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AUBF MODULE 7 AND 8 QUIZ

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following statements about renal diseases is true?

a)

Glomerular renal diseases are usually immune mediated (caused by antibody).

b)

Vascular disorders induce renal disease by increasing renal perfusion.

c)

All structural components of the kidney are equally susceptible to disease.

d)

Tubulointerstitial renal diseases usually result from antibody-antigen and complement interactions.

2.

In glomerular diseases, morphologic changes in the glomeruli include all of the following except

a)

cellular proliferation

b)

erythrocyte congestion

c)

leukocyte infiltration

d)

glomerular basement membrane thickening

3.

In glomerular renal disease, glomerular damage results from

a)

deposition of infectious agents

b)

a decrease in glomerular perfusion

c)

changes in glomerular hemodynamics

d)

toxic substances induced by immune complex formation.

4.

Clinical features that are characteristic of glomerular damage include all of the following except

a)

edema

b)

hematuria

c)

proteinuria

d)

polyuria

5.

Which of the following disorders frequently occurs following a bacterial infection of the skin or throat?

a)

Acute glomerulonephritis

b)

Chronic glomerulonephritis

c)

Membranous glomerulonephritis

d)

Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

6.

Which of the following disorders is characterized by cellular proliferation into Bowman’s space to form cellular “crescents”?

a)

Chronic glomerulonephritis

b)

Membranous glomerulonephritis

c)

Minimal change disease

d)

Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

7.

Which of the following disorders is the major cause of the nephrotic syndrome in adults?

a)

IgA nephropathy

b)

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

c)

Membranous glomerulonephritis

d)

Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

8.

Which of the following glomerular diseases is the major cause of the nephrotic syndrome in children?

a)

IgA nephropathy

b)

Minimal change disease

c)

Membranous glomerulonephritis

d)

Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

9.

Which of the following statements regarding IgA nephropathy is true?

a)

It often follows a mucosal infection.

b)

It is associated with the nephrotic syndrome.

c)

It is characterized by leukocyte infiltration of the glomeruli.

d)

It often occurs secondary to systemic lupus erythematosus.

10.

Eighty percent of patients who develop chronic glomerulonephritis previously had some type of glomerular disease. Which of the following disorders is implicated most frequently in the development of chronic glomerulonephritis?

a)

IgA nephropathy

b)

Membranous glomerulonephritis

c)

Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis

d)

Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

11.

Chronic renal failure often develops in each of the following diseases except

a)

amyloidosis

b)

diabetes mellitus.

c)

diabetes insipidus

d)

systemic lupus erythematosus

12.

Which of the following features characterize the

nephrotic syndrome?

1. Proteinuria

2. Edema

3. Hypoalbuminemia

4. Hyperlipidemia

a)

1, 2, and 3 are correct

b)

1 and 3 are correct

c)

Only 4 is correct

d)

All are correct

13.

When a patient has the nephrotic syndrome, microscopic examination of their urine sediment often reveals

a)

granular casts

b)

leukocyte casts

c)

red blood cell casts

d)

waxy casts

14.

Which of the following has not been associated with acute tubular necrosis?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Galactosuria

c)

Hemoglobinuria

d)

Surgical procedures

15.

Which formed element in urine sediment is characteristic of toxic acute tubular necrosis and aids in its differentiation from ischemic acute tubular necrosis?

a)

Collecting tubular cells

b)

Granular casts

c)

Proximal tubular cells

d)

Waxy casts

16.

Which of the following disorders is characterized by the urinary excretion of large amounts of arginine, cystine, lysine, and ornithine?

a)

Cystinosis

b)

Cystinuria

c)

Lysinuria

d)

Tyrosinuria

17.

Generalized loss of proximal tubular function is a characteristic of

a)

Fanconi’s syndrome

b)

nephrotic syndrome

c)

renal glucosuria

d)

renal tubular acidosis

18.

Which of the following changes is not associated with renal tubular acidosis?

a)

Decreased glomerular filtration rate

b)

Decreased renal tubular secretion of hydrogen ions

c)

Decreased proximal tubular reabsorption of bicarbonate

d)

Increased back-diffusion of hydrogen ions in the distal tubules

19.

Which of the following disorders is considered a lower urinary tract infection?

a)

Cystitis

b)

Glomerulonephritis

c)

Pyelitis

d)

Pyelonephritis

20.

