)

a)

a. Hereditary Xerocytosis (HX)

b)

b. Hereditary Ovalocytosis (HO)

c)

c. Hereditary Elliptocytosis (HE)

d)

d.Hereditary Spherocytosis (HS)

17.

Which of the following categories of autoimmune hemolytic anemia is the most encountered? (JZL)

a)

a. Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria

b)

b. Cold Agglutinin Disease

c)

c. Warm Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

d)

d. None of the above

18.

It is also referred to as Frank Hemoglobinuria or March hemoglobinuria. (JZL)

a)

a. Disseminated intravascular coagulation

b)

b. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

c)

c. Exercise-induced Hemoglobinuria

d)

d.None of the above

19.

Which of the following is characterized by RBC fragmentation and thrombocytopenia? (JZL)

a)

a. Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)

b)

b. Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia (MAHA)

c)

c. Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)

d)

d.All of the above

20.

he most common RBC enzyme deficiency, with the highest prevalence in malaria-endemic areas (Africa, Mediterranean). (JZL)

a)

a. Hexokinase deficiency

b)

b. Pyruvate kinase deficiency

c)

c. G6PD Deficiency

d)

d. None of the above

21.

Initial investigations of laboratory diagnosis for thalassemia includes all the given choices. EXCEPT: (MRRC)

a)

a. Genetic Studies

b)

b. Hemolysis evaluation

c)

c. CBC

d)

d. Peripheral blood smear

22.

Which of the following is the most common compound heterozygous syndrome? (MRRC)

a)

a. Hemoglobin S

b)

b. Hemoglobin SC

c)

c. Hemoglobin E

d)

d. Hemoglobin C

23.

All of the following are causes of reduced or absent globin chain. EXCEPT: (MRRC)

a)

a. mRNA processing errors

b)

b. Deletion of one or more globin genes

c)

c. Double nucleotide mutations

d)

d. Reduced or absent transcription of mRNA

24.

In which of the following geographic areas is beta thalassemia most commonly seen? (MRRC)

a)

a. South Africa

b)

b. United States

c)

c. India

d)

d. Mediterranean

25.

True or False. Normal adults produce Hb A (95%), Hb A2 (less than 3.5%), and Hb F (less than 1% to 2%). (MRRC)

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Is it the key to maintaining the RBC shape, which is a biconcave discoid? (JZL)

a)

a. Plasma membrane

b)

b. Lipid bilayer

c)

c. Deformability

d)

d. Pliancy

27.

Which hereditary in the RBC membrane structure is caused by an issue with vertical interaction? (JZL)

a)

a. Hereditary Elliptocytosis (HE)

b)

b. Hereditary Spherocytosis (HS)

c)

c. Hereditary Ovalocytosis (HO)

d)

d. None of the above

28.

Which of the given choices has the highest risk for pernicious anemia? (MRRC)

a)

a. Malnourished infants

b)

b. Pregnant women

c)

c. Children during growth periods

d)

d. Persons older than 60 years old

29.

Which infectious agent is characterized by fever and non-respiratory flu-like symptoms? (MRRC)

a)

a. Babesiosis

b)

b. Clostridial species

c)

c. Malaria

d)

d. All of the above

30.

Which anemia should be suspected if the patient has refractory anemia, reticulocytopenia, hypercellular bone marrow with markedly ineffective erythropoieses, and distinctive dysplastic changes in bone marrow erythroblasts? (MRRC)

a)

a. Acquired aplastic anemia

b)

b. Fanconi anemia

c)

C. Dyskeratosis congenita

d)

d. Congenital dyserythropoietic anemia

31.

The replacement of hemopoietic bone marrowtissue by elements that do not form blood cells (e.g., fibrosis, tumor), which can result in severe anemia. (AAG)

(a)  

32.

n born erythroid hypoplastic disorder of early infancy (AAG)

(a)  

33.

Hereditary autosomal recessive disorder due to a DNA crosslink repair defect resulting in bone marrow failure (AAG)

(a)  

34.

Second most common cause of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency inchildren (AAG)

(a)  

35.

It is caused by the mutation of CDAN1 or C15 or f41 (AAG)

(a)  

36.

