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Kines 201 Final Exam Guide Ch7-11

Total questions: 92

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following correctly describes the pathway of air through the respiratory system?

a)

Nasal passage → Pharynx → Epiglottis → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveolar ducts/sacs

b)

Nasal passage → Pharynx → Larynx → Epiglottis → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveolar ducts/sacs

c)

Nasal passage → Epiglottis → Pharynx → Larynx → Bronchi → Trachea → Alveoli

d)

Nasal passage → Trachea → Pharynx → Larynx → Bronchioles → Bronchi → Alveolar sacs

2.

Nasal passage is considered in the...

a)

conductive zone

b)

respiratory zone

3.

Pharynx is considered in the...

a)

conductive zone

b)

respiratory zone

4.

Larynx is considered in the...

a)

conductive zone

b)

respiratory zone

5.

Epiglottis is considered in the...

a)

conductive zone

b)

respiratory zone

6.

Trachea is considered in the...

a)

conductive zone

b)

respiratory zone

7.

Bronchi is considered in the...

a)

conductive zone

b)

respiratory zone

8.

Bronchioles is considered in the...

a)

conductive zone

b)

respiratory zone

9.

Alveolar ducts/sacs is considered in the...

a)

conductive zone

b)

respiratory zone

10.

Which of the following equations correctly represents minute ventilation (VE)?

a)

VE = TV × BF

b)

VE = CO × BP

c)

VE = HR × SV

d)

VE = O₂ × CO₂

11.

When air remains in the lungs for a longer period of time, what is the result?

a)

Less oxygen is extracted from inspired air

b)

Greater amount of oxygen (O₂) is extracted from inspired air

c)

Carbon dioxide (CO₂) levels decrease in the lungs

d)

Breathing rate increases significantly

12.

Which of the following best describes what VO₂ max function?

a)

The total volume of air the lungs can hold

b)

ability of circulatory system to deliver O2 to working muscles (cardiac output)

c)

The resting oxygen consumption of the body

d)

The amount of carbon dioxide exhaled per minute

13.

The a-Vo2 difference would function?

a)

ability of circulatory system to deliver O2 to
working muscles (cardiac output)

b)

Ability of working muscles to extract and
utilize that O2 delivere

c)

The amount of carbon dioxide exhaled per minute

d)

The total volume of air the lungs can hold

14.

According to the Fick Equation, which formula correctly expresses VO₂?

a)

VO₂ = HR × SV

b)

VO₂ = CO × a-vO₂ difference

c)

VO₂ = TV × BF

d)

VO₂ = BP × HR

15.

Which of the following factors influence an individual’s VO₂ max?

a)

Genetics, gender, fitness state, body composition, and test protocol

b)

Only training intensity and diet

c)

Age and height only

d)

Resting heart rate and blood pressure

16.

Approximately what percentage of VO₂ max is determined by genetics?

a)

5–10%

b)

10–20%

c)

20–40%

d)

50–70%

17.

What is the value for Vo2 in males?

a)

45 ml/kg/min

b)

40 ml/kg/min

18.

What is the value for Vo2 in females?

a)

45 ml/kg/min

b)

40 ml/kg/min

19.

With an adequate aerobic training program, VO₂ max can typically improve by what percentage?

a)

5–10%

b)

10–15%

c)

15–25%

d)

25–30%

20.

Relative body fat (%BF) is primarily used to:

a)

Measure muscle strength

b)

Classify levels of body fatness

c)

Estimate maximal oxygen uptake

d)

Determine hydration status

21.

Body composition measures can be used to estimate a person’s:

a)
Muscle recovery time and efficiency
b)

Healthy body weight

c)
Daily caloric intake requirements
d)
Dietary preferences and restrictions
22.

For athletes, body composition assessments are often used to:

a)

Estimate competitive body weight

b)

Evaluate coordination skills

c)

Measure muscle flexibility

d)

Determine injury risk

23.

