WorksheetsFinal Exam Review 2021
Total questions: 69
Worksheet time: 35mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following infections has the potential to eventually destroy the immune system?
a)
HIV
b)
HCV
c)
HPV
d)
HBV
2.
Which of the following should NOT be done when managing a bleeding nose?
a)
Tilting the head back to decrease bleeding
b)
Placing a cold compress over the nose
c)
Lying on the same side as the bleeding septum
d)
Applying finger pressure to the affected nostrils for 5 minutes
3.
Which of the following conditions occurs because of a low concentration of sodium and too much fluid?
a)
Hyponatremia
b)
Hyperthermia
c)
Heat Syncope
d)
Muscle Cramps
4.
A ligament sprain that involves total tearing of the ligament is classified as a ________.
a)
Grade 3 Sprain
b)
Grade 4 Sprain
c)
Grade 1 Sprain
d)
Grade 2 Sprain
5.
What is the heat disorder that is caused by prolonged sweating, diarrhea, and inadequate replacement of body fluid losses?
a)
Heat Exhaustion
b)
Heat Stroke
c)
Heat Cramps
d)
Hypothermia
6.
Which of the following can occur if an athlete who sustained a concussion previously returns to play prior to resolution of the symptoms and then receives another head injury?
a)
Second impact syndrome
b)
Cerebral hyperemia
c)
Postconcussion syndrome
d)
Migraine headaches
7.
When evaluating an unconscious athlete, which of the following steps should be taken?
a)
Look for the possibility of impaired breathing.
b)
Remove any protective equipment such as a helmet.
c)
Roll the athlete face up and start CPR.
d)
Call a physician.
8.
What condition is indicative of an absence of sweating with hot, flushed, dry skin?
a)
Exertional Heat Stroke
b)
Heat Exhaustion
c)
Hypothermia
d)
Heat Cramps
9.
Which of the following is an INCORRECT description of frostnip?
a)
Skin tissue may become gangrenous.
b)
Skin appears very firm, with cold, painless areas.
c)
Peeling or blisters may occur in 24-72 hours.
d)
Frostnip involves the ears, nose, cheeks, fingers, and toes.
10.
You witness someone suddly collapse. The person is unresponsive, you hear gasping sounds, and there is no pulse. What should you do next?
a)
Begin CPR; the gasps are not normal breathing
b)
give rescue breaths only; the gasps are not normal breathing
c)
Begin CPR, even though gasping is normal breathing
d)
monitor the patient; the gasps are considered normal breathing
11.
Which of the following fractures is caused by axial compression, bending, and torsion?
a)
An oblique fracture
b)
A spiral fracture
c)
A depressed fracture
d)
A transverse fracture
12.
When performing chest compressions on an infant, where does the rescuer place two fingers?
a)
Just below the nipple line
b)
At the center of the sternum
c)
Four fingers below the xiphoid process
d)
On the xiphoid process
13.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events when controlling external bleeding?
a)
Apply direct pressure over the wound and elevate the injured body part.
b)
Elevate the injured body part then apply direct pressure over the wound.
c)
Apply pressure on the artery supplying the area with blood and elevate the artery above the heart
d)
Direct pressure is applied on pressure points and then the injured body part is elevated.
14.
Which of the following is NOT a type of heat loss by the body?
a)
Conversion
b)
Conduction
c)
Evaporation
d)
Radiation
15.
Which of the following is true of an orbital fracture of the eye?
a)
It can result in double vision.
b)
It causes hemorrhage around the superior margin of the eye.
c)
It is caused by an object striking the forehead.
d)
It is more common in athletes with nearsightedness.
16.
Management of an avulsed tooth includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
referring immediately to a dentist.
b)
scrubbing the tooth with a sterile gauze pad to get the dirt off.
c)
attempting re-implantation of the tooth in the socket.
d)
placing the tooth in saline solution if unable to re-implant.
17.
When a sprinter runs a 50-yard dash, which structure within the muscle is primarily being used?
a)
Slow-twitch fibers
b)
Fast-twitch fibers
c)
Gogli Tendon Organs
d)
Muscle Spindles
18.
