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Health Final 2021

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Organisms that cause disease

a)

Are always dead

b)

Are always visible

c)

Are everywhere

d)

Affect only humans

2.

A disease develops

a)

Every time a pathogen enters the body

b)

If your body cannot fight off an infection

c)

If you forget to wash your hands

d)

If you take an antibiotic

3.

A substance that kills or interferes with their function is

a)

Fungus

b)

Vector

c)

Toxin

d)

Protozoan

4.

A communicable disease can be transmitted by

a)

direct contact

b)

airborne transmission

c)

improper food handling

d)

all of the above

5.

Which of the follwowing is NOT a strategy for preventing the risk of spreading communicable diseases

a)

preparing and storing food safely

b)

practicing abstinence from sexual activity

c)

handwashing

d)

avoiding regular physical activity

6.

The most common communicable diseases are

a)

pneumonia

b)

mononucleosis

c)

influenza

d)

respiratory infections

7.

All of the following are common communicable diseases EXCEPT

a)

pneumonia

b)

measles

c)

mononucleous

d)

jaundice

8.

The human papilloma virus causes

a)

Gonorrhea

b)

Chlamydia

c)

Genital warts

d)

Genital herpes

9.

An STD caused by a protozoan is

a)

Syphilis

b)

Trichomoniasis

c)

Chlamyida

d)

Gonorrhea

10.

Which STD may lead to cancer of the liver?

a)

Syphilis

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Chlamydia

d)

Bacterial vaginosis

11.

Almost all cases of cervical cancer are caused by

a)

Human papillomavirus

b)

Herpes simplex virus

c)

Syphilis bacteria

d)

Trichomoniasis

12.

In the United States, the rate of new AIDS cases is

a)

Increasing in the population as a whole

b)

Increasing in teens

c)

The same as it was in 1981

d)

The same in all age groups

13.

HIV can be transmitted through

a)

Food

b)

Blood

c)

Sweat

d)

Insect bites

14.

T cells are

a)

An opportunistic infection

b)

A pathogen

c)

A type of virus

d)

A part of the immune system

15.

As the number of HIV viruses ion the body increases, the

a)

Number of T cells decreases

b)

Immune system grows stronger

c)

Number of T cells remains the same

d)

Body becomes less susceptible to infections

16.

A pregnant woman who is infected with HIV can pass the virus to her baby

a)

While nursing

b)

During childbirth

c)

During pregnancy

d)

All of the above

17.

Viruses and bacteria are types of ____________

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Pathogens

c)

Washing hands

d)

Indirect contact

18.

_________________ are used to treat most bacterial infections.

a)

Indirect contact

b)

Direct contact

c)

Washing hands

d)

Antibiotics

19.

Transmission of a communicable disease by a vector is an example of ____________.

a)

Direct contact

b)

Washing hands

c)

Indirect contact

d)

Pathogens

20.

Transmitting an infection to an unborn baby is an example of _______________.

a)

Direct contact

b)

Indirect contact

c)

Pathogen

d)

Washing hands

21.

____________ is the most effective way to prevent the spread of disease.

a)

Pathogens

b)

Washing hands

c)

Indirect contact

d)

Direct contact

22.

You experience the ___________ when the area around an injury becomes hot, swollen, red, and painful.

a)

Memory cells

b)

Mucous membranes

c)

Immunity

d)

Inflammatory response

23.

___________ are parts of the body’s first line of defense.

a)

Inflammatory response

b)

Mucous membrane

c)

Immunity

d)

Memory cells

24.

The state of being protected against a particular disease is _____________.

a)

Inflammatory response

b)

Mucous membrane

c)

Immunity

d)

Memory cells

25.

Some T cells and B cells become ____________ and give your body long-term protection.

a)

Inflammatory response

b)

Mucous membrane

c)

Immunity

d)

Memory cells

26.

May be used to treat step throat and tuberculosis

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Hepatitis C

c)

Lyme disease

d)

Pneumonia

27.

The most chronic blood-borne infection in the United States is ___________________.

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Hepatitis C

c)

Lyme disease

d)

Pneumonia

28.

Disease that spreads from person to person through sexual contact

a)

Abstinence

b)

Cancer

c)

STD

d)

Refusal strategy

29.