Most urinary tract infections are caused by

a)

yeast, such as Candida spp.

b)

gram-negative rods.

c)

gram-positive rods

d)

gram-positive cocci

21.

Which of the following formed elements when present in urine sediment is most indicative of an upper urinary tract infection?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Casts

c)

Erythrocytes

d)

Leukocytes

22.

The most common cause of chronic pyelonephritis is

a)

cystitis

b)

bacterial sepsis

c)

drug-induced nephropathies

d)

reflux nephropathies

23.

Eosinophiluria, fever, and skin rash are characteristic clinical features of

a)

acute pyelonephritis

b)

acute interstitial nephritis

c)

acute glomerulonephritis

d)

chronic glomerulonephritis

24.

Cessation of the administration of a drug is the fastest and most effective treatment for

a)

acute pyelonephritis

b)

acute interstitial nephritis

c)

acute glomerulonephritis

d)

chronic glomerulonephritis

25.

Yeast is considered part of the normal flora in each of the following locations except in the

a)

gastrointestinal tract

b)

oral cavity

c)

urinary tract

d)

vagina

26.

Acute renal failure can be caused by all of the following except

a)

hemorrhage

b)

acute tubular necrosis

c)

acute pyelonephritis

d)

urinary tract obstruction

27.

Which of the following statements about chronic renal failure is true?

a)

It can be reversed by appropriate treatment regimens

b)

It eventually progresses to end-stage renal disease

c)

It is monitored by periodic determinations of renal blood flow

d)

Its onset involves a sudden decrease in the glomerular filtration rate

28.

Isosthenuria, significant proteinuria, and numerous casts of all types describes the urinalysis findings from a patient with

a)

acute renal failure

b)

acute tubular necrosis

c)

chronic renal failure

d)

renal tubular acidosis

29.

Approximately 75% of the renal calculi that form in patients contain

a)

calcium

b)

cystine

c)

oxalate

d)

uric acid

30.

The formation of renal calculi is enhanced by

a)

an increase in urine flow

b)

the natural “acid-alkaline tide” of the body

c)

increases in protein in the urine ultrafiltrate

d)

increases in chemical salts in the urine ultrafiltrate

31.

An overflow mechanism is responsible for the aminoaciduria present

a)

cystinosis

b)

cystinuria

c)

tyrosinuria

d)

phenylketonuria

32.

Which of the following hereditary diseases results in the accumulation and excretion of large amounts of homogentisic acid?

a)

Alkaptonuria

b)

Melanuria

c)

Phenylketonuria

d)

Tyrosinuria

33.

Which of the following substances oxidizes with exposure to air, causing the urine to turn brown or black?

a)

Melanin

b)

Porphyrin

c)

Tyrosine

d)

Urobilinogen

34.

Which of the following diseases is related to tyrosine production or metabolism?

1. Tyrosinuria

2. Melanuria

3. Phenylketonuria

4. Alkaptonuria

a)

1, 2, and 3 are correct

b)

1 and 3 are correct

c)

4 is correct

d)

All are correct

35.

Which of the following diseases can result in severe mental retardation if not detected and treated in the infant?

1. Phenylketonuria

2. Maple syrup urine disease

3. Galactosuria

4. Alkaptonuria

a)

1, 2, and 3 are correct

b)

1 and 3 are correct

c)

4 is correct

d)

All are correct

36.

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of type 2 diabetes mellitus?

a)

Daily insulin injections are necessary.

b)

Onset of the disease is usually sudden

c)

Strong tendency to develop ketoacidosis

d)

The disease usually presents after 40 years of age

37.

Which of the following abnormalities is not a clinical feature of an infant with galactosuria?

a)

Cataract formation

b)

Liver dysfunction

c)

Mental retardation

d)

Polyuria

38.

Galactose is produced in the normal metabolism of

a)

fructose

b)

glucose

c)

lactose

d)

sucrose

39.

Which of the following features is not a characteristic of diabetes insipidus?

a)

Polyuria

b)

Polydipsia

c)

Increased production of antidiuretic hormone

d)

Urine with a low specific gravity

40.

Porphyria is characterized by

a)

increased heme degradation.

b)

increased heme formation

c)

decreased globin synthesis

d)

decreased iron catabolism.

41.

Which of the following statements regarding porphyrin and porphyrin precursors is true?