It is caused by the mutation of the gene SEC23B (AAG)

(a)  

37.

It is caused by the mutation of KIF23 (AAG)

(a)  

38.

most common form of CDA is an inherited autosomal recessive trait (AAG)

(a)  

39.

Acquired PRCA in children (AAG)

(a)  

40.

True of false: A mother is Rh negative and her child is Rh positive. The child is susceptible to fetal Hemolytic Disease. (-ghent)

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Its has the role of cleaving Von Willebrand Factors (-ghent)

(a)  

42.

Why is it important to cleave your Won Willebrand factors? (-ghent)

(a)  

43.

what is the primary cause of Idiopathic TTP?

a)

a.) omg this question is so hard

b)

b.) Bleeding

c)

c.) shiga toxins affinity to the cell wall

d)

d.) inhibition of ADAMTS13

44.

Acquired HUS is typically due to (-ghent)

a)

a. Pregnancy

b)

B. Infection

c)

C. Surgery

d)

D. All of the above.

45.

In the differentiation of TTP to HUS, one thing that is important to consider is: (ghent)

a)

A. Cause of the disease

b)

B. PBS smear

c)

C. The severity of the hemolytic syndrome

d)

D. Omg idk, hmm call a friend?

46.

Quantitative defect; results from a reduced or absent synthesis of one or more globin chains of Hgb. (YNA)

(a)  

47.

What vitamin deficiency manifests neurological symptoms? (YNA)

(a)  

48.

Hemolytic anemia where genes that code for ankyrin, Band 3, A-spectrin, B-spectrin, and Protein 4.2 are mutated (YNA)

(a)  

49.

A hemolytic transfusion reaction wherein mothers with blood group O and a newborn with blood group A or B are at highest risk (YNA)

(a)  

50.

Protein interaction that ensures structural integrity of the RBCs (YNA)

(a)  

51.

It is thought to be related to abnormal T-cell function and IgG antibodies that target erythroblasts and erythropoietin (AAG)

(a)  

52.

What is the interleukin for eosinophil? (KAPP)

(a)  

53.

Characterized by short stature and webbed neck (KAPP)

(a)  

54.

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria episodes are usually associated with (KAPP)

(a)  

55.

Component of the plasma membrane which serves as a barrier to separate ion and metabolite concentration inside the RBC from its external environment (KAPP)

(a)  

56.

Provides RBC structural integrity (KAPP)

(a)  

57.

Prevents membranes from fragmenting in response to mechanical stress, therefore creating mechanical integrity (KAPP)

(a)  

58.

This is due to decreased reticulocytes, associated with parvovirus B19 (KAPP)

(a)  

59.

Demonstrate the increased RBC fragility on RBCs with decreased surface area to volume ratio (KAPP)

(a)  

60.

used to check for the variation in membrane surface area and cell water count (KAPP)

(a)  

61.

measure hemolysis, but the samples are incubated with or without glucose (KAPP)

(a)  

62.

Severity of anemia with Hgb levels of 7-10 g/dL (YNA)

(a)  

63.

A hemolytic anemia characterized by loss of immune tolerance; it is known to affect male children, and adult female more (YNA)

(a)  

64.

Amount of iron an individual lose everyday (YNA)

(a)  

65.

What is the rationale of Adsorption resulting to hemolysis? (-ghent)

(a)  

66.

It is the fetal hemolytic disease the mostly happen during subsequent pregnancy. Kung hindi mo alam ang subsequent bahala ka diyan. irap (-ghent)

(a)  

67.

TRUE or FALSE: Rh negative mother and Rh negative baby is at risk of developing fetal hemolysis. (-ghent)

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

68.

Between the Rh and ABO hemolytic disease, which one have the severe minion fever (jaundice) with rare spherocytes in the peripheral blood film? (-ghent)

(a)  

69.

Bacteria that causes ulcerations in the stomach leading to impaired absorption of Vitamin B12 (YNA)

(a)  

70.

A bone marrow failure condition characterized by abnormal skin pigmentation, dystrophic nails, and oral leukoplakia (YNA)

(a)  

71.

