wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

AUBF MIDTERM EXAM

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following dyes are used in Sternheimer–Malbin stain?

a)

Hematoxylin and eosin

b)

Crystal violet and safranin

c)

Methylene blue and eosin

d)

Methylene blue and safranin

2.

Which of the following statements regarding WBCs in urinary sediment is true?

a)

"Glitter cells” seen in the urinary sediment are a sign of renal disease

b)

Bacteriuria in the absence of WBCs indicates lower urinary tract infection (UTI)

c)

WBCs other than PMNs are not found in urinary sediment

d)

WBC casts indicate that pyuria is of renal, rather than lower urinary, origin

3.

Which description of sediment with Sternheimer–Malbin stain is correct?

a)

Transitional epithelium: cytoplasm pale blue, nucleus dark blue

b)

Renal epithelium: cytoplasm light blue, nucleus dark purple

c)

Glitter cells: cytoplasm dark blue, nucleus dark purple

d)

Squamous epithelium: cytoplasm pink, nucleus pale blue

4.

SITUATION: A 5-mL urine specimen is submitted for routine urinalysis and analyzed immediately. The SG of the sample is 1.012 and the pH is 6.5. The dry reagent strip test for blood is a large positive (3+) and the microscopic examination shows 11–20 RBCs per HPF. The leukocyte esterase reaction is a small positive (1+), and the microscopic examination shows 0–5 WBCs per HPF. What is the most likely cause of these results?

a)

Myoglobin is present in the sample

b)

Free hemoglobin is present

c)

Insufficient volume is causing microscopic results to be underestimated

d)

Some WBCs have been misidentified as RBCs

5.

Which of the following statements regarding epithelial cells in the urinary system is correct?

a)

Caudate epithelial cells originate from the upper urethra

b)

Transitional cells originate from the upper urethra, ureters, bladder, or renal pelvis

c)

Cells from the proximal renal tubule are usually round in shape

d)

Squamous epithelium line the vagina, urethra, and wall of the urinary bladder

6.

Which of the statements regarding examination of unstained sediment is true?

a)

Renal cells can be differentiated reliably from WBCs

b)

Large numbers of transitional cells are often seen after catheterization

c)

Neoplastic cells from the bladder are not found in urinary sediment

d)

RBCs are easily differentiated from nonbudding yeast

7.

Which of the following statements regarding cells found in urinary sediment is true?

a)

Transitional cells resist swelling in hypotonic urine

b)

Renal tubular cells are often polyhedral and have an eccentric round nucleus

c)

Trichomonads have an oval shape with a prominent nucleus and a single anterior flagellum

d)

Clumps of bacteria are frequently mistaken for blood casts

8.

Which of the following statements regarding RBCs in the urinary sediment is true?

a)

Yeast cells will lyse in dilute acetic acid but RBCs will not

b)

RBCs are often swollen in hypertonic urine

c)

RBCs of glomerular origin often appear dysmorphic

d)

Yeast cells will tumble when the cover glass is touched but RBCs will not

9.

Renal tubular epithelial cells are shed into the urine in largest numbers in which condition?

a)

Malignant renal disease

b)

Acute glomerulonephritis

c)

Nephrotic syndrome

d)

Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection of the kidney

10.

The ova of which parasite may be found in the urinary sediment?

a)

T. vaginalis

b)

Entamoeba histolytica

c)

Schistosoma hematobium

d)

Trichuris trichiura

11.

Oval fat bodies are often seen in

a)

Chronic glomerulonephritis

b)

Nephrotic syndrome

c)

Acute tubular nephrosis

d)

Renal failure of any cause

12.

All of the following statements regarding urinary casts are true except:

a)

Many hyaline casts may appear in sediment after jogging or exercise

b)

An occasional granular cast may be seen in a normal sediment

c)

Casts can be seen in significant numbers even when protein tests are negative

d)

Hyaline casts will dissolve readily in alkaline urine

13.

Which condition promotes the formation of casts in the urine?

a)

Chronic production of alkaline urine

b)

Polyuria

c)

Reduced filtrate formation

d)

Low urine SG

14.

The mucoprotein that forms the matrix of a hyaline cast is called:

a)

Bence–Jones protein

b)

β-Microglobulin

c)

Tamm–Horsfall protein

d)

Arginine-rich glycoprotein

15.

“Pseudocasts” are often caused by:

a)

A dirty cover glass or slide

b)

Bacterial contamination

c)

Amorphous urates

d)

Mucus in the urine

16.

