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lecture Exam 1

Total questions: 36

Worksheet time: 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the core concepts of biology is defined as "living organisms are interacting and interconnected"?

Note: We gave everyone full credit for this question. We think that all of the answer options, except Structure determines function, could make sense for this question.

a)

  Life is subject to chemical and physical laws (systems)

b)

  Living systems transform energy and matter

c)

  Living systems depend on information transactions

d)

  Evolution explains the unity and diversity of life

e)

  Structure determines function

2.

A biologist is studying many interacting populations in a tropical rainforest in Costa Rica. She is studying _____.

a)

  the biosphere

b)

  an organism

c)

  an ecosystem

d)

  a community

3.

Which of the following processes do we associate with all living organisms? Check all that apply. 

a)

  growth and reproduction

b)

  use energy

c)

  temperature changes

d)

  transmit genetic material

4.

A leaf on a tree represents which level of biological organization?

a)

  ecosystem

b)

  biosphere

c)

  population

d)

  organ

5.

The wing of a bat is used for flying, and the flipper of a dolphin is used for swimming. Evidence from the fossil record indicates that both structures were modified from a front limb that was used for walking in a pre-exisiting ancestor. This is an example of which core concept(s) in biology?

a)

    Structure determines function

b)

 

  Living systems depend on information transactions

c)

  Evolution explains the unity and diversity of life

d)

  Life is subject to chemical and physical laws (systems)

6.

At which level of biological organization would you place a swarm of grasshoppers?

a)

  community

b)

  population

c)

cell

d)

  tissue

7.

Which of the following components could NOT be found in an animal cell?

a)

  lysosome

b)

mitochondria

c)

  cytoskeleton

d)

  cell wall

e)

  vacuole

8.

Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins that will be used within the cell?

a)

  Free ribosomes

b)

  Golgi apparatus

c)

  Rough ER

d)

  Smooth ER

9.

The function of the mitochondria in a cell is to

a)

  sort and package proteins

b)

  synthesize lipids

c)

  synthesize proteins

d)

  make ATP

e)

  house the genetic material for the cell

10.

Prokaryotic cell division in bacteria does NOT involve

a)

  DNA replication

b)

  spindle formation

c)

  separation of daughter cells

d)

  cell elongation

11.

Cytokinesis usually, but not always, follows mitosis. If cells undergo mitosis and not cytokinesis, this would result in

a)

  a cell with a single large nucleus

b)

  a cell with no nucleus

c)

  a cell with two nuclei

d)

  two identical daughter cells

12.

Which of the following events during meiosis contributes to genetic diversity in a population? Check all that apply,

a)

  Cytokinesis

b)

  Crossing over between non-sister chromatids

c)

  Formation of the mitotic spindle

d)

  Replication of chromosomes during Interphase to produce sister chromatids

e)

  Independent assortment of homologous chromosomes

13.

The stage of meiosis in which chromosomes pair and cross over is

a)

  prophase II

b)

  metaphase I

c)

  metaphase II

d)

  anaphase II

e)

  prophase I

14.

At the end of meiosis in a diploid organism, how many alleles per gene are in a single gamete?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

2

d)

1

15.

Suppose that a cell is unable to replicate its DNA. Which of the following would NOT be present in this cell?

a)

  nucleosomes

b)

  homologous chromosomes

c)

  sister chromatids

d)

  centromeres

16.

An animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape (H) and one for tail length (T). Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the following genotypes represents one possible gamete from this organism?

a)

  T

b)

  HhTt

c)

  Ht

d)

  Hh

e)

  tt

17.

What is the probability of having a child with a recessive trait if both parents are heterozygous for the trait?

a)

  19%

b)

  0%

c)

  100%

d)

  50%

e)

  25%

18.

A recessive trait will only be observed in individuals that are ________ for that trait.

a)

  allelic

b)

polygenetic

c)

  homozygous

d)

  heterozygous

19.

The F1 offspring of Mendel's classic pea cross always looked like one of the two parental varieties because

a)

  both alleles affected phenotype expression.

b)

  F1 offspring only receive an allele from one parent.

c)

  one phenotype was completely dominant over another.

d)

  the traits blended together during fertilization.