At what stage of iron deficiency anemia does exhaustion of the storage of iron occur? (TII)

a)

a. Stage 1

b)

b. Stage 2

c)

c. Stage 3

72.

What is the first treatment for iron deficiency anemia? (TII)

a)

a. iron dextrans

b)

b. red blood cell transfusions

c)

c. treatment of underlying cause

d)

d. ferrous sulfate

73.

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (TII)

a)

a. malaria

b)

b. HELLP syndrome

c)

c. venom

d)

d. exercise-induced hemoglobinuria

74.

Drying artifact on Wrightstained peripheral blood films: (TII)

a)

a. Acquired Stomatocytosis

b)

b. Spur Cell Anemia

c)

c. Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria

d)

d. Familial Pseudohyperkalemia

75.

Leakage of sodium and potassium from the RBCs: (TII)

a)

a. Rh Deficiency Syndrome

b)

b. Familial Pseudohyperkalemia

c)

c. Hereditary Xerocytosis

d)

d. Cryohydrocytosis

76.

True dietary deficiency of vitamin B12 is possible for strict vegetarians. (TII)

a)

a. True

b)

b. False

77.

somerization of methylmalonyl coenzyme A (CoA) to succinyl CoA DOES NOT require vitamin B12. (TII)

a)

a. True

b)

b. False

78.

Hemochromatosis is "bronzed diabetes." (TII)

a)

a. True

b)

b. False

79.

What stage of iron deficiency anemia is characterized by a progressive loss of storage iron? (TII)

a)

a. Stage 1

b)

b. Stage 2

c)

c. Stage 3

80.

Drug that may induce sideroblastic anemia: (TII)

a)

a. chloramphenicol

b)

b. vancomycin

c)

c. cyclosporine

d)

d. lidocaine

81.

Globin genes located on chromosome 16 (RLC)

(a)  

82.

Globin genes located on chromosome 11 (RLC)

(a)  

83.

Epsilon and zeta chains are part of which of the following hemoglobins? (RLC)

a)

a. Gower-I

b)

b. Gower-II

c)

c. Portland

d)

d. Hgb F

84.

Which globin chains do Gower-II possess? (RLC)

a)

a. epsilon and zeta

b)

b. zeta and gamma

c)

c. alpha and gamma

d)

d. alpha and epsilon

85.

Which globin chains do Portland possess? (RLC)

a)

a. epsilon and zeta

b)

b. zeta and gamma

c)

c. alpha and gamma

d)

d. alpha and epsilon

86.

Which globin chains do Hgb F possess? (RLC)

a)

a. epsilon and zeta

b)

b. zeta and gamma

c)

c. alpha and gamma

d)

d. alpha and epsilon

87.

Which globin chains do Hgb A possess? (RLC)

a)

a. alpha and beta

b)

b. zeta and gamma

c)

c. alpha and gamma

d)

d. alpha and epsilon

88.

Which globin chains do Hgb A2 possess? (RLC)

a)

Which globin chains do Hgb A2 possess? (RLC)

b)

b. zeta and gamma

c)

c. alpha and gamma

d)

d. alpha and delta

89.

It results in 5% to 30% decrease in β chain production. (RLC)

(a)  

90.

No β chains are produced in this β-globin gene mutation (RLC)

(a)  

91.

A metabolic disorder caused by a deficiency of the enzyme ferrochelatase or FECH. (LCF)

(a)  

92.

This type of anemia results from failure to incorporate iron into protoporphyrin IX. (LCF)

(a)  

93.

Which anemia has a pathophysiology that is related to abnormal T-cell function and IgG antibodies that target erythroblast and erythropoietin? (LCF)

(a)  

94.

This type of anemia is characterized by a lack of intrinsic factor that prevents B12 absorption. (LCF)

(a)  

95.

TRUE or FALSE. Deoxyhemoglobin S is less soluble than deoxyhemoglobin A or oxyhemoglobin S. (LCF)

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

96.

The term used to describe a group of symptomatic hemoglobinopathies that have in common sickle cell formation and the associated crises. (LCF)

(a)  

97.

The most definitive test for HbS. (LCF)

(a)  

98.