In children and adolescents, body composition measures are helpful for:

a)

Monitoring growth and development

b)

Assessing lung capacity

c)

Measuring anaerobic power

d)

Estimating bone density only

24.

Changes in body composition can be assessed to evaluate the effects of:

a)

Diet and exercise only

b)

Aging, poor diet, and disease status

c)

Environmental temperature

d)

Sleep duration

25.

Whole body =

a)

fat + fat-free body

b)

Muscle + bone

c)

Water + protein

d)

Lean tissue + bone marrow

26.

what is the assumed density of fat?

a)

1.10 g∙cc⁻¹

b)

0.901 g∙cc⁻¹

c)

0.995 g∙cc⁻¹

d)

1.000 g∙cc⁻¹

27.

The assumed density of the fat-free body (FFB) is:

a)

0.901 g∙cc⁻¹

b)

1.00 g∙cc⁻¹

c)

1.10 g∙cc⁻¹

d)

1.20 g∙cc⁻¹

28.

Which of the following represents the assumed proportions of fat-free body (FFB) constituents used in hydrodensitometry?

a)

Water 60%, Protein 25%, Mineral 15%

b)

Water 73.8%, Protein 19.4%, Mineral 6.8%

c)

Water 80%, Protein 15%, Mineral 5%

d)

Water 70%, Protein 20%, Mineral 10%

29.

FFB density is known to vary due to:

a)

Age, sex, ethnicity, physical activity, and %BF

b)

Only diet and hydration

c)

Only height and weight

d)

Time of day and ambient temperature

30.

Variance in FFB density can be caused by:

a)

% water and % mineral within the fat-free body

b)

Only % body fat

c)

Height and weight

d)

Time of day and temperature

31.

The skinfold (SKF) method is considered:

a)

A direct measurement of total body fat

b)

An invasive method that indirectly estimates subcutaneous body fat

c)

A laboratory-only technique

d)

A method measuring bone density

32.

What does the SKF method primarily measure?

a)

Internal fat directly

b)

Total body water

c)

Subcutaneous fat indirectly

d)

Muscle fiber composition

33.

Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis (BIA) is considered:

a)

An invasive method

b)

A noninvasive method

c)

A method that measures body fat directly

d)

A laboratory-only technique

34.

How is total body water (TBW) related to the resistance measured in BIA?

a)

TBW is directly proportional to resistance

b)

TBW is inversely related to resistance

c)

TBW is unaffected by resistance

d)

TBW can only be measured by skinfolds

35.

Anthropometric methods are based on:

a)

Electrical impedance

b)

Body size and proportions

c)

Underwater weighing

d)

Skinfold thickness only

36.

Anthropometric methods can help:

a)

Measure total body water only

b)

Classify disease risk and health status

c)

Directly measure subcutaneous fat

d)

Estimate VO₂ max

37.

BMI value <18.5

a)

Underweight

b)

Normal Weight

c)

Overweight

d)

Obesity

38.

BMI value 18.5-24.9

a)

Underweight

b)

Normal Weight

c)

Overweight

d)

Obesity

39.

BMI value 25-29.9

a)

Underweight

b)

Normal Weight

c)

Overweight

d)

Obesity

40.

BMI value 30-40

a)

Underweight

b)

Normal Weight

c)

Overweight

d)

Obesity

41.

Waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) is primarily used as an:

a)

Direct measure of total body fat

b)

Indirect measure of fat deposition pattern

c)

Measure of skeletal size

d)

Measurement of subcutaneous fat only

42.

Waist-to-height ratio (WHtR) is considered:

a)

A worse indicator of adiposity than waist circumference alone

b)

A better indicator of adiposity than waist circumference alone

c)

Unrelated to fat distribution

d)

Only used in children

43.

How does BIA work?

a)

By taking skinfold measurements

b)

Combination of pairs of sending and receiving electrodes

c)

By weighing the body underwater

d)

By measuring height and weight only

44.