Which of the following statements regarding urinary casts is correct?

a)

Fine granular casts are more significant than coarse granular casts

b)

Cylindruria is always clinically significant

c)

The appearance of cylindroids signals the onset of end-stage renal disease

d)

Broad casts are associated with severe renal tubular obstruction

17.

A sediment with moderate hematuria and RBC casts most likely results from:

a)

Chronic pyelonephritis

b)

Nephrotic syndrome

c)

Acute glomerulonephritis

d)

Lower urinary tract obstruction

18.

Urine sediment characterized by pyuria with bacterial and WBC casts indicates:

a)

Nephrotic syndrome

b)

Pyelonephritis

c)

Polycystic kidney disease

d)

Cystitis

19.

Which type of casts signals the presence of chronic renal failure?

a)

Blood casts

b)

Fine granular casts

c)

Waxy casts

d)

Fatty casts

20.

When examining urinary sediment, which of the following is considered an abnormal finding?

a)

0–2 RBCs per HPF

b)

0–1 hyaline casts per low-power field (LPF)

c)

0–1 renal cell casts per LPF

d)

2–5 WBCs per HPF

21.

SITUATION: A urine sample with a pH of 6.0 produces an abundance of pink sediment after centrifugation that appears as densely packed yellow- to reddish-brown granules under the microscope. The crystals are so dense that no other formed elements can be evaluated. What is the best course of action?

a)

Request a new urine specimen

b)

Suspend the sediment in prewarmed saline, then repeat centrifugation

c)

Acidify a 12-mL aliquot with three drops of glacial acetic acid and heat to 56°C for 5 minutes before centrifuging

d)

Add five drops of 1N HCl to the sediment and

22.

How can hexagonal uric acid crystals be distinguished from cystine crystals?

a)

Cystine is insoluble in hydrochloric acid but uric acid is soluble

b)

Cystine gives a positive nitroprusside test after reduction with sodium cyanide

c)

Cystine crystals are more highly pigmented

d)

Cystine crystals form at neutral or alkaline pH, uric acid forms at neutral to acidic pH

23.

The presence of tyrosine and leucine crystals together in a urine sediment usually indicates:

a)

Renal failure

b)

Chronic liver disease

c)

Hemolytic anemia

d)

Hartnup disease

24.

Which of the following crystals is considered nonpathological?

a)

Hemosiderin

b)

Bilirubin

c)

Ammonium biurate

d)

Cholesterol

25.

At which pH are ammonium biurate crystals usually found in urine?

a)

Acid urine only

b)

Acid or neutral urine

c)

Neutral or alkaline urine

d)

Alkaline urine only

26.

Which of the following crystals is seen commonly in alkaline and neutral urine?

a)

Calcium oxalate

b)

Uric acid

c)

Magnesium ammonium phosphate

d)

Cholesterol

27.

Which crystal appears in urine as a long, thin hexagonal plate, and is linked to ingestion of large amounts of benzoic acid?

a)

Cystine

b)

Hippuric acid

c)

Oxalic acid

d)

Uric acid

28.

Small yellow needles are seen in the sediment of a urine sample with a pH of 6.0. Which of the following crystals can be ruled out

a)

Sulfa crystals

b)

Bilirubin crystals

c)

Uric acid crystals

d)

Cholesterol crystals

29.

Oval fat bodies are derived from:

a)

Renal tubular epithelium

b)

Transitional epithelium

c)

Degenerated WBCs

d)

Mucoprotein matrix

30.

Oval fat bodies are often associated with:

a)

Lipoid nephrosis

b)

Acute glomerulonephritis

c)

Aminoaciduria

d)

Pyelonephritis

31.

Urine of constant SG ranging from 1.008 to 1.010 most likely indicates:

a)

Addison’s disease

b)

Renal tubular failure

c)

Prerenal failure

d)

Diabetes insipidus

32.

Which of the following characterizes prerenal failure, and helps to differentiate it from acute renal failure caused by renal disease?

a)

BUN:creatinine ratio of 20:1 or higher

b)

Urine:plasma osmolal ratio less than 2:1

c)

Excess loss of sodium in the urine

d)

Dehydration

33.

Which of the following conditions characterizes chronic glomerulonephritis and helps to differentiate it from acute glomerulonephritis?

a)

Hematuria

b)

Polyuria

c)

Hypertension

d)

Azotemia

34.

Which of the following conditions is seen in acute renal failure and helps to differentiate it from prerenal failure?

a)

Hyperkalemia and uremia

b)

Oliguria and edema

c)

Low creatinine clearance

d)

Abnormal urinary sediment

35.