Which hemoglobinopathy is caused by the substitution of lysine for glutamic acid at amino acid position 121? (LCF)

(a)  

99.

Term used to describe anemia that is more severe than b-thalassemia minor but a transfusion independent. (LCF)

(a)  

100.

TRUE or FALSE. Anemia of CKD is due to the high production of erythropoietin. (LCF)

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

101.

describes a benign condition that generally does not affect mortality or morbidity except to condition of extreme exertion (VJEQ)

(a)  

102.

episode of recurring pain present as a clinical manifestation of sickle cell disease (VJEQ)

(a)  

103.

Hb detected on Sickle Cell Trait HPLC (VJEQ)

(a)  

104.

a compulsive eating disorder in which people eat nonfood items; sign of IDA (VJEQ)

(a)  

105.

Approximate amount of iron lost from the body per day; the amount of iron need to be replaced daily (VJEQ)

(a)  

106.

Provides an intracellular storage repository for metabolically active iron (VJEQ)

(a)  

107.

TRUE or FALSE. In the treatment of IDA, we should treat the IDA first before the underlying condition (VJEQ)

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

108.

TRUE or FALSE. Both Vitamin B12 and Folate deficiencies have a clinical manifestation of neurological disturbance such as neuropathy, spastic paresis, etc. (VJEQ)

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

109.

What anemia has red cell morphology similar to that seen in IDA? (VJEQ)

(a)  

110.

Characteristic of Diamond Blackfan Syndrome wherein there is a triangular or trapezoidal shaped bone with C shaped epiphyseal plate in the phalanges (VJEQ)

(a)  

111.

All of the following are features of aplastic anemia. EXCEPT: (AMDM)

a)

a. Pancytopenia

b)

b. Reticulocytosis

c)

c. Depletion of HSC

d)

d. NOTA

112.

Typically seen in marked intravascular hemolysis. (AMDM)

a)

a. Hemosiderinuria

b)

b. Hemoglobinuria

c)

c. Urobilinogen

d)

d. NOTA

113.

Mostly occurs in extravascular hemolysis. (AMDM)

a)

a. Hemosiderinuria

b)

b. Hemoglobinuria

c)

c. Urobilinogen

d)

d. NOTA

114.

Mostly occurs in intravascular hemolysis. (AMDM)

a)

a. Hemosiderinuria

b)

b. Hemoglobinuria

c)

c. Urobilinogen

d)

d. NOTA

115.

True or False. Myelophthisis is the replacement of hemopoietic bone marrow tissue by elements that do not form blood cells. (AMDM)

a)

True

b)

False

116.

A test to determine the cause of vitamin B12 deficiency. (AMDM)

(a)  

117.

It is more prominent in extravascular hemolysis. (AMDM)

(a)  

118.

It is the most common inherited hemolytic disease among individuals of Northern European descent. (AMDM)

a)

a. Hereditary Xerocytosis

b)

b. Hereditary Ovalocytosis

c)

c. Hereditary Elliptocytosis

d)

d. Hereditary Spherocytosis

119.

It is made of calcium bilirubinate and may lead to cholecystitis. (AMDM)

a)

a. Black pigment gallstones

b)

b. White pigment gallstones

c)

c. Either

d)

d. Neither

120.

It is a severe form of Hereditary Elliptocytosis. (AMDM)

a)

a. Hereditary Xerocytosis

b)

b. Hereditary Ovalocytosis

c)

c. Hereditary Pyropoikilocytosis

d)

d. Hereditary Spherocytosis

121.

It is an inherited disorder caused by genetic mutationsaffecting the globin chain component of thehemoglobin (Hb) tetramer. (CMTM)

a)

a. Thalassemia

b)

b. Hereditary Spherocytosis

c)

c. Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)

d)

d. Neuroacanthocytosis

122.

The lifespan of a red blood cell? (CMTM)

a)

a. 130 days

b)

b. 120 days

c)

c. 110 days

d)

d. 140 days

123.

Amino acid substitution of lysine for glutamic acid at position six of the beta hemoglobin chain. (RPR)

(a)  

124.