20.

The form of inheritance where the heterozygous state is expressed as an intermediate (e.g. red and white flowers make pink flowers) is known as __________________.

a)

  sex-linked dominance

b)

  dominant-recessive inheritance

c)

  codominance

d)

  polygenic inheritance

e)

  incomplete dominance

21.

When a homozygous dominant individual is crossed with a homozygous recessive individual, what percentage of the F1 offspring will be heterozygous?

a)

  100%

b)

  50%

c)

  0%

d)

  25%

e)

  75%

22.

For natural selection to result in evolutionary change,

a)

  variation must exist in a population

b)

  All of the choices are correct

c)

  reproductive success of different phenotypes must differ

d)

  variation must be inherited from one generation to the next

23.

This type of reproductive (barrier) isolating mechanism prevents a zygote from developing into a viable and fertile individual.

a)

  sympatric speciation

b)

  postzygotic

c)

  allopatric speciation

d)

  prezygotic

24.

One species of Panamic porkfish (Anisotremus taeniatus) is found in the Pacific Ocean, while another species of porkfish (Anisotremus virginicus) is found in the Caribbean Sea. These two species were derived from ancestral species who population split by the formation of the Isthmus of Panama about 3.5 mya. Before the geological event, the waters mixed freely between the Pacific Ocean and Caribbean Sea. Which mechanism of speciation led to these two distinct species?

a)

  allopatric speciation

b)

  sympatric speciation

c)

  postzygotic isolation

d)

  prezygotic isolation

25.

What phenomenon would violate the conditions for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a)

  Genetic drift is not occurring in the population.

b)

  The population is large.

c)

  The population is isolated from other populations.

d)

  Females select males based on secondary sex traits.

26.

What mechanism leads to changes in allele frequencies due to random chance?

a)

  gene flow

b)

  sexual selection

c)

  natural selection

d)

  genetic drift

27.

Which type of selection results in greater genetic variance in a population?

a)

  stabilizing selection

b)

  diversifying selection

c)

  directional selection

d)

  positive frequency-dependent selection

28.

How many alleles do diploid organisms have for each of their genes?

a)

3

b)

1

c)

2

d)

4

29.

Most Swiss starlings produce four to five eggs in each clutch (the set of eggs laid at a given time). Starlings producing fewer or more than this have reduced fitness. Which of the following terms best describes this situation?

a)

  directional selection

b)

  stabilizing selection

c)

  sexual selection

d)

  diversifying selection

30.

Which of the following conditions must be met for a population to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? Check all that apply.

a)

  No mutations take place

b)

  Mating is not random

c)

  Natural selection is occuring

d)

  No genes are transferred to or from other sources (no migration)

31.

The science of describing, naming and classifying living and extinct species is called

a)

  taxonomy

b)

  binomial nomenclature

c)

  evolution

d)

  phylogeny

32.

What is true about organisms that are a part of the same monophyletic group?

a)

  They evolved from a shared common ancestor and includes all of it descendants

b)

  They all share the same basic characteristics

c)

  They have identical phylogenies

d)

  They usually fall into the same classification taxa

33.

Based on this figure, Humans and Drosophila (flies) last shared a most recent common ancestor around:

a)

  ~550 million years ago

b)

  ~400 million years ago

c)

  ~70 million years ago

d)

  ~100 million years ago

34.

Is a lizard more closely related to a frog or a human?

a)

  A lizard is equally related to a frog and a human.

b)

  A lizard is more closely related to a frog than a human.

c)

  A lizard is more closely related to a human than a frog.

d)

  A lizard is related to a frog, but not a human.

35.

Based on the tree below, which statement is not correct?

a)

  Salamanders are as closely related to goats as to humans.

b)

  The salamander lineage is a basal taxon.

c)

  Salamanders are a sister group to the group containing lizards, goats, and humans.

d)

  Lizards are more closely related to salamanders than to humans.

36.

When grouping organisms, which classification is the most general for a particular type of organism?

a)

  Kingdom

b)

Family

c)

  Domain

d)

Class