Avoiding harmful behaviors such as sexual activity and drug use

a)

Abstinence

b)

Cancer

c)

Refusal strategy

d)

Using alcohol

30.

Risk behavior for STD’s

a)

Cancer

b)

Refusal strategy

c)

STD

d)

Using alcohol

31.

Consequences of some STD’s

a)

Using alcohol

b)

STD

c)

Refusal strategy

d)

Cancer

32.

Occurrences of disease in which many people in the same place at the same time are affected by the same disease.

a)

PID

b)

Epidemics

c)

Infertility

d)

Symptom

33.

A condition in which an individual is unable to conceive or has difficulty with conceiving a child

a)

Abstinence

b)

Infetility

c)

PID

d)

Symptoms

34.

The only 100% effective way to prevent STD’s

a)

Infertility

b)

Abstinence

c)

PID

d)

Epidemics

35.

STD’s are a hidden epidemic because many people with STD’s do not have ____________.

a)

Symptoms

b)

Infertility

c)

PID

d)

Abstinence

36.

The virus that causes AIDS attackes the ______

a)

Body fluids

b)

Opportunistic infections

c)

Abstinence

d)

Immune system

37.

A (n) ________ can occur when a person has a weakened immune system.

a)

Immune system

b)

Opportunistic infection

c)

Abstinence

d)

AIDS

38.

Infection with HIV can be prevented through __________

a)

Immune system

b)

Opportunistic infections

c)

Abstinence

d)

AIDS

39.

___________ is the advanced stage of HIV infection

a)

Immune system

b)

Opportunistic infections

c)

Abstinence

d)

AIDS

40.

What may occur as a result of cerebral hemmorrhage?

a)

Amnesia

b)

Migraine headaches

c)

Heart attack

d)

Stroke

41.

Your cardiovascular system transports blood to

a)

Your brain

b)

Your limbs

c)

Your lungs

d)

All of the above

42.

Some heart attacks are mistaken for __________

a)

angina pectoris

b)

congestive heart failure

c)

indigestion

d)

stroke

43.

_______ is the biggest risk factor most likely to damage teens' cardiovascular system

a)

angina pectoris

b)

stroke

c)

tobacco use

d)

indigestion

44.

A pain that results when the heart doesn't get enough oxygen

a)

angina pectoris

b)

congestive heart failure

c)

indigestion

d)

stroke

45.

_____________ is the gradual weakening of the heart

a)

angina pectoris

b)

congestive heart failure

c)

indigestion

d)

tobacco use

46.

May occur when arterial blockage interrupts the flow of blood to the brain.

a)

angina pectoris

b)

congestive heart failure

c)

indigestion

d)

stroke

47.

Lymphomas

a)

glands, linings, skin

b)

bones, ligaments, muscles

c)

immune system

d)

blood forming organs

48.

Leukemias

a)

glands, linings, skin

b)

bones, ligaments, muscles

c)

immune system

d)

blood forming organs

49.

Carcinomas

a)

glands, linings, skin

b)

bones, ligaments, muscles

c)

immune system

d)

blood forming organs

50.

Sarcomas

a)

glands, linings, skin

b)

bones, ligaments, muscles

c)

immune system

d)

blood forming organs

51.

Between 5 and 10% of cancers are _________

a)

benign

b)

leading

c)

hereditary

d)

protection

52.

It is estimated that 60% of all cancers can be ___________ through healthy lifestyle choices

a)

benign

b)

prevented

c)

hereditary

d)

protections

53.

Early _____________ is the most critical factor is successful cancer treatment

a)

benign

b)

detection

c)

hereditary

d)

leading

54.

Tumors that grow slowly and do not spread from the original site are _____________

a)

benign

b)

detection

c)

leading

d)

prevented

55.

Lung cancer is the ______________ cause of cancer in the United States

a)

benign

b)

detection

c)

leading

d)

prevented

56.

affect 40-50 million people in the United States

a)

allergies

b)

diabetes

c)

osteoarthritis

d)

rheumatoid arthritis

57.

A disease that is not transmitted by another person, vector, or the environment

a)

Communicable disease

b)

Non-communicable disease

c)

Cardiovascular disease

d)

Cardiac arrest

58.

Disease that affects the heart of blood vessels

a)

cardiovascular disease

b)

non-communicable

c)

hypertension

d)

plaques

59.