Which of the following are common health risks associated with obesity?

a)

Only hypertension and diabetes

b)

Ischemic heart disease, stroke, dyslipidemia, hypertension, glucose intolerance, diabetes, osteoarthritis, obstructive pulmonary disease, gallbladder disease, some cancers, and menstrual irregularities

c)

Only respiratory and skeletal disorders

d)

Obesity has no significant health risks

45.

Which of the following are common health risks associated with being underweight?

a)

Only low blood pressure and dehydration

b)

Malnutrition, fluid-electrolyte imbalances, osteopenia, osteoporosis, muscle wasting, cardiac arrhythmias, renal and reproductive disorders

c)

Only bone and joint issues

d)

None, being underweight poses no health risks

46.

Approximately how many people worldwide are classified as overweight?

a)

> 600 million

b)

>1.9 billion

c)

>900 million

d)

>2.5 billion

47.

What percentage of adults in the United States are classified as obese?

a)

25.3%

b)

30.0%

c)

36.5%

d)

42.1%

48.

Which type of fat distribution is most strongly associated with increased risk of coronary heart disease (CHD), diabetes, and dyslipidemia?

a)

Subcutaneous fat

b)

Visceral fat

c)

Peripheral fat

d)

Essential fat

49.

Android obesity is characterized by fat accumulation in which region of the body?

a)

Lower body (hips and thighs)

b)

Upper body (abdominal area)

c)

Arms and legs only

d)

Overall even fat distribution

50.

Gynoid obesity refers to fat distribution primarily in the:

a)

Lower body (hips and thighs)

b)

Upper body (abdominal area)

c)

Arms and legs only

d)

Overall even fat distribution

51.

According to WHR guidelines, males are considered at risk if their ratio is greater than:

a)

0.82

b)

0.90

c)

0.94

d)

1.00

52.

According to WHR guidelines, females are considered at risk if their ratio is greater than:

a)

0.75

b)

0.80

c)

0.82

d)

0.90

53.

3,500 kcal =

a)

1 lb

b)

2 lb

c)

5 lb

d)

35 lb

54.

A positive energy balance results in:

a)

Weight loss

b)

Weight gain

c)

No change in body weight

d)

Decreased fat stores

55.

A negative energy balance results in:

a)

Weight loss

b)

Weight gain

c)

No change in body weight

d)

Decreased fat stores

56.

TEE =

a)

RMR x dietary thermogenesis x EAT x NEAT

b)

RMR + dietary thermogenesis + EAT + NEAT

c)

RMR - dietary thermogenesis - EAT - NEAT

d)

RMR / dietary thermogenesis / EAT / NEAT

57.

_______ is the largest contributor to TEE

a)

RMR

b)

EAT

c)

NEAT

58.

Obesity is considered a multifactorial problem because it involves influences from:

a)

Only diet and physical activity

b)

Hormonal, genetic, number of fat cells and environmental factors

c)

Only genetic mutations

d)

One single metabolic factor

59.

Deficiencies in which two genes or hormones have been linked to obesity?

a)

Ghrelin and insulin

b)

Melanocortin-4 receptor and leptin

c)

Cortisol and serotonin

d)

Thyroxine and melatonin

60.

The number of fat cells in the body is:

a)

Entirely fixed at birth and cannot change

b)

Inherited, but can increase with overfeeding

c)

Randomly determined and unaffected by diet

d)

Determined only by genetics

61.

Which of the following are environmental contributors to obesity?

a)

Genes and hormones

b)

Diet and physical activity patterns

c)

Resting metabolic rate and fat cell number

d)

Leptin and insulin levels

62.

Effective weight management should include:

a)

Dieting alone

b)

Exercise only

c)

A combination of proper diet and daily physical activity

d)

Skipping meals and exercising occasionally

63.