1. Porphyria can be inherited or induced.

2. Porphyrin precursors are neurotoxins.

3. Porphyrins can be dark red or purple.

4. Porphyrin precursor accumulation causes

skin photosensitivity

a)

1, 2, and 3 are correct

b)

1 and 3 are correct

c)

4 is correct

d)

All are correct

42.

Most glomerular disorders are caused by

a)

Sudden drops in blood pressure

b)

Immunologic disorders

c)

Exposure to toxic substances

d)

Bacterial infections

43.

Dysmorphic RBC casts would be a significant finding with all of the following except:

a)

Goodpasture syndrome

b)

Acute glomerulonephritis

c)

Chronic pyelonephritis

d)

Henoch-Schönlein purpura

44.

Occasional episodes of macroscopic hematuria over periods of 20 or more years are seen with:

a)

Crescentic glomerulonephritis

b)

IgA nephropathy

c)

Nephrotic syndrome

d)

Wegener granulomatosis

45.

Antiglomerular basement membrane antibody is seen with:

a)

Wegener granulomatosis

b)

IgA nephropathy

c)

Goodpasture syndrome

d)

Diabetic nephropathy

46.

Antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody is diagnostic for:

a)

IgA nephropathy

b)

Wegener granulomatosis

c)

Henoch-Schönlein purpura

d)

Goodpasture syndrome

47.

Respiratory and renal symptoms are associated with all of the following except:

a)

IgA nephropathy

b)

Wegener granulomatosis

c)

Henoch-Schönlein purpura

d)

Goodpasture syndrome

48.

The presence of fatty casts is associated with all of the following except:

a)

Nephrotic syndrome

b)

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

c)

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

d)

Minimal change disease

49.

The highest levels of proteinuria are seen with:

a)

Alport syndrome

b)

Diabetic nephropathy

c)

IgA nephropathy

d)

Nephrotic syndrome

50.

Ischemia frequently produces:

a)

Acute renal tubular necrosis

b)

Minimal change disorder

c)

Renal glycosuria

d)

Goodpasture’s syndrome

51.

A disorder associated with polyuria and low specific gravity is:

a)

Renal glucosuria

b)

Minimal change disease

c)

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

d)

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

52.

An inherited disorder producing a generalized defect in tubular reabsorption is:

a)

Alport syndrome

b)

Acute interstitial nephritis

c)

Fanconi syndrome

d)

Renal glycosuria

53.

A teenage boy who develops gout in his big toe and has a high serum uric acid should be monitored for

a)

Fanconi syndrome

b)

Renal calculi

c)

Uromodulin-associated kidney disease

d)

Chronic interstitial nephritis

54.

The only protein produced by the kidney is:

a)

Albumin

b)

Uromodulin

c)

Uroprotein

d)

Globulin

55.

The presence of renal tubular epithelial cells and casts is an indication of

a)

Acute interstitial nephritis

b)

Chronic glomerulonephritis

c)

Minimal change disease

d)

Acute tubular necrosis

56.

Differentiation between cystitis and pyelonephritis is aided by the presence of:

a)

WBC casts

b)

RBC casts

c)

Bacteria

d)

Granular casts

57.

The presence of WBCs and WBC casts with no bacteria is indicative of:

a)

Chronic pyelonephritis

b)

Acute tubular necrosis

c)

Acute interstitial nephritis

d)

None of the given choices

58.

End-stage renal disease is characterized by all of the following except:

a)

Hypersthenuria

b)

Isosthenuria

c)

Azotemia

d)

Electrolyte imbalance

59.

Prerenal acute renal failure could be caused by

a)

Massive hemorrhage

b)

Acute tubular necrosis

c)

Acute interstitial nephritis

d)

Malignant tumors

60.

The most common composition of renal calculi is

a)

Calcium oxalate

b)

Magnesium ammonium phosphate

c)

Cystine

d)

Uric acid

61.

Urinalysis on a patient with severe back pain being evaluated for renal calculi would be most beneficial if it

showed:

a)

Heavy proteinuria

b)

Low specific gravity

c)

Uric acid crystals

d)

Microscopic hematuria

62.

Newborn screening is required for PKU for early:

a)

Modifications of diet

b)

Administration of antibiotics

c)

Detection of diabetes

d)

Initiation of gene therapy

63.