Which of the following conditions characterizes acute renal failure and helps to differentiate it from chronic renal failure?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hematuria

c)

Cylindruria

d)

Proteinuria

36.

The serum concentration of which analyte is likely to be decreased in untreated cases of acute renal failure?

a)

Hydrogen ions

b)

Inorganic phosphorus

c)

Calcium

d)

Uric acid

37.

Which of the following conditions is associated with the greatest proteinuria?

a)

Acute glomerulonephritis

b)

Chronic glomerulonephritis

c)

Nephrotic syndrome

d)

Acute pyelonephritis

38.

Which of the following conditions is often a cause of glomerulonephritis?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Cytomegalovirus infection

c)

Systemic lupus erythematosus

d)

Heavy metal poisoning

39.

Acute pyelonephritis is commonly caused by:

a)

Bacterial infection of medullary interstitium

b)

Circulatory failure

c)

Renal calculi

d)

Antigen–antibody reactions within the glomeruli

40.

All of the following are common characteristics of the nephrotic syndrome except:

a)

Hyperlipidemia

b)

Hypoalbuminemia

c)

Hematuria and pyuria

d)

Severe edema

41.

Which of the following conditions is a characteristic finding in patients with obstructive renal disease?

a)

Polyuria

b)

Azotemia

c)

Dehydration

d)

Alkalosis

42.

Whewellite and weddellite kidney stones are composed of:

a)

Magnesium ammonium phosphate

b)

Calcium oxalate

c)

Calcium phosphate

d)

Calcium carbonate

43.

Which of the following abnormal crystals is often associated with formation of renal calculi?

a)

Cystine

b)

Ampicillin

c)

Tyrosine

d)

Leucine

44.

Which statement about renal calculi is true?

a)

Calcium oxalate and calcium phosphate account for about three-fourths of all stones

b)

Uric acid stones can be seen by x-ray

c)

Triple phosphate stones are found principally in the ureters

d)

Stones are usually comprised of single salts

45.

Alkaptonuria, a rare hereditary disease, is characterized by the urinary excretion of

a)

Alkaptone

b)

Phenylalanine

c)

5-Hydroxyindole acetic acid

d)

Homogentisic acid

46.

A 22-year-old female clinical laboratory student performs a urinalysis on her own urine as part of a lab class. Significant results include: color = yellow; appearance = cloudy; pH = 7.5; nitrite = positive; leukocyte esterase - 2+; 25^0 WBC/hpf; 0-3 RBC/hpf; 2-5 squamous epithelial cells/hpf; moderate bacteria. All other chemistries and microscopic results were normal. These findings suggest

a)

Glomerulonephritis

b)

Upper urinary tract infection

c)

Lower urinary tract infection

d)

Nephrolithiasis

47.

Metastatic carcinoid tumors arising from the enterochromaffin cells of the gastrointestinal tract are characterized by increased excretion of urinary

a)

Serotonin

b)

5-Hydroxytryptophan

c)

Homogentisic acid

d)

5-Hydroxyindole acetic acid

48.

Some clinical conditions are characterized by unique urinalysis result patterns. Which of the following shows such a relationship?

a)

Nephrotic syndrome: positive protein on reagent strip, negative protein with sulfosalicylic acid

b)

Intensive dieting: increased ketones, negative glucose

c)

Multiple myeloma: positive protein by both reagent strip and sulfosalicylic acid

d)

Cystitis: positive nitrite and protein

49.

Nitrite in a urine specimen suggests the presence of

a)

White blood cells

b)

Red blood cells

c)

Bacteria

d)

Yeasts

50.

Phenylketonuria may be characterized by which of the following statements?

a)

It may cause brain damage if untreated

b)

It is caused by the absence of the enzyme, phenylalanine oxidase.

c)

Phenylpyruvic acid excess appears in the blood

d)

Excess tyrosine accumulates in the blood

51.

Which of the following systems utilizes polyelectrolytes to determine the specific gravity of urine?

a)

Refractometer

b)

Osmometer

c)

TS meter

d)

Reagent strip

52.

Which urinalysis reagent strip test will never be reported out as "negative"?

a)

Protein

b)

Urobilinogen

c)

Bilirubin

d)

Nitrite

53.

Which of the following is a true statement?

a)

Renal tubular cells originate from the renal pelvis.

b)

Red blood cells in acid urine (pH 4.5) will usually be crenated because of the acidity

c)

Bacteria introduced into a urine specimen at the time of the collection will have no immediate effect on the level of nitrite in the specimen

d)

Pilocarpine iontophoresis is the method of choice for the collection of pericardial fluid.

