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Final #1 (Anatomy)

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The spinothalamic tract conducts impulses

a)

from the thalamus to the cerebral cortex

b)

up the spinal cord to the thalamus

c)

down the spinal cord from the thalamus

d)

that stimulate movements in skeletal muscles

2.

The salts that form tiny crystals in the intercellular matrix of bone tissue consist largely of

a)

calcium phosphate

b)

calcium chloride

c)

calcium carbonate

d)

calcium sulfate

3.

Which of the following is NOT included in the appendicular skeleton?

a)

pectoral girdle

b)

vertebral column

c)

upper limbs

d)

pelvic girdle

4.

Cervical vertebrae can be distinguished from other types by the presence of

a)

tranverse foramina

b)

tranverse processes

c)

articulating processes

d)

vertebral foramina

5.

Which of the following is not a method for helping prevent pressure ulcer formation?

a)

massaging the skin

b)

eating foods rich in proteins

c)

providing adequate fluid intake

d)

maintaining one body position

6.

Pressure ulcers are usually associated with skin overlying

a)

bony projections

b)

skeletal muscles

c)

a thick layer of fat

d)

nerve fibers

7.

Neurotransmitters are stored in vesicles within

a)

myofibrils

b)

motor units

c)

motor end plates

d)

motor neuron endings

8.

An infant's responses to stimuli are coarse and undifferentiated because nerve fibers

a)

have not yet appeared

b)

are incapable of carrying impulses

c)

have not yet developed connections to the brain

d)

are not completely myelinated

9.

Which of the following increase the risk of developing osteoporosis?

a)

low intake of dietary calcium

b)

lack of physical exercise

c)

frequent use of alcoholic beverages

d)

All of the choices are correct

10.

When a neuron becomes more excitable as a result of incoming subthreshold stimulation, it is said to be

a)

facilitated

b)

amplified

c)

converged

d)

diverged

11.

Which of the following is a normal response to excessive loss of body heat in a cold environment?

a)

Dermal blood vessels become constricted

b)

Sweat glands become inactive

c)

Skeletal muscles contract involuntarily

d)

All the choices are correct

12.

Drugs that decrease membrane permeability to sodium

a)

are used as local anesthetics

b)

prevent nerve impulses from passing

c)

cause a loss in the perception of pain

d)

All the choices are correct

13.

When a nerve fiber is polarized, the concentration of

a)

sodium and potassium ions is higher on the inside of its membrane

b)

sodium and potassium ions is higher on the outside of its membrane

c)

sodium ions is higher on the inside of its membrane and potassium ions is higher on the outside

d)

sodium ions is higher on the outside of its membrane and potassium ions is higher on the inside

14.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the person most likely to develop a cutaneous carcinoma?

a)

over forty years of age

b)

often works and plays outdoors

c)

light-complexioned skin

d)

All of the choices are correct

15.

Compared to skeletal muscle, smooth muscle

a)

contracts more slowly and relaxes more slowly

b)

contracts more slowly and relaxes more rapidly

c)

contracts more rapidly and relaxes more slowly

d)

contracts more rapidly and relaxes more rapidly

16.

An example of a partial but sustained contraction would be

a)

muscle tone

b)

tetany

c)

twitch

d)

all of the choices are correct

17.

In a recording of a muscle twitch, the delay between the time a stimulus is applied and the time the muscle responds is called the

a)

refractory period

b)

relaxation period

c)

latent period

d)

contraction period

18.

The complex network network of tiny islands of gray matter within the brain that activates the cerebral cortex to a state of wakefulness is the

a)

denate nucleus

b)

reticular formation

c)

limbic system

d)

corpora quadrigemina

19.

Masses of myelinated nerve fibers appear

a)

white

b)

gray

c)

brown

d)

transparent

20.

The zygomatic arch is composed of processes of the

a)

zygomatic and temporal bones

b)

zygomatic and maxilla bones

c)

maxilla and temporal bones

d)

temporal and parietal bones

21.

Skin cells paly an important role in the production of

a)

vitamin A

b)

vitamin B

c)

vitamin D

d)

vitamin E

22.

The enzyme cholinesterase causes acetylcholine to

a)

Bind to actin

b)

be secreted from the motor end plate

c)

decompose

d)

from cross bridges

23.

The joints between the vertebrae of the backbone are best described as

a)

immovable

b)

slightly movable

c)

freely movable

d)

synovial

24.

The all-or-none response means

a)

all of the muscles in a region contract together

b)

all of the muscle fibers within a muscle contract together

c)

when a muscle fiber contracts, it contracts completely

d)

when a muscle fiber contracts, all of its ATP is changed

25.

A sarvomere is best described as

a)

a portion of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

b)

the cytoplasm of a muscle fiber

c)

a group of myofibrils

d)

a unit within a myofibril

26.

