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WorksheetsBSMS Indiasoc 2025 MODULE 102 pulse check 1
Total questions: 94
Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins
1. Which of these is a characteristic of anatomical position?
Feet touching each other
Arms fully abducted
Palms directed anteriorly
Palms directed posteriorly
Body bent over
2. Which of the following is true about the costotransverse joint?
Tubercle of rib articulates with spinous process of vertebrae
Costal angle of rib articulates with demifacet of adjacent vertebrae
Costal angle of rib articulates with spinous process of vertebrae
Tubercle of rib articulates with transverse process of vertebrae
Tubercle of rib articulates with demifacet of adjacent vertebrae
3. Which muscle is the arrow pointing to?
Internal Intercostal
External Intercostal
Innermost Intercostal
Thoracic muscles
Oblique muscles
4. What is the function of epithelial tissue?
Drives movement & shape changes
Controls transport & fluids, forms barrier (protection)
Communicates signals rapidly
Supports, protects, and repairs structure and shape
Synchronises contraction
5. A 20-year-old student has been running outside on a hot day. Her body temperature rises slightly above normal. The hypothalamus detects this change and triggers sweating and increased blood flow to the skin to help cool her down.
Which type of feedback is controlling her body temperature in this situation?
Positive feedback, because the body increases the rise in temperature
Negative feedback, because the body reverses the rise in temperature
Positive feedback, because sweating continues after cooling
Negative feedback, because the body keeps increasing heat production
Positive feedback, because blood flow to the skin amplifies the heat
6. What stage of the positive feedback loop in childbirth is the “effector”?
Uterus Contracts
Pituitary gland releases oxytocin
Stretch receptors in cervix detect stretch
Baby moves to stretch cervix
Signal to the brain
7. Which fluid compartment is primarily K+ based?
Plasma
Interstitial fluid
Intracellular fluid
Transcellular fluid
None of the above
8. Which of the following statements about the membrane potential (Vm) is correct?
The resting membrane potential changes continuously at rest
The electrical field across the membrane is different for each ion species
Large numbers of ions must move to produce a change in membrane potential
The concentration gradients of ions change dramatically during an action potential
The membrane potential (Vm) depends on an imbalance of positive and negative charges across the membrane
9. Which of the following best describes the direction of the chemical and electrical forces acting on Na⁺ at rest?
Both chemical and electrical forces drive Na⁺ out of the cell
The chemical force drives Na⁺ out, and the electrical force drives Na⁺ in
Both chemical and electrical forces drive Na⁺ into the cell
The chemical force drives Na⁺ in, and the electrical force drives Na⁺ out
Neither force acts on Na⁺ at rest
10. The Human Tissue Authority (HTA) was established in 2005 primarily in response to which of the following events?
The Harold Shipman case
The Bristol heart surgery inquiry
The Mid Staffordshire NHS Trust investigation
The Alder Hey organ retention scandal
The Cambridge Anatomy Ethics Review
11. According to the HTA, which conditions must be met for the use of a deceased person’s body for anatomical examination?
Permission from the family only
A court order allowing use for education
Appropriate consent and registration of death
Consent from a registered medical practitioner
Consent from the Human Tissue Authority
12. A student jokes in the DR with a donated body. Which ethical concern does this behaviour most directly raise?
Lack of professionalism and respect for human dignity
Breach of the Human Tissue Act 2004
Violation of patient confidentiality
Failure to maintain scientific accuracy
Conflict of interest
13. What part of the cell is released by tumour cells when undergoing necrosis?
Mitochondria
Lysozymes
Endoplasmic Reticulum
Golgi Apparatus
Free DNA
14. The Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody is used as a biomarker. What is it used to help diagnose?