54.

Which of the following is a routine analysis test for the presence of ketone bodies in urine?

a)

Rothera's test

b)

Gmelin's test

c)

Sulphosalicylic acid test

d)

Hay's test

55.

Turbidity in the urine sample indicates

a)

pus

b)

blood

c)

bacteria

d)

all of the above

56.

Eosinophil count: >1%

a)

Acute Interstitial Nephritis

b)

UTI

c)

Renal Transplant Rejection

d)

Normal

57.

Glitter cell

a)

NEUTROPHIL

b)

EOSINOPHIL

c)

LYMPHOCYTE

d)

SWOLLEN MONOCYTE

58.

Seen in ethylene glycol poisoning

a)

Dihydrate CaOx

b)

Monohydrate CaOx

c)

Both

d)

Neither

59.

Crystals seen in liver failure except?

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Leucin

c)

Tyrosine

d)

Ampicillin

60.

Fatty cast can be seen in

a)

Nephrotic syndrome

b)

Toxic tubular necrosis

c)

DM

d)

All of the choices

e)

None of the choices

61.

Seen in Acute Interstitial Nephritis

a)

RBC

b)

Eosinophils

c)

Bacteria

d)

RBC and Bacteria

e)

RBC and Eosinophils

62.

The presence of this compound may indicate liver disease

a)

bilirubin

b)

hemoglobin

c)

ammonia

d)

intact RBCs

63.

Which of the following is the pigment that gives urine its characteristic color

a)

hemoglobin

b)

biliverdin

c)

homogentisic acid

d)

urochrome

64.

Hyposthenuria is urine with

a)

consistently low specific gravity

b)

consistently high specific gravity

c)

normal specific gravity

d)

specific gravity of 1.000

65.

Which of the following is the best way to perform the chemical exam

a)

dipping the dipstick, then standing it upright and reading

b)

submerging the dipstick in the urine for 1 minute then reading

c)

quickly submerging the dipstick and removing excess urine, then placing horizontally to read

d)

all answers are acceptable

66.

This is a test to screen for UTIs

a)

bilirubin

b)

ketones

c)

leukocyte esterase

d)

pH

67.

Which of the following tests screen for diabetes mellitus?

a)

bilirubin/urobilinogen

b)

ketones/glucose

c)

nitrite/leukocyte esterase

d)

blood/specific gravity

68.

In reporting SSA turbidity, distinct turbidity is seen with no granulation:

a)

1+

b)

2+

c)

3+

d)

4+

69.

In reporting SSA turbidity, turbidity is seen with granulation but without flocculation

a)

1+

b)

2+

c)

3+

d)

4+

70.

The parameter in the reagent strip which utilizes Ehrlich units is:

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Urobilinogen

c)

Glucose

d)

Leukocytes

71.

Ascorbic acid causes false negative reactions in the following urine reagent strip except?

a)

Blood

b)

Bilirubin

c)

Leukocytes

d)

pH

72.

Ascending sequence of casts:

a)

Waxy-hyaline-coarsely granular-finely granular-cellular

b)

Coarsely granular-finely granular-hyaline-waxy-cellular

c)

Hyaline-cellular-coarsely granular-finely granular-waxy

d)

Cellular-hyaline-finely granular-coarsely granular-waxy

73.

Normal urinary crystal which is colorless, resembling flat plates or thin prisms often in rosette form:

a)

Amorphous phosphates

b)

Struvite

c)

Apatite

d)

Calcium carbonate

74.

Manner of reporting for RTE cells:

a)

Average number per LPF

b)

Average number per HPF

c)

Average number per OIO

d)

1+, 2+, 3+, 4+

75.

Transitional epithelial cells seen in urine specimens may be reported using rare/few/moderate/many by using the

a)

Scanner field

b)

Low power field

c)

High power field

d)

Oil immersion field

76.

A renal calculi described as very hard, dark in color with rough surface:

a)

Calcium oxalate

b)

Uric acid

c)

Cystine

d)

Phosphate

77.

Renal disease whose etiology is the deposition of anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody to glomerular and alveolar basement membranes:

a)

Berger’s disease

b)

Wegener’s granulomatosis

c)

Goodpasture syndrome

d)

Membranous glomerulonephritis

78.

The purpose of the Hansel stain is to identify:

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Monocytes

c)

Renal tubular cells

d)

Eosinophils

79.

Blue diaper syndrome is associated with

a)

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

b)

Hartnup disease

c)

Alkaptonuria

d)

Dubin-Johnson syndrome

80.