Present at levels of > 90%, with Hb F at < 7% and Hb A2 at approximately 2%. (RPR)

a)

a. Hb C

b)

b. Hb S

c)

c. Hb AC

d)

d. Hb SC

125.

In Shwachman-Diamond Syndrome the pancreatic insufficiency associated with ______? (CMTM)

a)

a. maldigestion

b)

b. malabsorption

c)

c. malnutrition

126.

Reddish hexagonal cytoplasmic red blood cell crystal described as a "gold bar," or "Washington monument." (RPR)

(a)  

127.

It is normocytic, normochromic anemiacharacterized by a severe reduction in circulatingreticulocytes. (CMTM)

a)

a. Congenital Dyserythropoietic Anemia

b)

b. Anemia of CKD

c)

c. Pure Red Cell Aplasia

d)

d. Myelophthisic Anemia

128.

When one a gene is deleted (a-/aa), a patient has: (RPR)

a)

a. Normal hemoglobin levels

b)

b. Mild anemia (hemoglobin range 9 to 11 g/dL)

c)

c. Moderate anemia (hemoglobin range 7 to 9 gm/dL)

d)

d. Marked anemia requiring regular transfusions

129.

TRUE or FALSE. Sickle cell trait is an asymptomatic heterozygous condition characterized by the presence of both hemoglobin S and hemoglobin A. (RPR)

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

130.

A deficiency of, or antibody to, intrinsic factor results in: (RPR)

a)

a. Iron deficiency anemia

b)

b. Hemolytic anemia

c)

c. B12 deficiency

d)

d. All of the above

131.

Poorly hemoglobinized red blood cell (RBC) that is present in hemoglobinopathies, thalassemia, and liver disease. (RPR)

a)

a. Target cells

b)

b. Codocytes

c)

c. Either

d)

d. Neither

132.

Anisocytosis is associated with anemias especially: (RPR)

a)

a. Iron deficiency anemia

b)

b. Megaloblastic anemia

c)

c. Hemolytic anemia

d)

d. All of the above

133.

In hemoglobin SC, what is the common associated bacteria in the respiratory tract infections? (RPR)

a)

a. S. pneumoniae

b)

b. S. oralis

c)

c. H. influenzae

d)

d. M. catarrhalis

134.

The most common hemoglobinopathy, resulting from asubstitution of valine for glutamic acid at position 6 of the b globin chain, and primarily affects people of African descent. (CMTM)

a)

a. Hb S

b)

b. Hb C

c)

c. Hb EE

d)

d. Hb AS

135.

It polymerizes in the RBCs because of abnormal interaction with adjacent tetramers when it is in the deoxygenated form, producing sickle-shaped RBCs. (CMTM)

a)

a. Hb S

b)

b. Hb C

c)

c. Hb EE

d)

d. Hb AS

136.

Found primarily in people of African descent. (CMTM)

a)

a. Hb S

b)

b. Hb C

c)

c. Hb EE

d)

d. Hb AS

137.

The median life expectancy of patients with SCD has been extended to approximately? (CMTM)

a)

a. 60 yrs old

b)

b. 40 yrs old

c)

c. 50 yrs old

d)

d. 70 yrs old

138.

It can result from increased serum unconjugated bilirubin during any hemolytic anemia. (CMTM)

a)

a. Jaundice

b)

b. Sepsis

c)

c. Hepatomegaly

d)

d. Acidosis

139.

Usually caused by a deletion of one, two,three, or all four of the a-globin genes, resulting in reduced or absent production of a chain. (CMTM)

a)

a. alpha-thalassemias

b)

b. beta-thalassemias

140.

Irregular reddish cytoplasmic red blood cell crystal described as a "glove" or "pistol." (RPR)

a)

a. Hemoglobin C crystal

b)

b. Hemoglobin E

c)

c. Hemoglobin O-Arab

d)

d. Hemoglobin SC crystal

141.

It is the metabolically active form of vitamin B12. (FDC)

a)

a. Holotranscobalamin

b)

b. Transcobalamin

c)

c. Folic acid

d)

d. Cyanocobalamin

142.