Inflammation
Diabetes
Osteoarthritis
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Angiodysplasia
15. Cetuximab is used as a targeted medicine to treat Colorectal cancer. What protein is required for it to work?
K-RAS
Actin
BRAF
PI3K
Collagen
16. Which of these correctly describes the function of lysosomes?
Oxidation of toxic molecules
Contains metabolic pathways
Synthesis of lipids
Oxidative phosphorylation
Intracellular degradation
17. Which is true about Microtubules?
10 nm diameter filaments
Form the spindle in mitosis
Necessary for movement, especially cell surface
Made up of a family of fibrous proteins
May associate with myosin to form powerful contractile structures
18. A patient presents with a severe bacterial skin infection. The area is swollen, painful, and contains pus. Many cells in the affected tissue have ruptured, releasing their contents and causing inflammation.
Which type of cell death is most likely occurring in this infected tissue?
Apoptosis
Autophagy
Necrosis
Phagocytosis
Mitophagy
19. Which of the following correctly describes the structure of DNA?
Triple helix of ribonucleic acid
Double helix of polysaccharides
Single strand of amino acids
Circular molecule with no complementary base pairing
Nucleic acids with complementary strands of nucleotides
20. Which of the following best describes the basic structural unit of chromatin?
A single DNA helix
A histone octamer with DNA wrapped around it
A phospholipid bilayer containing DNA
A ribosome bound to mRNA
A histone-modifying enzyme
21. Epigenetic changes, such as histone modification or DNA methylation, can lead to which of the following?
Heritable changes in gene function
Reversible changes in DNA sequence
Random chromosomal duplication
Errors in mitotic spindle formation
Translation of abnormal proteins due to altered tRNA
22. Which of the following structures is present only in Gram-negative bacteria?
Thick peptidoglycan layer
Lipoteichoic acid
Lipopolysaccharide
Endospore
Capsule
23. Which of the following bacteria would use ZN staining?
Staphylococcus Aureus
Escherichia coli
Streptococcus Pneumonia
Mycobacteria Tuberculosis
Enterococcus faecalis
24. In what phase of bacterial growth do nutrients become depleted?
Death phase
Lag phase
Stationary phase
Exponential phase
Declining phase
25. What is an example of how psychological factors can influence physical health?
a. Increased stress improves immune function
b. Loneliness, and depression can weaken immune responses
c. Social support has no effect on perception of stress
d. Positive moods suppress immune function
e. Prolonged stress enhances immunity
26. What best describes the placebo effect?
A harmful response to an inert treatment
A measurable improvement in health due to treatment efficacy
A measurable improvement in health not attributable to the treatment
The impact of medication on chronic illness
A psychological response to being diagnosed with an illness
27. What is a strength of the biopsychosocial approach to healthcare?
A. It solely focuses on the biological aspects of disease
B. It treats the whole person, including biological, psychological, and social factors
C. It emphasises the social responsibility for health over individual behaviour
D. It disregards the patient's personal and family history in treatment
E. It prioritises the psychological over the physical symptoms
28. What is the nature of DNA replication according to the semi-conservative model?
Each new DNA molecule contains one old and one new strand
Both strands of the new DNA are newly synthesised
The original DNA molecule is conserved, and a new copy is made
Each DNA strand is replicated to form two double helices
DNA replication occurs without the need for a template
29. What type of mutation is associated with Sickle Cell Disease?
Deletion
Insertion
Duplication
Inversion
Substitution
30. Which genetic condition is associated with a defect in UV repair leading to a higher risk of skin cancers?
Werner Syndrome
Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome
Xeroderma pigmentosum
Huntington’s Disease
Cystic Fibrosis
31. Which of the following statements best describes Her2/neu-positive ductal adenocarcinoma of the breast?
A. It is a slow-growing tumor with low metastatic potential
B. It lacks membrane receptor expression and does not respond to targeted therapy
C. It is characterized by overexpression of a growth factor receptor associated with aggressive behavior
D. It typically shows loss of estrogen receptor expression but increased mucin production
E. It is a benign proliferation of ductal epithelial cells without invasion
32. What is the name of the cell membrane of a muscle fiber that maintains membrane potential and transmits action potentials?
