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Chemistry 1st Semester Review

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the definition of matter?

a)

The smallest particle in a substance

b)

Something that has mass and takes up space

c)

How much something weighs

d)

Something that only goes through a chemical change

2.

What does an elements ATOMIC NUMBER represent?

a)

number of atoms in its nucleus

b)

number of protons in its nucleus

3.

What is the atomic symbol for Carbon?

a)

Ca

b)

C

c)

Cb

d)

Cn

4.
Which number is the atomic mass?
a)
79
b)
196.97
5.
Element is a
a)
pure substance
b)
compound
c)
mixture
d)
molecule
6.
What are the 3 subatomic particles?
a)
Protons, Electrons, Neurons
b)
Neutrons, Protons, Electrons
c)
Solids, Liquids, Gases
d)
Quarks, Bosons, Positrons
7.
Particles in an atom that are negative 
a)
molecules 
b)
electrons 
c)
neutrons 
d)
protons 
8.
Solids have a....
a)
Definite volume, indefinite shape
b)
Indefinite volume, indefinite shape
c)
Definite volume, definite shape
d)
Indefinite volume, definite shape
9.
Liquids have a...
a)
Definite volume, indefinite shape
b)
Indefinite volume, indefinite shape
c)
Definite volume, definite shape
d)
Indefinite volume, definite shape
10.
all matter is made of what 
a)
energy 
b)
atoms 
c)
electrons 
d)
compounds 
11.
The positive particles of an atom are 
a)
electrons 
b)
positrons 
c)
neutrons 
d)
protons 
12.
Particles in an atom that are neutral and have no charge are 
a)
negatrons 
b)
electrons 
c)
neutrons 
d)
protons 
13.
Which state of matter do the particles in this picture represent?
a)
solid
b)
liquid
c)
gas
d)
plasma
14.
Ice melting
a)
Chemical Change
b)
Physical Change
15.
Wood burned in a fireplace
a)
Chemical Change
b)
Physical Change
16.
Cake batter baked in an oven
a)
Chemical Change
b)
Physical Change
17.

Which of the following is a physical change?

a)

rusting

b)

tarnishing

c)

burning

d)

boiling

18.

If 2g of one substance is reacted with 4g of the other substance, the product is expected to have a mass of

a)

8g

b)

2g

c)

4g

d)

6g

19.

How many significant figures are in 0.08030?

a)

4

b)

2

c)

5

d)

6

20.

Which of the following is the correct classification of coffee once it is brewed?

a)

element

b)

compound

c)

heterogeneous mixture

d)

homogeneous mixture

21.

Which of the following is TRUE about the liquid state of matter?

a)

The particles are free to move and fill the container.

b)

The particles have only vibrational motion.

c)

The volume is constant.

d)

The shape is constant.

22.

The atomic number is equal to

a)

electrons + neutrons

b)

protons

c)

neutrons

d)

protons + neutrons

23.

The mass number is equal to

a)

electrons + neutrons

b)

protons

c)

neutrons

d)

protons + neutrons

24.

The number of ____________ changes in ions.

a)

protons

b)

electrons

c)

neutrons

d)

atoms

25.

How many significant figures are in the answer to 5.1 x 3.64?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

5

d)

1

26.

What element's electron configuration is [Ar]4s23d5?

a)

magnesium

b)

bromine

c)

sodium

d)

manganese

27.

What is the correct electron configuration for oxygen?

a)

1s22s22p4

b)

1s22s23s24s2

c)

1s22s22p63s23p4

d)

1s22s42p2

28.

Which has the largest atomic radius?

a)

Se

b)

Cr

c)

Ta

d)

In

29.

Which of the following is an alkaline earth metal?

a)

potassium

b)

copper

c)

barium

d)

gallium

30.

Which element is found in the d-block of the periodic table?

a)

calcium

b)

fluorine

c)

uranium

d)

molybdenum

31.