It is the most common compound heterozygous syndrome that results in a structural defect in the hemoglobin molecule in which different amino acid substitutions are found on each of two beta-globin chains.

a)

a. Hb SG

b)

b. Hb SC

c)

c. Hb SD

d)

d. Hb SO-Arab

143.

It is the treatment of choice for patients with severe aplastic anemia who are younger than 40 years of age and have a human leukocyte antigen (HLA)- identical sibling. (FDC)

a)

a. Blood transfusion

b)

b. Supportive therapy

c)

c. Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation

d)

d. Synthetic EPO

144.

It is also called as "Haptoglobin scavenger receptor". (FDC)

a)

a. CD163

b)

b. CD91

c)

c. Cubilin

d)

d. None of the above

145.

It is the differential diagnosis for hemolytic anemia—chronic, macrophage-mediated. (FDC)

a)

a. Hb-rapidly dropping; Indirect bilirubinemia-delayed; Reticulocytosis-delayed; Schistocytes

b)

b. Hb-rapidly dropping; Indirect bilirubinemia-delayed; Reticulocytosis-delayed; Spherocytes

c)

c. Hb-persistently low; Indirect bilirubinemia-persistent; Reticulocytosis-persistent; Schistocytes

d)

d. Hb-persistently low; Indirect bilirubinemia-persistent; Reticulocytosis-persistent; Spherocytes

146.

All of the following are hemoglobins associated with decreased oxygen affinity except: (FDC)

a)

a. Hb Yoshizuka

b)

b. Hb Agenogi

c)

c. Hb Ypsi

d)

d. Hb Providence

147.

Carrión disease is caused by which infectious agent (FDC)

a)

a. Bartonella bacilliformis

b)

b. Clostridium perfringens

c)

c. Plasmodium knowlesi

d)

d. Plasmodium falciparum

148.

Plasmodium species are transmitted to humans by ticks. Mosquitoes are the vector for Babesia. (FDC)

a)

a. First sentence is correct. Second sentence is incorrect.

b)

b. First sentence is incorrect. Second sentence is correct.

c)

c. Both sentences are correct.

d)

d. Both sentences are incorrect

149.

The terms disease and trait are also commonly used to refer to the _____ and _____ states. (FDC)

a)

a. Heterozygous, homozygous

b)

b. Homozygous, heterozygous

c)

c. Homozygous, hemizygous

d)

d. None of the above

150.

It is a common first step in the confirmation of hemoglobinopathies, including SCD. (FDC)

a)

a. High Performance Liquid Chromatography

b)

b. Capillary Electrophoresis

c)

c. Acid Hemoglobin Electrophoresis

d)

d. Alkaline Hemoglobin Electrophoresis

151.

There is a delayed increase in unconjugated bilirubin in the plasma and an increase in urobilinogen in the stool and urine. (CVU)

a)

a. Iron Deficiency Anemia

b)

b. Megaloblastic Anemia

c)

c. Excessive Fragmentation (Intravascular) Hemolysis

d)

d. Excessive Macrophage-mediated (Extravascular) Hemolysis

152.

A substantial decline in the serum haptoglobin level indicates what? (CVU)

a)

a. Hemolysis

b)

b. Anemia

c)

c. Macrophage-mediated Hemolysis

d)

d. Fragmentation Hemolysis

153.

Serum lactate dehydrogenase activity is an activity that is often increased inpatients with fragmentation hemolysis due to the release of the enzyme from ruptured RBCs. This activity can also be increased by other conditions like myocardial infarction and liver disease. (CVU)

a)

a. The first statement is correct.

b)

b. The second statement is correct.

c)

c. Both statements are correct.

d)

d. Neither of the statements is correct.

154.

The presence of these imparts coffee-brown color in the plasma and root beer-colored urine. (CVU)

a)

a. hemopexin, albumin, and urobilin

b)

b. methemoglobin, methemalbumin,and hemopexin-heme

c)

c. unconjugated bilirubin, albumin, and methemoglobin

d)

d. None of the choices

155.

Pyruvate kinase deficiency and uremia are hemolytic disorders associated with what RBC morphology? (CVU)

a)

a. Acanthocytes

b)

b. Schistocytes

c)

c. Target cells

d)

d. Burr cells

156.