A. Sarcomere
B. Sarcoplasm
C. Sacrolemma
D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
E. Transverse tubule
33. Which of the following best describes an aponeurosis?
A. A structure that connects muscle to bone and is contractile
B. A flattened tendon commonly associated with flat muscles
C. A bundle of muscle fibers forming the muscle belly
D. A connective tissue sheath that covers each individual muscle fiber
E. A joint that allows movement between two bones
34. Which of the following best explains the main pathophysiological consequence of compartment syndrome?
A. Increased venous return improves tissue perfusion
B. Increased compartment pressure leads to ischaemia
C. Fascia expands to accommodate swelling, preventing damage
D. Decreased compartment pressure enhances oxygen delivery
E. Fascia primarily functions to reduce arterial flow
35. What is the primary purpose of fixation during tissue preparation?
A) To stain cell nuclei for contrast
B) To replace water with wax for embedding
C) To preserve tissue structure and prevent autolysis
D) To remove lipids and carbohydrates
E) To visualise collagen fibres under polarized light
36. Which of the following is a key feature distinguishing connective tissue from epithelial tissue?
A) Presence of tightly packed cells with minimal extracellular matrix
B) Rich vascular supply and abundant extracellular matrix
C) Absence of protein fibres such as collagen and elastin
D) Presence of a basement membrane separating cell layers
E) Limited capacity for regeneration after injury
37. Which of the following best differentiates exocrine from endocrine glands?
A) Exocrine glands secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream
B) Endocrine glands use ducts to deliver enzymes to body surfaces
C) Exocrine glands secrete via ducts to an epithelial surface
D) Endocrine glands store secretions in extracellular vesicles for exocytosis
E) Both exocrine and endocrine glands lack epithelial origin
38. What is a key component of health promotion that goes beyond individual behaviour change?
Solely enhancing self-efficacy
Focusing only on cognitive factors
Legislative action and government initiatives
Prioritising the COM-B Model exclusively
Emphasising motivational interviewing as the only strategy
39. Which of the following best illustrates a psychological influence on health behaviours according to recent research?
Complete disregard for severity and vulnerability
Adherence to behaviours predicted by health anxiety and perceived efficacy
The belief that only physiological mechanisms affect health
The assumption that health behaviours are entirely instinctual
The focus on treatment paradigms over prevention
40. What is a common limitation of individualistic health behaviour models?
They explain variation in behaviour very well
They account for ambivalence in decision-making
They are typically community-focused rather than individual-focused
They do not deal well with ambivalence towards health behaviours
They are primarily used for explaining sustained behavioural change
41. A 45-year-old gentleman was brought to the outpatient department by his wife. He was bought in with complaints of hearing voices and aggressive behaviour. On physical examination, bilateral atrophic testes and gynecomastia were present. He has previously been diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome. What is the karyotype of Klinefelter syndrome?
X
XXX
XY
XXY
XYY
42. Which of the following orders from left to right describes meiosis correctly?
1x diploid cell, DNA replication, chromosome separation, chromosome separation, 2x identical diploid cells
1x diploid cell, DNA replication, chromosome separation, chromosome separation, 4x identical diploid cells
1x diploid cell, DNA replication, chromosome separation, chromosome separation, 4x different haploid cells
1x diploid cell, DNA replication, chromosome separation, 2x identical diploid cells
1x diploid cell, DNA Replication, chromosome separation, 4x identical diploid cells
43. Which of the following best describes why sickle cell disease is considered an “incomplete” recessive disorder?
A) Both homozygous and heterozygous individuals show identical symptoms.
B) The heterozygous state shows a partial effect of the mutation, not full disease.
C) The mutation affects females but not males due to X-linked inheritance.
D) The heterozygous state results in complete absence of haemoglobin A.
E) Only environmental factors determine the severity of the disease.
44. Which of the following defines a commensal?
An organism which lives on us/ in our gut but doesn’t cause infection
An organism that enters the body, increases in number, and damages the host in the process
An organism commonly found in soil environments
An organism that causes latent infections
An organism that temporarily resides in the host but eventually causes disease when the host's immune system weakens
45. In a laboratory setting, which enzyme is commonly used to differentiate S. aureus from other less pathogenic staphylococcal species?