How many valence electrons do the halogens have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

6

d)

7

32.
Is this molecule polar or non polar?
a)
Polar
b)
Non Polar
33.

How many total valence electrons does SF4 have?

a)

28

b)

22

c)

34

d)

6

34.

Draw the Lewis Dot structure for PCl5 and determine the predicted molecular geometry

a)

octahedral

b)

trigonal pyramidal

c)

seesaw

d)

trigonal bipyramidal

35.

What is the molecular geometry of SF4?

a)

tetrahedral

b)

trigonal pyramidal

c)

trigonal bipyramidal

d)

seesaw

36.
Choose the correct shape for this molecule:
a)
Trigonal planar
b)
Trigonal pyramidal
c)
Tetrahedral
d)
Linear
37.
What type of bonding typically exhibits the greatest melting point and boiling point?
a)
ionic
b)
metallic
c)
polar covalent
d)
nonpolar covalent
38.
What is the VSEPR theory used to predict?
a)
Bond Strength
b)
Polarity
c)
Molecular Shape
d)
Electronegativity
39.
Which molecule would have this molecular geometry?
a)
BF3
b)
CH4
c)
PCl5
d)
CO2
40.
What molecule could this be? 
a)
BF3
b)
CH4
c)
H2O
d)
CO2
41.
What molecule could this be? 
a)
H2O
b)
CCl4
c)
PCl5
d)
NaCl
42.
Who could this molecule be?
a)
CH4
b)
CO2
c)
PCl5
d)
BF3
43.
Who could this be? 
a)
CO2
b)
NH3
c)
H2S
d)
CH4
44.
According to VSEPR, molecules adjust their shapes to keep which of the following as far away as possible?
a)
Pairs of valence electrons
b)
Inner shell electrons
c)
Mobile Electrons
d)
Electrons closest to the nucleus
45.

3 atoms bonded and 0 lone pairs

a)

linear

b)

trigonal planar

c)

bent

d)

tetrahedral

e)

trigonal pyramidal

46.
How many lone pairs are in this molecule's structure?
a)
6
b)
2
c)
0
d)
4
47.
What molecular shape is the structure shown here? (H2O)
a)
tetrahedral
b)
trigonal planar
c)
bent
d)
trigonal pyramidal
48.

What is the name of J.J. Thomson's Model of an Atom?

a)

Jimmy Neutron Model

b)

Solar System Model

c)

Plum-Pudding Model

d)

Quantum mechanical Model

49.

What results did Rutherford observe in his Gold-Foil experiment?

a)

He observed that all alpha particles did go through a gold-foil in straight lines

b)

He observed that most alpha particles did not go through a gold-foil and stopped on one side of the gold foil.

c)

He observed that a small number of alpha particles bounced off the gold-foil at very large angles

d)

He observed that all alpha particles slightly deflected from the straight line when going through a gold-foil

50.

Choose one of the conclusions that Ernest Rutherford made based on the experimental results of his Gold-Foil experiment

a)

He concluded that the atom is indivisible

b)

He concluded that the atom is mostly empty space

c)

He concluded that the atom has neutrons

d)

He concluded that the atom is tightly packed with subatomic particles all mixed together

51.

Based on the experimental results of his Gold-Foil experiment, Ernest Rutherford concluded that

a)

The very dense center of the atom has a positive charge

b)

The very dense center of the atom has a negative charge

c)

The very dense center of the atom has no charge

d)

The atom doesn't have a center and all particles are distributed evenly like in a chocolate chip cookie

52.

If the atom has 25 electrons, how many protons does it need to have to be neutral?

a)

5 protons

b)

25 protons

c)

it doesn't need protons

d)

15 protons

53.