High blood pressure that is continually above the normal range for a particular person

a)

diastolic number

b)

atherosclerosis

c)

hypertension

d)

systolic number

60.

Fatty substances in the blood

a)

heart attack

b)

arrhythmias

c)

cardiac arrest

d)

plaques

61.

the process in which plaques accumulate on artery walls

a)

Cardiac arrest

b)

Heart attack

c)

Plaques

d)

Atherosclerosis

62.

Represents the pressure while the heart is beating/contracting

a)

Diastolic number

b)

Heart attack

c)

Systolic number

d)

Cardiac arrest

63.

Occurs due to insufficient blood supply to the heart

a)

arrhythmias

b)

hypertension

c)

cardiac arrest

d)

heart attack

64.

the pressure when the heart is resting between beats

a)

Systolic number

b)

Diastolic number

c)

Atherosclerosis

d)

Plaques

65.

Irregular heartbeats

a)

diastolic number

b)

systolic number

c)

atherosclerosis

d)

arrhythmias

66.

______________ is considered a silent killer because it often has no symptoms in its early stages.

a)

Cardiovascular disease

b)

Asthma

c)

Osteoarthritis

d)

Cancer

67.

Which of the following are ways of lowering your risk of Cardiovascular Disease?

a)

avoid tobacco

b)

be physically active

c)

maintain a healthy weight

d)

all of the above

68.

Which of the following is NOT a way to lower blood pressure?

a)

medication

b)

weight management

c)

proper nutrition

d)

physical inactivity

69.

Which of the following is NOT a controllable risk factor for Cardiovascular Disease?

a)

Tobacco use

b)

High blood pressure

c)

Stress

d)

Age

70.

produces a graph of the electrical activity of the heart

a)

EKG

b)

MRI

c)

Angiography

d)

Medications

71.

What is the purpose of Good Samaritan laws?

a)

To help protect people who voluntarily give care without accepting anything in return

b)

To discourage people from helping others in an emergency situation

c)

To protect people who give care beyond their level of training

d)

None of the above

72.

What should you do if the person does not give consent?

a)

Do not give care but instead call 911 or the local emergency number.

b)

Give care and call 911 or the local emergency number

c)

Give care but do not call 911 or the local emergency number

d)

None of the above

73.

The steps out follow in an emergency are:

a)

Call-Check-Secure

b)

Care-Calll-Check

c)

Check-Call-Care

d)

Check-Care-Defibrillate

74.

For which injury or illness should you call 911 or the local emergency number?

a)

The person who has a cough and runny nose

b)

The person has a stomachache that goes away

c)

The person has an earache

d)

The person has trouble breathing.

75.

All of the following are indications that an emergency has occurred except:

a)

Breaking glass or screeching tires

b)

Children playing and laughing

c)

Screaming or moaning

d)

Strong odors

76.

By following standard precautions to protect yourself and the injured or ill person, you can

a)

Increase the risk of disease transmission

b)

Minimize the risk of disease transmission

c)

Reduce the number of times you need to wear gloves

d)

None of the above

77.

What should you do when checking a conscious person?

a)

Ask questions

b)

Do not touch or move painful, injured areas on the body

c)

Get consent to give care

d)

All of the above

78.

About how many seconds should you check for breathing?

a)

No more than 5

b)

No more than 10

c)

No more than 15

d)

No more than 20

79.

You see a woman collapse in front of you while entering the lobby of your office building. You can check the scene and then check the person for consciousness, but she does not respond. What should you do next?

a)

Call or have someone else call 911 or the local emergency number.

b)

Check for breathing

c)

Drive the person to the hospital

d)

Give 2 rescue breaths

80.

You determine that person may be in shock. Do each of the following except:

a)

Give the person water

b)

Have the person lie down

c)

Keep the person from getting chilled or overheated

d)

Monitor the person’s conditon

81.

When giving a rescue breath during

CPR, each breath should last about:

a)

1/2 second

b)

1 second

c)

3 seconds

d)

4 seconds

82.

If a person is suffering from pain or discomfort in the chest that lasts more than 3-5 minutes or that goes away and comes back, this person is most likely having:

a)

A cold related emergency

b)

A heart attack

c)

A heat related illness

d)

A seizure

83.