Which of the following statements is true of ballistic stretching?
a)
It is highly effective in improving range of motion because the forces that are generated during stretching are unlikely to lead to any sort of muscle injury.
b)
It involves a bouncing movement in which repetitive contractions of the agonist muscle are used to produce quick stretches of the antagonist muscle.
c)
It is the most effective and widely used technique of stretching in injury rehabilitation of sore or strained muscles.
d)
It involves passively stretching a muscle by placing it in a maximal position of stretch, or its endpoint where there is resistance to stretch, and holding it there for an extended time.
19.
An 8 month old infant is eating and suddenly begins to cought. The infant is unable to make any noise shortly after. You pick up the infant and shout for help. You have determined that the infant is responsive and choking with a severe airway obstruction. How do you relieve the airway obstruction?
a)
Begin 2 thumb encircling hands chest compressions
b)
Give sets of 5 back slaps and 5 chest thrusts
c)
Give abdominal thrusts
d)
Encourage the infant to cough
20.
When moving and transporting an athlete who is suspected to have sustained cervical spine injury, it is important to ________ to prevent further harm to the spinal cord.
a)
use a rapid form vacuum immobilizer
b)
maintain spinal motion restriction
c)
splint the spine with a clear plastic inflatable splint
d)
keep the patient on a spinal board for as long as possible
21.
When performing CPR on an unresponsive choking victim, what modification should you incorporate?
a)
You do not give breaths to an unresponsive choking victim
b)
Each time you open the airway, look for the obstructing object
c)
There are no modifications to CPR for an unresponsive choking victim
d)
Attempt a jaw thrust instead of a head tilt-chin lift
22.
A ________ occurs when at least one bone in a joint is forced completely out of its normal and proper alignment and must be manually or surgically put back into place.
a)
Sprain
b)
Dislocation
c)
Contusion
d)
Subluxation
23.
Which of the following is a contract between an insurance company and a policyholder in which the insurance company agrees to reimburse a portion of the total medical bill after some deductible has been paid by the policyholder?
a)
Product Liability
b)
Health Insurance
c)
Third-party Reimbursement
d)
Liability Insurance
24.
Which of the following is the key to treating tendinitis?
a)
Injecting the area involved with a steroid
b)
Resting the injured area to eliminate irritation to the tendon
c)
Stretching to improve the sliding ability of the tendon
d)
Taking anti-inflammatory medication
25.
Which of the following terms means being legally responsible for the harm one causes another person?
a)
Negligence
b)
Liability
c)
Assumption of Risk
d)
Injury
26.
A 53 year old woman collapses whie gardening. She is unresponsive, is not breathing and does not have a pulse. A neighbor, who is an emergency medical technican, rushes to her with an AED. After the AED pads are attached to the victims bare chest, the AED detects ventricular fibrilation. What is the next step when using an AED?
a)
Check the victim for a carotid pulse
b)
Follow the AED prompts
c)
Press the shock button
d)
Clear the patient
27.
Which of the following conditions occurs 12 hours after injury and is most intense after 24 to 48 hours?
a)
Neuritis
b)
DOMS
c)
Myositis ossificans
d)
Crepitus
28.
A bicep curl using a dumbbell is an example of a(n) ________.
a)
Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation Technique
b)
Isotonic Exercise
c)
Isometric Exercise
d)
Isokinetic Exercise
29.
Which of the following wounds results from the skin being torn from the body?
a)
Laceration
b)
Avulsion
c)
Abrasion
d)
Incision
30.
In the context of legal concerns, which of the following best describes malfeasance?
a)
An individual improperly does something that he or she has the legal right to do.
b)
An individual commits an act that is not legally his or hers to perform.
c)
An individual fails to perform a legal duty.
d)
An individual knowingly harms another person while performing his or her duties.
31.
An athlete has been hit in the head, briefly lost consciousness, and was removed from the game. When can the athlete return to physical activity?
a)
When cleared by the coach
b)
When cleared by a physician
c)
When his or her pupils are no longer dilated
d)
When he or she stops feeling dizzy
32.