Catalase
Coagulase
Hemolysin
Streptokinase
Adenylyl cyclase
46. Enterotoxins are secreted by Staphylococcus aureus. What do they do?
Stimulate massive T cell activation
Target the epidermal structural proteins and break them down
They form pores and lyse red blood cells
They form pores and lyse white blood cells
They lyse polymorphs
47. Which of the following best describes immunological tolerance and its physiological importance in maintaining immune system balance?
A. Tolerance refers to the immune system’s heightened reactivity against self-antigens to prevent infection.
B. Tolerance is a state of immunological non-reactivity to specific antigens, preventing responses to self, harmless environmental, and commensal antigens.
C. Tolerance occurs when the immune system responds only to foreign antigens by destroying all commensal organisms.
D. Tolerance is the immune system’s inability to recognize antigens, leading to complete immune suppression.
E. Tolerance describes the immune system’s selective destruction of harmless antigens to maintain homeostasis.
48. In an experiment where a rabbit is first injected with antigen A and later with both antigen A and a new antigen B, what immune response pattern would best demonstrate immunological memory and antigen specificity?
A. A faster and stronger antibody response to both antigens A and B after the second injection
B. A faster and stronger antibody response only to antigen A after the second injection
C. Equal antibody responses to both antigens A and B after the second injection
D. A slower antibody response to antigen A after the second injection
E. Complete absence of antibody response to both antigens after repeated injections
49. A person with an external health locus of control (HLoC) is likely to exhibit which of the following?
Unlikely to take action to protect/promote health
More likely to seek information and initiate and persist with healthy behaviour
Likely to seek/follow professional advice, but less likely to initiate change
Concept of health does not exist for this person
Likely to seek advice from tabloids, and likely to initiate change
50. Which of the following best distinguishes between stereotypes and prejudice?
A. Stereotypes are emotional responses, while prejudice involves cognitive shortcuts about social groups.
B. Stereotypes are generalisations about social groups, while prejudice involves judging individuals based on those stereotypes without sufficient information.
C. Stereotypes and prejudice both refer to factual beliefs about social groups based on evidence.
D. Stereotypes describe individual behaviour, while prejudice describes group-level generalisations.
E. Prejudice is a neutral evaluation, while stereotypes are always negative.
A patient presents to A&E with paraesthesia and overactive reflexes, what would you expect a VBG to show?
Hyponatraemia
Hyperkalaemia
Hypermagnesemia
Hypokalaemia
Hypocalcaemia
2. A Patient presents to A&E with a blood pH of 7.3 (Reference Range = 7.35-7.45), which Organ(s) would correct this change?
Lungs ONLY
Liver ONLY
Liver and Kidneys
Lungs and Kidneys
Lungs, Liver, Kidneys
3. A 55y/o patient is given omeprazole to help with GORD, which of these does omeprazole affect?
Sodium-potassium pump in the gastric parietal cell
H+/K+ ATPase pump
Block passive potassium channels
Cl-/HCO3- cotransporter
Inhibit Carbonic Anhydrase
4. The non-template strand of DNA is called the…?
Coding strand
Non-coding strand
RNA
Complementary strand
Antisense strand
5. Phosphorylation of RNA polymerase II occurs on which region of the enzyme?
N-terminal cap
Promoter-binding site
DNA-binding groove
Catalytic core
C-terminal domain (“tail”)