All of the following disorders can be detected by newborn

screening except

a)

Tyrosyluria

b)

Maple Syrup Urine Disease

c)

Melanuria

d)

Galactosemia

64.

The best specimen for early newborn screening is a:

a)

Timed urine specimen

b)

Blood specimen

c)

First morning urine specimen

d)

Fecal specimen

65.

Abnormal urine screening tests categorized as an overflow disorder include all of the following except:

a)

Alkaptonuria

b)

Galactosemia

c)

Melanuria

d)

Cystinuria

66.

Which of the following disorders is not associated with the phenylalanine-tyrosine pathway?

a)

MSUD

b)

Alkaptonuria

c)

Albinism

d)

Tyrosinemia

67.

The least serious form of tyrosylemia is:

a)

Immature liver function

b)

Type 1

c)

Type 2

d)

Type 3

68.

An overflow disorder of the phenylalanine-tyrosine pathway that would produce a positive reaction with the reagent strip test for ketones is:

a)

Alkaptonuria

b)

Melanuria

c)

Maple Syrup Urine Disease

d)

Tyrosyluria

69.

An overflow disorder that could produce a false-positive reaction with Clinitest procedure is:

a)

Cystinuria

b)

Alkaptonuria

c)

Indicanuria

d)

Porphyrinuria

70.

A urine that turns black after sitting by the sink for several hours could be indicative of:

a)

Alkaptonuria

b)

MSUD

c)

Melanuria

d)

Melanuria and alkaptonuria

71.

Ketonuria in a newborn is an indication of:

a)

MSUD

b)

Isovaleric acidemia

c)

Methylmalonic acidemia

d)

All of the given choices

72.

Urine from a newborn with MSUD will have a significant:

a)

Pale color

b)

Yellow precipitate

c)

Milky appearance

d)

Sweet odor

73.

Hartnup disease is a disorder associated with the metabolism of:

a)

Organic acids

b)

Tryptophan

c)

Cystine

d)

Phenylalanine

74.

5-HIAA is a degradation product of:

a)

Heme

b)

Indole

c)

Serotonin

d)

Melanin

75.

Elevated urinary levels of 5-HIAA are associated with:

a)

Carcinoid tumors

b)

Hartnup disease

c)

Cystinuria

d)

Platelet disorders

76.

False-positive levels of 5-HIAA can be caused by a diet high in:

a)

Meat

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Starch

d)

Bananas

77.

Blue diaper syndrome is associated with

a)

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

b)

Phenylketonuria

c)

Cystinuria

d)

Hartnup disease

78.

Homocystinuria is caused by failure to metabolize

a)

Lysine

b)

Methionine

c)

Arginine

d)

Cystine

79.

The classic urine color associated with porphyria is

a)

Dark yellow

b)

Indigo blue

c)

Pink

d)

Port wine

80.

Hurler, Hunter, and Sanfilippo syndromes are hereditary disorders affecting metabolism of:

a)

Porphyrins

b)

Purines

c)

Mucopolysaccharides

d)

Tryptophan

81.

Many uric acid crystals in a pediatric urine specimen may

indicate:

a)

Hurler syndrome

b)

Lesch-Nyhan disease

c)

Melituria

d)

Sanfilippo syndrome

82.

Sulfur odor

a)

PKU

b)

Cystinuria

c)

Indicanuria

d)

Alkaptonuria

e)

Isovaleric acidemia

83.

Sweaty feet odor

a)

PKU

b)

Cystinuria

c)

Indicanuria

d)

Alkaptonuria

e)

Isovaleric acidemia

84.

Orange sand in diaper

a)

PKU

b)

Lesch-Nyhan disease

c)

Indicanuria

d)

Alkaptonuria

e)

Isovaleric acidemia

85.

Mousy odor

a)

PKU

b)

Lesch-Nyhan disease

c)

Indicanuria

d)

Alkaptonuria

e)

Isovaleric acidemia

86.

What is the most common method used in newborn screening.

a)

Gas Chromatography/Mass Specrtrometry

b)

Tandem mass spectrophotometry

c)

ELISA

d)

CTAB

87.

What is the most commonly test in detecting mucopolysaccharidoses.

a)

Gas Chromatography/Mass Specrtrometry

b)

Tandem mass spectrophotometry

c)

ELISA

d)

CTAB