Which of the following involves a muscle contraction in which the length of the muscle is changing while the contraction is performed at a constant velocity?
a)
Isometric exercises
b)
Isokinetic exercises
c)
Isodynamic exercises
d)
Isotonic exercises
33.
If an athlete shows any sign of a concussion, all the following should occur EXCEPT:
a)
assessment of concussive injury using SCAT5.
b)
return to play after being asymptomatic for 20 minutes.
c)
rule out cervical injury.
d)
on-site medical evaluation.
34.
What type of fracture is characterized by an incomplete break in a bone that has NOT completely ossified?
a)
An oblique fracture
b)
An impacted fracture
c)
A greenstick fracture
d)
A comminuted fracture
35.
What is the normal pulse and respiratory rate for an adult at rest?
a)
60-80 beats/min and 20 breaths/min
b)
60-80 beats/min and 12 breaths/min
c)
80-100 beats/min and 20 breaths/min
36.
Which type of wound is tetanus associated with?
a)
An abrasion
b)
An avulsion wound
c)
A puncture wound
d)
A laceration
37.
When a storm is near and a person's hair stands on end, the person should:
a)
Lie flat on the ground
b)
Run to shelter immediately
c)
Drop to the ground and assume a crouched position
d)
Wait for lightning in the area
38.
Which of the following parts of the brain controls sleep, posture, respiration, swallowing, and the bladder?
a)
The medulla oblongata
b)
The cerebrum
c)
The pons
d)
The cerebellum
39.
What is a psychrometer used to determine?
a)
Windchill
b)
Humidity
c)
Heat Index
d)
Level of Dehydration
40.
Which of the following terms is defined as the failure to use ordinary or reasonable care?
a)
Assumption of Risk
b)
Liability
c)
Negligence
d)
Torts
41.
How far must the chest be compressed to effectively perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation for an adult?
a)
At least 2.5 inches
b)
At least 1 inch
c)
At least 2 inches
d)
At least 1.5 inches
42.
Hops, bounds, and depth jumps are forms of ________.
a)
Isotonic exercises
b)
Isokinetic exercises
c)
Plyometric exercises
d)
Circuit trainng
43.
Which of the following conditions occurs when a person gets a foreign object in his or her eye and tries to rub it away?
a)
Retinal detachment
b)
Hyphema
c)
Corneal abrasion
d)
Orbital hematoma
44.
A legal wrong that is committed against a person or property of another is known as ________.
a)
A Risk
b)
Negligence
c)
A Tort
d)
A Liability
45.
When giving emergency treatment for a heatstroke victim, what is the most important directive?
a)
Lowering the victim's body temperature by use of cool sponges
b)
Replacing the victim's fluids quickly
c)
Lowering the victim's body temperature by immersing him or her in a tub of ice water and transporting the victim to a hospital via ambulance
d)
Calling an ambulance
46.
Which part of the eye is responsible for the production of tears?
a)
The sclera
b)
The choroid layer
c)
The lacrimal glands
d)
The inner conjunctiva
47.
What is a bloodborne pathogen?
a)
An organism only found in human blood
b)
A disease characterized by the inflammation of the liver
c)
A microorganism that can cause disease
d)
A fluid contaminated with blood
48.
Which of the following stretching techniques is generally used for increasing flexibility?
a)
Static stretching
b)
Dynamic stretching
c)
Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
d)
None of the answers is correct.
49.
What is the main shaft of the bone known as?
a)
Periosteum
b)
Epiphysis
c)
Diaphysis
d)
Articular Cartilage
50.
Which of the following uses a series of exercise stations that consist of various combinations of weight training, flexibility, bodyweight training, and brief aerobic exercises?
a)
Functional Strength Training
b)
Isokinetic Training
c)
Circuit Training
d)
Progressive Resistance Exercise Training
51.
When the ear suffers trauma, tearing of the overlying tissue from the cartilaginous plate may result in fluid accumulation, thus causing:
a)
lobular swelling.
b)
retinal detachment.
c)
cauliflower ear.
d)
hyphema.