150 minutes per week of exercise is: ____ ?

a)

  • Sufficient to prevent weight gain

b)

  • Insufficient to prevent weight gain

c)

  • The maximum recommended amount

d)

Only for athletes

64.

For effective weight loss, weekly exercise should exceed: ____ ?

a)

100 minutes

b)

150 minutes

c)

200 minutes

d)

250 minutes

65.

Frequency for weight loss exercise should be: ____ ?

For weight loss, exercise intensity should be: ____ ?

Recommended exercise time for weight loss is: ____ ?

The primary type of exercise for weight loss should be: ____ ?

a)
  • F-Daily

b)

I-

Moderate, with focus on duration

c)

TI-≥60 minutes

d)

TY-

  • Aerobic exercise

66.

What are the Benefits of Exercise for Weight Loss

a)

Increase energy expenditure

b)

Minimize loss of FFM

c)

Increase GH and catecholamines

d)

Increased aerobic fitness and ability to expend more kcal

e)

Offset diet-induced reduction in RMR

67.

Combination of aerobic and resistance training is: ____ ?

a)

Less effective than aerobic training alone

b)

More effective than either used alone

c)

Only useful for athletes

d)

Ineffective for weight loss

68.

What is the term for abnormal stiffness or immobility of a joint due to fusion of bones?

a)

Hypermobility

b)

Ankylosis

c)

Arthritis

d)

Kyphosis

69.

Which condition refers to excessive joint range of motion beyond the normal limit?

a)

Hypermobility

b)

Ankylosis

c)

Arthritis

d)

Kyphosis

70.

What is flexibility?

a)

Ability to lift heavy weights

b)

Ability to move through a full range of motion (ROM)

c)

Ability to maintain balance

d)

Ability to run long distances

71.

Which statement best describes dynamic flexibility?

a)

Direct measures of ROM

b)

Indirect measures of ROM

c)

Measure resistance during muscle elongation; impractical lab test

d)

Measure muscle strength during contraction

72.

Which option best describes static flexibility?

a)

Ability to move a joint through ROM with speed or movement

b)

Direct measures of ROM and indirect measures of ROM

c)

Measuring resistance during muscle elongation in a lab

d)

Muscle contraction strength at various joint angles

73.

Which of the following lists includes the major factors that affect flexibility?

a)

Diet, hydration, sleep, and stress levels

b)

Joint structure, soft tissue tightness, body composition, age, sex, physical activity, and muscle temperature

c)

Cardiovascular fitness, muscular strength, endurance, and coordination

d)

Genetics, bone density, and blood pressure

74.

Which option correctly describes how joint ROM is measured?

a)

Measure joint ROM by observing movement patterns without tools

b)

Measure joint ROM in degrees using devices such as a goniometer, inclinometers, and inclinometer smartphone apps

c)

Measure joint ROM by testing muscle strength

d)

Measure joint ROM through cardiovascular endurance tests

75.

Which option correctly describes the components of a SMART fitness goal?

a)

Simple, Meaningful, Action-based, Realistic, Timeless

b)

Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Timely

c)

Strategic, Manageable, Active, Reasonable, Time-free

d)

Specific, Moderate, Adaptable, Reliable, Time-limited

76.

A client is beginning a fitness program and needs appropriate pre- and post-testing. Which of the following combinations correctly matches the major fitness components with their common assessment tests?

a)

Cardiovascular: VO2 max (walk/run/cycle)
Resistance: 1RM, 5RM, 10RM
  Flexibility: Sit-and-reach, shoulder, hamstring tests

b)

Cardiovascular: Skinfolds and BMI
  Resistance: Sit-ups and push-ups
  Flexibility: Wingate test

c)

Cardiovascular: Wingate and Margaria-Kalamen tests
  Resistance: VO2 max
  Flexibility: 1RM

d)

Cardiovascular: Blood pressure only
  Resistance: Vertical jump
  Flexibility: BMI

77.