6. Which of these diseases is caused by antibodies-mediated immunity?
Dengue Fever
HCV
Hepatitis B
Guillain-Barre syndrome
Ebola Virus
7. Which of these is an example of INDIRECT detection?
Viral culture
ELISA Test
Serology
Immunofluorescence Technique
Particle Agglutination Test
8. What medication is given to treat SARS-CoV-2?
Remdesivir
Dexamethasone
Tocilizumab
Hydroxychloroquine
Azithromycin
9. Which of these are part of the axial skeleton?
Clavicle
Scapula
Scaphoid
Sacrum
Ilium
10. What is Vitamin A essential for?
Connective Tissue
Calcium absorption
Endocrine activity
Regulating Calcium and Phosphate levels
Bone remodelling
11. What is the primary function of osteoblasts in bone tissue?
Breaking down bone matrix to release calcium
Producing new bone matrix and facilitating mineralization
Maintaining cartilage in joints
Storing fat in bone marrow
Producing red blood cells
12. How would you describe this imaging?
Sagittal Ultrasound of the Chest
Sagittal MRI of the Chest and Abdomen
Coronal X-Ray of the Chest
Axial X-Ray of the Chest
Axial Ultrasound of the Chest
13. What colour would Gas/ Air be on an X-Ray?
Black
Dark Grey
Grey
White
Bright White
14. Which Cell Layer is responsible for making the Epidermis Waterproof?
Melanocytes
Prickle Cell Layer
Granular Cell Layer
Basal Cell layer
Horn Cell Layer
16. Which one of these can be classified as Simple Epithelium?
Endocervix
Oesophagus
Skin
Ectocervix
Urothelium
17. Which Cell in the skin detects light touch?
Meissner Corpuscles
Pacinian Corpuscles
Merkel Cells
Dermal Papillae
Ruffini’s Endings
18. During Translation Elongation, what does initiator tRNA look for to be able to bind?
GAC
UCG
UUC
UUU
AUG
19. Which of the following can cause congenital deafness?
Mis-sense mutation: codon for glutamic acid (GAG) changed to codon for valine (GTG)
Non-sense mutation: p.GIn39X (Q39X) mutation near the start of exon 2
Insertion mutation: Insertion of multiple base pairs in the coding region of the SLC26A4 gene
Deletion mutation in CFTR gene
Frameshift mutation: c35deIG mutation in the connexin 26 (GJB2) gene
20. Which of these structures can be classified as a tertiary structure?
Beta Barrels
Alpha Helices
Beta-pleated sheets
Loops and Turns
Random Coils
21. What causes Alzheimer’s Disease?
Formation of a-synuclein in the Lewy Bodies
Misfolding of prions
Deletion of phenylalanine in the CTFR Gene
Scar tissue due to ischaemia
Misfolding of amyloid beta plaques and Tau leading to aggregation and formation of neurofibrillary tangles
22. Which enzyme catalyses the formation of a peptide bond?
DNA Polymerase
RNA Polymerase
Peptidyl Transferase
Aminoacyl synthetase
Ligase
23. What type of muscle is shown below?
Skeletal
Smooth
Photosynthetic
Cardiac
Cytoskeletal
24. What type of Epithelium lines the Oesophagus?
Keratinised pseudostratified epithelium
Glandular epithelium
Simple epithelium
Non-keratinising stratified epithelium
Stratified epithelium
25. Which of these is NOT found in the Dermis?
Collagen Fibres
Extracellular Matrix Proteins
Blood vessels
Skin appendages
Adipocytes
1) Which of the following statements is correct about melanocytes?
People with darker skin have a higher proportion of melanocytes
One melanosome delivers melanin to 36 keratinocytes
Melanocytes originate from neural crest cells
Melanocytes provide protection against UV
Melanocyte dendrite tips are phagocytosed by keratin
2) Which of the following cell types inhabits the prickle cell layer?
Stratum spinosum
Granule cells
Cornified cells
Basal cells
Merkel cells
3) What does this image show?
Basal cell carcinoma
Melanoma
Solar elastosis
Congenital naevus
Cutaneous horn
4) Which of these descriptions accurately fits the dermis?
Epithelium of ectodermal origin
Epithelium of mesodermal origin
Connective tissue of ectodermal origin
Connective tissue of mesodermal origin
Epithelium of endodermal origin
5) What is the activated function of Mast Cells?
Killing of antibody-coated parasites
Release of granules containing histamine and other active agents
Phagocytosis and activation of bactericidal mechanisms
Antigen uptake in peripheral sites
Antigen presentation in lymph nodes
6) Given that cytokines are responsible for the signs of systemic inflammation, affecting different tissues, which type of cell signalling is involved when IL-1 and IL-6 is secreted to travel to the liver to activate C-Reactive Protein?