Moseley organized the Periodic table by atomic _________, and Mendeleev organized it by atomic ___________

a)

Mass, Number

b)

Number, Mass

c)

Structure, Mass

d)

Number, Isotope

54.
Each column in the periodic table is called a 
a)
period
b)
group
c)
cluster
d)
unit
55.
Ionization energy is the...
a)
energy needed to remove the outermost electron.
b)
ability of an atom to attract electrons from another atom.
56.
Electronegativity is the...
a)
energy needed to remove the outermost electron.
b)
ability of an atom to attract electrons from another atom.
57.
Which element has the smaller atomic radius: potassium (K) or bromine (Br)?
a)
potassium (K)
b)
bromine (Br)
58.
Which element has the greatest ionization energy: Aluminum (Al)    or    Chlorine (Cl)?
a)
Aluminum (Al)
b)
Chlorine (Cl)
59.
Which element has the greatest electronegativity: Nitrogen (N) or Arsenic (As)?
a)
Nitrogen (N)
b)
Arsenic (As)
60.
Which group of the periodic table is composed of inert (not reactive)  gases?
a)
alkali metals
b)
alkaline earth metals
c)
halogens
d)
noble gases
61.
Elements in a ..................have similar chemical properties.  
a)
period
b)
group
c)
row
62.
Chlorine and Fluorine are both very electronegative, as they are both missing a single electron from their valence energy level.  Why is Fluorine more electronegative than Chlorine? 
a)
Fluorine has less energy levels.
b)
Chlorine has more electrons in its outer shell
c)
Fluorine has more protons.
d)
None of these
63.

What is the trend for electronegativity as you move left to right across a period and why?

a)

EN increases because the shielding effect increases causing the effective nuclear charge to decrease as you add more protons to the nucleus

b)

EN decreases because the shielding effect decreases causing the effective nuclear charge to increase as you add more protons to the nucleus

c)

EN increases because the effective nuclear charge increases as you add protons to the nucleus and increase the number of valence electrons in the outer shell

d)

EN decreases because the effective nuclear charge decreases as you reduce the number of protons in the nucleus and increase the number of valence electrons in the outer shell

64.

What is the trend for EN as you move down a group or family and why?

a)

EN increases because the number of energy levels decrease causing an increase in the shielding effect and a decrease in the effective nuclear charge.

b)

EN decreases because the number of energy levels increases causing an increase in the shielding effect and a decrease in the effective nuclear charge

c)

EN increases because the number of energy levels increases causing a decrease in the shielding effect and an increase in the effective nuclear charge

d)

EN decreases because the number of energy levels decrease causing a decrease in the shielding effect and a decrease in the effective nuclear charge.

65.

Arrange the following elements in order by increasing electronegativity - Sn, Sr, I, Ag, Zr

a)

Sr, Zr, Ag, Sn, I

b)

Sr, Ag, Zr, I, Sn

c)

I, Sn, Ag, Zr, Sr

d)

Sn, I, Zr, Ag, Sr

66.

Which element has a higher electronegativity value?

a)

Niobium

b)

Tin

c)

Cadmium

d)

Iodine

67.
How many electrons can the first energy level hold?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
8
d)
0
68.

How many electrons can a d sublevel hold?

a)

14

b)

10

c)

2

d)

6

69.

How many orbitals does an s sublevel have?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

7

70.

How many orbitals does a d sublevel have?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

7

71.

How many orbitals does an f sublevel have?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

7

72.

What are the orbitals for n=4

a)

s

b)

s, p

c)

s, p, d

d)

s, p, d, f

73.

Electrons fill energy levels and sublevels _____ in energy first.

a)

lower

b)

higher

74.

For each of the following sublevels, which is lowest in energy?

a)

4s

b)

3d

c)

4p

d)

5s

75.
What is the shape of s orbitals?
a)
Dumbbell shaped
b)
Peanut shaped
c)
Spherical shaped
d)
Hybrid structure
76.

Region of high probability of finding an electron

a)

atomic orbital

b)

ground state

c)

Heisenberg uncertainty principle

d)

electron configuration