What is the primary purpose of a needs analysis?

a)

To select exercises the trainer prefers

b)

To determine the unique characteristics and demands of the client’s activity or sport

c)

To make workouts longer

d)

To decrease the number of assessments required

78.

Which of the following components should be included when assessing a client or athlete during a needs analysis?

a)

Favorite foods, clothing style, and daily schedule

b)

Physical limitations, lifestyle, exercise history, risk stratification/medications, and exercise/activity assessment

c)

Social media usage, sleep schedule, and personal interests

d)

Height, weight, and eye color

79.

What is the main objective of training for sport performance?

a)

To increase muscle soreness

b)


To improve
performance

c)

To reduce the number of practice sessions

d)

To avoid using energy systems

80.

When designing a training program, how should you match energy systems to sport?

a)

The amount of anaerobic & aerobic practice time should be the same for every sport.

b)

The amount of anaerobic & aerobic practice time should be less than the sport requirement.

c)

The amount of anaerobic & aerobic practice time should be the same as the sport requirement.

d)

The amount of anaerobic & aerobic practice time should be opposite of the sport requirement.

81.

What does the principle of adaptation state about the rate of force development?

a)

The rate of force development is limited and
can’t be forced beyond the body’s capacity for
development

b)

It can be increased indefinitely with enough training

c)

It depends only on the equipment used

d)

It increases only when training is performed daily

82.

Produces only minor physiological adaptation and no
performance improvements.

a)

Under-Training

b)

Acute Overload

c)

Over-Reaching (Chronic Overload)

d)

Overtraining:

83.

Produces positive adaptations with minor
performance improvements.

a)

Under-Training

b)

Acute Overload

c)

Over-Reaching (Chronic Overload)

d)

Overtraining:

84.

The “desired stress phase” that
produces optimal adaptation and significant performance
improvements. It’s also where athletes are closest to crossing into
overtraining.

a)

Under-Training

b)

Acute Overload

c)

Over-Reaching (Chronic Overload)

d)

Overtraining:

85.

The phase to avoid, as it leads to a condition that can
take weeks or months to recover from.

a)

Under-Training

b)

Acute Overload

c)

Over-Reaching (Chronic Overload)

d)

Overtraining:

86.

Which statement best describes the role of recovery in training?

a)

Recovery is optional and does not affect performance

b)

Adaptation takes place during the recovery
period, Incorrect recovery can lead to under or
overtraining

c)

Adaptation occurs only during the workout itself

d)

Recovery only matters for beginners, not advanced athletes

87.

Which of the following are primary objectives of off-season training?

a)

Increase competition intensity and maximize performance immediately

b)

Prevent excessive weight gain, maintain muscle strength and endurance, maintain ligament and bone integrity, and maintain skill level

c)

Only focus on aerobic conditioning

d)

Eliminate all strength training to allow full rest

88.

Which of the following best describes off-season training?

a)

High intensity, low volume, same for all athletes, ignores weaknesses

b)

Critical that training provides variety for the individual, usually high volume and low intensity, allows focus on areas of weakness, and should be designed for the individual

c)

Focuses only on skill practice with no physical conditioning

d)

Random exercises with no structure or plan

89.

What is the main objective of pre-season training?

a)

To maintain current skill level only

b)

To maximize capacities of the predominant energy system used in the sport

c)

To avoid training entirely

d)

To randomly vary exercises

90.

What is the general goal of in-season training?

a)

To drastically increase strength and endurance

b)

To maintain the fitness level developed in the pre-season training program

c)

To focus only on rest and recovery

d)

To completely change the training program

91.

During the in-season, how is resistance training typically handled?

a)

It is eliminated completely

b)

Limited resistance training is performed

c)

High-volume resistance training is the focus

d)

Resistance training is only for beginners

92.

During the in-season, the majority of training time is spent on:

a)

Resistance training

b)

Skill development

c)

General fitness only

d)

Rest and recovery