Which of the following statements regarding WBCs in urinary sediment is true?

a)

“Glitter cells” seen in the urinary sediment are a sign of renal disease

b)

Bacteriuria in the absence of WBCs indicates lower urinary tract infection (UTI)

c)

WBCs other than PMNs are not found in urinary sediment

d)

WBC casts indicate that pyuria is of renal, rather than lower urinary, origin

81.

Which type of casts signals the presence of chronic renal failure?

a)

Blood casts

b)

Fine granular casts

c)

Waxy casts

d)

Fatty casts

82.

Whewellite and weddellite kidney stones are composed of

a)

Magnesium ammonium phosphate

b)

Calcium oxalate

c)

Calcium phosphate

d)

Calcium carbonate

83.

A strong odor of cabbage in a urine specimen could indicate:

a)

Methionine malabsorption

b)

Trimethylaminuria

c)

Phenylketonuria

d)

Tyrosyluria

84.

Which of these plasma substances is NOT normally filtered through the glomerulus in significant amounts?

a)

Creatinine

b)

Glucose

c)

Urea

d)

Protein

85.

Which of the following can give a false negative urine protein reading?

a)

contamination with vaginal discharge

b)

heavy mucus

c)

presence of blood

d)

very dilute urine

86.

Upon standing at room temperature, a urine pH typically

a)

decreases

b)

increases

c)

remains the same

d)

changes depending on the bacterial concentration

87.

Polarized light can be often be used to differentiate between

a)

fibers and mucus clumps

b)

hyaline and waxy casts

c)

squamous and transitional epithelial cells

d)

red blood cells and white blood cells

88.

Which of the following contaminant has a dimpled center and will polarize?

a)

starch

b)

oil droplets

c)

air bubbles

d)

pollen grains

89.

Bacteria re considered significant in the urine sediment when the

a)

nitrate is positive

b)

protein is positive

c)

specimen is cloudy

d)

leukocyte is positive

90.

Which of the following positive chemical reactions is most closely associated with the presence of yeast in the urine sediment?

a)

nitrite

b)

protein

c)

glucose

d)

blood

91.

A 21 year old woman had glucose in her urine with normal blood sugar. These findings are most consistent with:

a)

renal glycosuria

b)

diabetes mellitus

c)

diabetes insipidus

d)

alkaline tide

92.

Following ingestion of ethylene glycol(antifreeze) numerous crystals are found in the urine. The shape of these crystals is:

a)

flat with notched corners

b)

oval/dumbbell

c)

coffin-lid

d)

rosettes/rhomboid

93.

After warming, a cloudy urine clears, This is due to the presence of:

a)

urates

b)

phosphates

c)

WBCs

d)

bacteria

94.

Which of the following crystals may be found in acidic urine?

a)

calcium carbonate

b)

calcium oxalate

c)

calcium phosphate

d)

triple phosphate

95.

Using polarized light microscopy, which of the following urinary elements are birefringent?

a)

cholesterol

b)

triglycerides

c)

fatty acids

d)

neutral acids

96.

The possibility of detecting glitter cells is associated with urine that is

a)

acidic

b)

dilute

c)

alkaline

d)

concentrated

97.

Hyaline casts are usually found in:

a)

in the center of the coverslip

b)

under subdued light

c)

under very bright light

d)

in the supernatant

98.

A 2 year old child had positive urine ketone. This would most likely be caused by:

a)

vomiting

b)

anemia

c)

hypoglycemia

d)

biliary tract obstruction

99.

Which of the following reagents is used to react with ketones in the urine?

a)

sodium nitroprusside

b)

acetoacetic acid

c)

acetone

d)

beta-hydroxybutyric acid

100.

A reagent strip area impregnated with stabilized, diazotized 2, 4 dichloroaniline will yield a positive reaction with:

a)

bilirubin

b)

hemoglobin

c)

ketones

d)

urobilinogen

Similar Resources on Wayground

Biology Advanced Semester One Review

95 questions

Biology Advanced Semester One Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade - University

GEOL1301 Final Exam Review

100 questions

GEOL1301 Final Exam Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Energy Test Review

99 questions

Energy Test Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade - University

Atwood CBA 1

104 questions

Atwood CBA 1

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th Grade - University

4th BATCH LONG QUIZ

100 questions

4th BATCH LONG QUIZ

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

PPPK GURU KELAS

100 questions

PPPK GURU KELAS

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

GEN ED SCIENCE

100 questions

GEN ED SCIENCE

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

POST TES CVS

99 questions

POST TES CVS

quiz

Worksheet

•

University