Paracrine
Juxtacrine
Endocrine
Autocrine
Cytokine
7) What do acute-phase proteins secreted by the liver like C-Reactive Protein and Mannose Binding Lectin activate?
Increased antigen processing
Decreased viral and bacterial replication
Phagocytosis
Increased specific immune response
Activation of Complement Opsonization
8) Which of the following best describes Munchausen syndrome?
A genetic disorder that affects the digestive system
A neurological condition characterised by uncontrolled muscle movements
A disorder characterised by feigning or inducing disease in order to assume the patient role
A chronic autoimmune disease affecting the joints and connective tissues
An autoimmune disease that leads to fever, anal fissures, fistulas and rectal bleeding
9) Which of the following does NOT cause Role Stress?
Social Isolation
Inter-group conflict
Unrealistic expectations
Ambiguous expectations
Conflicting expectations
10) Which of the following is NOT an effect of the ‘carer’ role?
Negative effect on physical health
Negative effect on psychological well-being
Own health put off due to caring
Financial challenges
Likely to become alcoholic
11) A 56-year-old man presents to A&E with left sided chest and arm pain due to angina. This occurs when there is inadequate blood flow to the heart muscle. What could be administered to the man to help relieve his pain rapidly?
Statins
Antacids
Antibiotics
Nitroglycerin
Inhaled Nitric Oxide
12) Which of the following statements about Cortisol is FALSE?
It is involved in the stress response
It is a steroid hormone
The glucocorticoid receptor (GR) activates and suppresses gene expression producing both metabolic and inflammatory effects
It is released by the adrenal gland on the kidneys
The glucocorticoid receptor (GR) activates and suppresses gene expression producing both metabolic and anti-inflammatory effects
13) Which type of intercellular signalling works over a long range?
Endocrine signalling
Paracrine signalling
Neuronal signalling
Autocrine signalling
Juxtacrine signalling
14) Which anti-microbial control mechanism interrupts the reservoir link in the chain of transmission?
Assessing Catheterisation Risk
Hand Hygiene
Immunisations
Vector Control
Sharps Disposal
15) How does a droplet differ from an airborne/droplet nucleus?
Droplets can travel to fill a room
Droplets can be artificially generated by aerosols
Droplets >5-10 micrometers in size
Droplets can remain latent in air for long periods of time
Droplets are not affected by gravity
16) A patient presents to the ICU with a high fever, rhinorrhea and a blood pressure of 75/50 mmHg and non-blanching purpuric spots. Given the chain of infection, as the doctor on the ward what are you most concerned about?
Antiviral therapies
Patient Placement
Aseptic Technique
Cough Hygiene
Waste Disposal
17) What is the function of adaptin?
Binds directly to cargo molecules
Binds directly to dynamin
Binds to cargo receptors and interacts with clathrin
Allows for the clathrin-coated vesicle to be pinched off
Removes the signal peptide to be degraded
18) How might a mutation in the production of Ran GTPase affect protein transport?
Glycosylation will not occur
Importin will not be transported out of the nucleus
Unfolded protein response will not be triggered
Importin will not recognise the nuclear localisation signal
Membranes will not be proximal to engage translocation
19) How can one, with accuracy, predict a patient will be showing symptoms of Huntington’s Disease?
Chromosome 4 mutation in the HTT gene confirms it
Polyglutamine residue development
Family tree of Huntington’s Disease
Genetic test the number of CAG trinucleotide repeats
Uncontrollable muscle movements appearing at age 30
20) Should genetic testing be considered in people with familial young onset diabetes?
No - genetic diabetes is extremely rare and not worth genetic testing for
No - it is too expensive to consider routinely
Yes - it means that patients can avoid pregnancy to prevent potential inheritance
Yes - for academic interest so we can best classify diabetes
Yes - it may lead to medication and treatment changes