A condition where symptoms may first appear in infancy, childhood,or adulthood, or even at an advanced age. Symptoms include anemia, jaundice, and splenomegaly. (CVU)

a)

a. Hereditary Spherocytosis

b)

b Hereditary Xerocytosis

c)

c. Acquired Ovalocytosis

d)

d. Hereditary Stomatocytosis

157.

Confirmation of PNH requires demonstration of GPI deficientcells in the peripheral blood. (CVU)

a)

a. The statement is true.

b)

b. The statement is false.

158.

It can be accomplishedby sequencing the exons, flanking regions, and promoter regionof the PKLR gene. (CVU)

a)

a. Mutation detection

b)

b. Genotypic testing

c)

c. Both

d)

d. None of the given choices

159.

Treatment used for of all malaria, except for disease caused by strains of P. falciparum and P. vivax acquired from areas known to harbor chloroquine-resistant organisms, are either Chloroquine or hydroxychloroquine. (CVU)

a)

a. The statement is false.

b)

b. The statement is true.

160.

Hemolytic anemia caused by other red blood cell injury hasbeen reported after bites from poisonous snakes (cobras and pit vipers), brown recluse spider (Loxosceles reclusa and Loxosceles laeta), and after multiple stings (50 or more) by flies. (CVU)

a)

a. The statement is true.

b)

b. The statement is false.

161.

Hallmark of HS (RJAU)

a)

A. Spherocytes

b)

B. Vasoocclusive C

162.

True or FalseSS is the most severe form of sickle cell disease (RJAU)

a)

True

b)

False

163.

True or False. Eosin-5 is the confirmatory test for HS (RJAU)

a)

True

b)

False

164.

Which of the following is the laboratory findings for March Hemoglobinuria? (RJAU)

a)

A. Serum haptoglobin increases

b)

B. Hemoglobinuria - present

c)

C. Plasma hemoglobin increases

d)

D. AOTA

165.

Hallmark of SCD (RJAU)

a)

A. Spherocytes

b)

B. Vasoocclusive C

166.

Vertical - structural integrity : __________ - mechanical stability (RJAU)

a)

A. Landscape

b)

B. Horizontal

c)

C. Flip

d)

D. NOTA

167.

Which of the following is the severe form of heredity elliptocytosis? (RJAU)

a)

A. Hereditary Pyropoikilocytosis

b)

B. Hereditary Spherocytosis

c)

C. Either

d)

D. Neither

168.

Exercise- Induced Hemoglobinuria is also known as Frank Hemoglobinuria. The plasma increase is one of its laboratory findings (RJAU)

a)

A. Both statement is true

b)

B. Both statement is false

169.

Ability to bend, stretch, distort and return to normal (RJAU)

a)

A. Lipid bilayer

b)

B. Deformatility

c)

C. NOTA

d)

D. Both A and B.

170.

It can be used to identify membrane protein deficiencies by electrophoretic separation of the various proteins in solubilized RBC mem branes with quantitation of the proteins by densitometry. (PMQV)

a)

a. Radioimmunoassay

b)

b. Osmotic gradient ektacytometry

c)

c. Autohemolysis test

d)

d. SDS-PAGE

171.

In extensive burns, the severity of burns is acute hemolytic anemia due to warm temperature. What degrees of Celsius? (PMQV)

a)

a. 56 degrees Celsius

b)

b. 49 degrees Celsius

c)

c. 32 degrees Celsius

d)

d. 29 degrees Celsius

172.

Unstable hemoglobin variants result from genetic mutations to globin genes creating hemoglobin products that precipitate in vivo, producing Heinz bodies and causing a hemolytic anemia. How many unstable hemoglobin variants are exist? (PMQV)

a)

a. More than 140 unstable hemoglobin variants

b)

b. Less than 140 unstable hemoglobin variants

c)

c. More than 150 unstable hemoglobin variants

d)

d. Less than 150 unstable hemoglobin variants

173.

Since there are seven hemoglobin variants in hemoglobin M. Which of the following is unstable hemoglobin variants? (PMQV)

a)

a. Hb M-Boston

b)

b. Hb Chile

c)

c. Hb Auckland

d)

d. Hb Zurich

174.