The cycle of chest compressions and rescue breaths in CPR is:

a)

15 chest compressions for every 1 rescue breath

b)

15 chest compressions for every 3 rescue breaths

c)

30 chest compressions for every 1 rescue breath

d)

30 chest compressions for every 2 rescue breaths.

84.

You should continue CPR until:

a)

The person shows an obvious sign of life

b)

Another trained responder or EMS personnel take over.

c)

You are too exhausted to continue

d)

All of the above

85.

Which of the following is a link in the Cardiac Chain of Survival?

a)

Early defibrillation

b)

Early CPR

c)

Early recognition and early access to the EMS system

d)

All of the above

86.

It is important to follow the links of the Cardiac Chain of Survival because:

a)

CPR prevents heart attacks

b)

If EMS is called, additional care may not be necessary

c)

It helps improve the chances of survival

d)

With early CPR, most cardiac arrest victims do not need defibrillation.

87.

When you five care to an adult who is conscious and choking, where should you position your fist to give abdominal thrusts?

a)

In the center of the abdomen

b)

In the middle of the abdomen, just above the naval

c)

On the rib cage

d)

Any of the above

88.

Effective chest compressions

a)

Allow the chest to return to its normal position

b)

Are delivered fast, about 100 compressions per minute

c)

Are smooth, regular and given straight up and down

d)

All of the above

89.

About how many cycles of CPR should you perform in 2 minutes?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

5

d)

7

90.

Early CPR is important in the Cardiac Chain of Survival because:

a)

It prevents heart attacks

b)

It helps circulate blood that contains oxygen to the vital organs until an AED is ready to use or advanced medical personnel take over

c)

It helps restart the heart

d)

It prevents the heart from seizing up

91.

What care should you give to a conscious adult or child who is choking and cannot cough, speak or breathe?

a)

Do a foreign object check/removal

b)

Give a slow rescue breathe

c)

Give back blows and abdominal thrusts

d)

Lower the person to the floor and open the airway

92.

Care for a person who is unconscious and has a blocked airway includes:

a)

Giving chest compressions

b)

Looking for an object between compressions and breaths

c)

Pressing on the person’s abdomen about 5 inches deep

d)

Both a and b

93.

Where should you place your hands on an infant when give in chest compressions during CPR?

a)

One hand on the chin and one hand on the chest

b)

One hand on the chin and two or three fingers on the center of the chest

c)

One hand on the forehead and one hand on the chest

d)

One hand on the forehead and two or three fingers on the center of the chest

94.

What should you do for a conscious infant who is choking and cannot cough, cry, or breathe?

a)

Give abdominal thrusts

b)

Give back blow and chest thrusts to clear the airway

c)

Give back blows until the infant starts to cough

d)

Open the infant’s mouth and clear the airway

95.

When giving CPR to an infant, about how deep should you compress the chest:

a)

About 1/2 inch

b)

About 1 inch

c)

About 1 1/2 inches

d)

About 2 inches

96.

When a cardiac arrest occurs and an AED becomes available, it should be used as soon as possible.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

Early CPR and early defibrillation can:

a)

Eliminate the need for advanced medical care

b)

Help recognize when a person is not breathing

c)

Result in more effective CPR

d)

Save the lives of more people in cardiac arrest

98.

Which of the following statements about defibrillation is true?

a)

It is an electrical shock that may help state the heart to resume an effective rhythm to a person in sudden cardiac arrest

b)

It is commonly used on a person complaining of chest pain

c)

It is more likely to be successful if CPR is withheld

d)

It is not a link in the Cardiac Chain of Survival

99.

If, during the second analysis, the AED prompts “no shock advised”, you should

a)

Check the pad placement on the person’s chest

b)

Reset the AED by turning it off for 10 seconds

c)

Resume CPR unit the AED reanalyses or you find an obvious sign of life

d)

Unplug the connector from the machine

100.

What should you do before the AED analyzes the heart rhythm?

a)

Ensure that no one, including you, is touching the person

b)

Ensure that the head-tilt/jaw-thrust is maintained

c)

Ensure that the person is breathing

d)

None of the above

101.

When preparing an AED for use, what is the first thing you should do?

a)

Perform 5 minutes of CPR

b)

Deliver a shock

c)

Stand clear

d)

Turn on the AED

102.