52.
Which of the following eye injuries is painless and results in the athlete seeing floating specks, flashes of light, and blurred vision?
a)
Conjunctivitis
b)
Hyphema
c)
Detached retina
d)
Corneal abrasion
53.
When assessing a potentially unconscious athlete, what is the first action that must be taken?
a)
Check the athlete's carotid pulse.
b)
Roll the athlete onto his back.
c)
Determine the level of consciousness and unresponsiveness.
d)
Stop any bleeding that may be severe.
54.
Which of the following establishes minimum standards for equipment that must be met to ensure its safety?
a)
The National Athletic Trainers' Association
b)
The National Association for Safe Sporting Equipment
c)
The National Operating Committee on Standardds for Athletic Equipment
d)
The Occupational Health and Safety Administration
55.
An individual, through expressed or implied agreement, accepts that some risk or danger will be involved in a particular undertaking. This best describes the concept of ________.
a)
Injury
b)
Negligence
c)
Assumption of Risk
d)
Liability
56.
Which of the following types of wounds has smooth edges that can be easily cleaned and pulled together by sutures?
a)
A laceration
b)
An avulsion wound
c)
A puncture wound
d)
An incision
57.
Which of the following involves a muscle contraction in which the length of the muscle remains constant while tension develops toward a maximum force against an immovable resistance?
a)
An isotonic exercise
b)
A progressive resistance exercise
c)
A plyometric exercise
d)
An isometric exercise
58.
Which of the following involves passively stretching a muscle by placing it in a maximal position of stretch, or its endpoint where there is resistance to stretch, and holding it there for an extended time?
a)
Dynamic stretching
b)
Active stretching
c)
PNF stretching
d)
Static stretching
59.
What ratio for compressions to breaths should be used for 1 rescuer infant CPR?
a)
20 compressions to 2 breaths
b)
5 compressions to 1 breath
c)
15 compressions to 2 breaths
d)
30 compressions to 2 breaths
60.
Which of the following bodily fluids does NOT transmit HIV?
a)
Blood
b)
Vaginal Fluid
c)
Semen
d)
Saliva
61.
Which cells lay down extra bone formation over a fracture?
a)
Osteomytes
b)
Osteocytes
c)
Osteoclasts
d)
Osteoblasts
62.
Which of the following complications is a result of repeated blows to the same area?
a)
DOMS
b)
Neuritis
c)
Crepitus
d)
Myositis ossificans
63.
If the intensity of an activity is low enough that the cardiovascular system can supply enough oxygen to continue the activity for long periods, the activity is an ________.
a)
Isometric Activity
b)
Isotonic Activity
c)
Anaerobic Activity
d)
Aerobic Activity
64.
In an effort to accurately assess the extent of a musculoskeletal injury, what is the first step that should be taken?
a)
Observation
b)
History
c)
Special Tests
d)
Palpation
65.
Which of the following fractures is characterized by a bone fragment that has been pulled away from the bone?
a)
An oblique fracture
b)
A blowout fracture
c)
A greenstick fracture
d)
An avulsion fracture
66.
What type of injury occurs when a bone comes partially out of its normal articulation then goes right back into place?
a)
Avulsion Fracture
b)
Stress Fracture
c)
Dislocation
d)
Subluxation
67.
Which of these is NOT a symptom of shock?
a)
Sluggishness or exceptional drowsiness
b)
Rapid and shallow respiration
c)
Ashen and clammy skin
d)
Slow pulse rate
68.
What room is your sports medicine class held?
a)
F134
b)
BB4
c)
Athletic Training Room
d)
BB5
69.
How do you perform chest compressions when providing high-quiality CPR to a child victim?
a)
by compressing the chest at least one fourth the depth of the chest about 1.5 inches (4cm)
b)
by compressing the chest at least one third the depth of the chest, about 2 inchest (5cm)
c)
by compressing the chest at least two thirds the depth of the chest, about 4 inches (10cm)
d)
by compressing the chest at least one half the depth of the chest, about 3 inches (8cm)
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