Unstable hemoglobin disorder is usually detected in early childhood in patient with hemolytic anemia accompanied by: (PMQV)

a)

a. hereditary spherocytosis

b)

b. thalassemias

c)

c. jaundice and splenomegaly

d)

d. sickle cell disease

175.

Rh deficiency syndrome comprises a group of rare hereditary conditions in which the expression of Rh membrane proteins is absent/_____ or decreased/_____. (PMQV)

a)

a. Rh-null, Rh-mod

b)

b. Rh-mod, Rh-null

c)

c. Rh-negative, Rh-incompatibility

d)

d. None of the above

176.

Hb M variants have altered oxygen affinity and are inherited as autosomal dominant disorders. Affected individuals have 30% to 50% methemoglobin (healthy individuals have less than 1%) and may appear cyanotic. (PMQV)

a)

a. Both statement are correct.

b)

b. Both statement are wrong.

c)

c. First sentence is wrong. Second sentence is correct.

d)

d. First sentence is correct. Second sentence is wrong.

177.

Which of the following is the type of hemologlobin that it caused by a variety of mutations in the α-, β-, and γ-globin genes, all of which result in production of methemoglobin? (PMQV)

a)

a. Hemoglobin E

b)

b. Hemoglobin SC

c)

c. Hemoglobin M

d)

d. Hemoglobin C.

178.

True or False. Pliancy is the ability of the spectrum to fold and unfold by itself. (RJAU)

a)

True

b)

False

179.

Which of the following is a type of syndrome that due to the damage of the cells in the glomerular vasculature and it is most common among children but sometimes also present in adults. (PMQV)

a)

a. Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome

b)

b. Rh Deficiency Syndrome

c)

c. Pappilorenal Syndrome

d)

d. McLeod Syndrome

180.

Which of the following is not a conditions that associated with Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia? (PMQV)

a)

a. Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)

b)

b. Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)

c)

c. McLeod Syndrome (MLS)

d)

d. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

181.

What is the most significant public health concern? (TLE)

a)

a. Lead poisoning

b)

b. Iron deficiency anemia

c)

c. Thalassemia

d)

d. Anemia of Chronic Inflammation

182.

Iron overload involves mechanisms of processes which the body's rate of acquisition greater than the rate which is usually 1 mg/day. Decreased amounts of iron in parenchymal cells throughout the body. (TLE)

a)

a. Both statements are true

b)

b. First statement is true, the second statement is false

c)

c. Both statements are false

d)

d. First statement is false, the second statement is true

183.

What is the another name for hemochromatosis? (TLE)

a)

a. Iron Deficiency anemia

b)

b. Iron overload

c)

c. Anemia

d)

d. Sideroblastic anemia

184.

Which of the following does not see in Lead poisoning? (TLE)

a)

a. Hyperuricemia

b)

b. Constipation

c)

c. Anemia

d)

d. Pappenheimer bodies

185.

Therapeutic phlebotomy is the first line treatment for iron overload (TLE)

a)

a. True

b)

b. False

186.

Too much intake of glutathione may cause: (TLE)

a)

a. Kidney damage

b)

b. Pancreatic damage

c)

c. Liver damage

d)

d. None of the above

187.

Liver biopsy with assessment of iron staining and degree of scarring in liver specimens is not essential to determining the degree of organ damage. (TLE)

a)

a. False

b)

b. True

188.

Which of the following drugs does not delete iron in hemochromatosis? (TLE)

a)

a. Deferoxamine

b)

b. Deferiprone

c)

c. Deferasirox

d)

d. None of the above

189.

Before menopause, women lose iron via menstruation and pregnancy, which slows down iron accumulation within the body. As a result, symptom onset occurs later in (typically postmenopausal) than in men. (TLE)

a)

a. First statement is true, the second statement is false

b)

b. First statement is false, the second statement is true

c)

c. Both statements are true

d)

d. Both statements are false

190.

These common clinical features of Porphyrins except: (TLE)

a)

a. Photosensitivity

b)

b. Cutaneous findings

c)

c. Hemolytic anemia

d)

d. None of the above