How should you care for someone with minor frostbite on the fingers?

a)

Get the person to a warm environment and then rewarm his or her hands using skin-to-skin contact

b)

Have the person shake his or her hands vigorously until feeling is restored

c)

Immerse his or her hands in hot water

d)

Massage his or her hands vigorously

103.

What is the first step in caring for a wound with significant bleeding?

a)

Add bulky dressings to reinforce blood-soaked bandages

b)

Apply direct pressure with a sterile or clean dressing

c)

Apply pressure at a pressure point

d)

Care for shock

104.

If an open wound continues to bleed after applying direct pressure:

a)

Add additional dressings and continue to apply direct pressure

b)

Do not remove any blood-soaked dressings

c)

Ensure that 911 or the local emergency number has been called

d)

All of the above

105.

How do you care for a person with a possible head, neck, or spinal injury?

a)

Move the injured area so that it rests above the person’s heart

b)

Move the person into a comfortable position as soon as possible

c)

Support the head in the position you find it. Do not try to align it.

d)

None of the above

106.

In stroke recognition, FAST means:

a)

Face, arm, speech and time

b)

Feet, airway, speech and temperature

c)

Fever, anxiety, stress and taste

d)

Flexibility, asthma and sudden tightness in the chest

107.

A young woman is having trouble breathing and, based on your check of the person, you suspect that she is having a severe allergic reaction to a bee sting. What should you do?

a)

After about 15 min, call 911 or the local emergency number

b)

Call 911 immediately and care for the person until EMS personnel take over

c)

Give the person a cold drink

d)

Give the person abdominal thrusts

108.

What is a common signal of sudden illness?

a)

Changes in level of consciousness

b)

Loss of vision or blurred vision

c)

Signals of shock

d)

All of the above

109.

The general care for a muscle, bone or joint injury includes the following

a)

Reduce, insulate, compress and elevate

b)

Rest, ibuprofen, cool and evacute

c)

Rest, immobilize, cold and elevate

d)

None of the above

110.

When caring for a person who is having a seizure, you should

a)

Place a spoon or wallet between the person’s teeth

b)

Remove nearby object that might cause injury

c)

Try to hold the person still

d)

All of the above

111.

What sudden illness is usually caused by a blockage of blood flow to the brain?

a)

Diabetic emergency

b)

Heat-related illness

c)

Seizure

d)

Stroke

112.

This sudden illness results from too much or too little sugar in the person’s blood. What is it?

a)

Diabetic emergency

b)

Heat-related illness

c)

Heart attack

d)

Stroke

113.

Care for a person with heat exhaustion includes the following:

a)

Force the person to quickly drink a lot of water

b)

Get the person out of the heat and into a cooler place

c)

Put more layers of clothing on the person as protection against the heat

d)

All of the above

114.

Heat-related illnesses include the following:

a)

Fainting and hyperglycemia

b)

Heat cramps, heat exhaustion and heat stroke

c)

Heat cramps, stroke and insulin shock

d)

Hypoglycemia and sunstroke

115.

The AED pads should normally be placed on”

a)

The chest and stomach of the person’s torso

b)

The upper left and lower right sides of the chest

c)

The upper right chest and the left side of the chest

d)

The upper right and upper left sides of the chest

116.

Why is it important to stand clear and not touch the person while the AED is analyzing or defibrillating?

a)

The AED will turn itself off

b)

You or someone else could be injured by the shock

c)

You might prevent the AED from analyzing the heart rhythm properly

d)

Both b and c

117.

If the AED pads risk touching each other such as with a small child or an infant you should

a)

Place them as usual. It does not matter if the pads touch each other.

b)

Place one pad on the stomach and one pad on the chest

c)

Reverse the pads’ position on the chest.

d)

Place on pad in the middle of the chest and the other on the back.

118.

Once you have turned on the AED, you should

a)

Apply the pads and allow the AED to analyze the heart rhythm

b)

Check for movement and breathing

c)

Give abdominal thrusts

d)

Give chest compressions

119.

A woman burned her hand in the lunchroom. You should

a)

Cool the burn with large amounts of fresh running water

b)

Cover the burn loosely with a dry, sterile dressing

c)

Remove her from the source of the heat

d)

All of the above

120.

Which type of injury involves an open wound in which the bone has torn through the skin?

a)

Dislocation

b)

Open fracture

c)

Sprain

d)

Strain