A cleft palate results from incomplete development of the

a)

palatine bones

b)

maxillae

c)

mandible

d)

vomer bone

27.

Acne is a disorder involving the

a)

sweat glands

b)

hair follicles

c)

sebaceous glands

d)

apocrine glands

28.

Activities such as swimming and running are most likely to stimulate development of

a)

slow, fatigable muscle fibers

b)

fast, fatigable muscle fibers

c)

slow, fatigable-resistant muscle fibers

d)

fast, fatigable-resistant muscle fibers

29.

Myofibrils are composed primarily of

a)

actin and myosin

b)

ATP and ADP

c)

troponin

d)

tropomyosin

30.

Epidermal cells are supplied with nutrients from blood vessels located in the

a)

epidermis

b)

dermis

c)

subcutaneous layer

d)

All of the choices are correct

31.

The subcutaneous layer is located

a)

above the epidermis

b)

between the epidermis and dermis

c)

within the dermis

d)

beneath the dermis

32.

Rigor mortis that occurs in skeletal muscles a few hours after death is due to

a)

excessive ATP, which prevents muscle relaxation

b)

lack of ATP, which prevents muscle relaxtion

c)

excessive ATP, which causes muscle contraction

d)

none of the choices are correct

33.

The discoloration and swelling that many accompany a muscle strain is due to

a)

torn muscle fibers

b)

separated tendons

c)

severed nerves

d)

ruptured blood vessels

34.

Skin cancer cells are most likely to develop from

a)

pigmented epithelial cells

b)

pigmented melanocytes

c)

nonpigmented epithelial cells

d)

nonpigmented melanocytes

35.

During an action potential, repolarization occurs as a result of

a)

potassium ions diffusing to the outside of the cell membrane

b)

potassium ions diffusing to the inside of the cell membrane

c)

sodium ions diffusing to the outside of the cell membrane

d)

sodium ions diffusing to the inside of the cell membrane

36.

Most bone cancers increase the activity of

a)

osteoblasts

b)

osteoclasts

c)

both osteoblasts and osteoclasts

d)

neither osteoblasts and osteoclasts

37.

When a muscle undergoes atrophy in response to disuse,

a)

there is a reduction in capillary networks

b)

the number of mitochondria decreases

c)

the size of actin and myosin filaments decreases

d)

all of these occur

38.

Which of the following is not correct concerning the skin?

a)

The dermis is usually thicker than the epidermis

b)

The epidermis is composed of stratified squamous epithelium

c)

The subcutaneous layer is between the dermis and epidermis

d)

The dermis contains smooth muscle and nerve tissue

39.

The part of the brain that functions to coordinate voluntary muscle movements is the

a)

cerebrum

b)

brain stem

c)

cerebellum

d)

corpus callosum

40.

A coxal bone includes the

a)

ilium

b)

ischium

c)

pubis

d)

All of the choices are correct

41.

The hard palate is composed of the

a)

sphenoid and ethmoid bones

b)

nasal conchae and vomer bones

c)

zygomatic and lacrimal bones

d)

maxillae and palatine bones

42.

The phrenic nerves arise from the

a)

cervical plexuses

b)

brachial plexuses

c)

lumbar plexuses

d)

sacral plexuses

43.

Red bone marrow functions in the formation of

a)

red blood cells only

b)

white blood cells only

c)

red and white blood cells only

d)

red and white blood cells and and platelets

44.

Bone that develops between sheetlike layers of connective tissue is called

a)

endochondral bone

b)

intramembranous bone

c)

cartilaginous bone

d)

osteoclastic bone

45.

The pressure of cerebral spinal fluid is usually measured by introducing a hollow needle into the

a)

cervical vertebrae

b)

thoracic vertebrae

c)

lumbar vertebrae

d)

none of the choices are correct

46.

The degenerative joint disease osteoarthritis may develop as a result of softening of the

a)

articular cartilage

b)

diaphysis

c)

epiphyseal disk

d)

periosteum

47.

The botulinus toxin that causes botulism acts by

a)

preventing the release of acetylcholine

b)

promoting the release of acetylcholine

c)

causing acetylcholine to be decomposed

d)

preventing the decomposition of acetylcholine

48.

When the smooth muscles in the walls of dermal blood vessels contract

a)

the vessels become dilated

b)

body heat in conserved

c)

more blood enters the dermis

d)

body temperature tends to drop

49.

The amount of oxygen needed to support the conversation of lactic acid to glucose is called the

a)

refractory quantity

b)

oxygen debt

c)

anaerobic concentration

d)

aerobic conversion

50.

Which of the following are adrenergic fibers?

a)

parasympathetic postganglionic fibers

b)

sympathetic postganglionic fibers

c)

parasympathetic preganglionic fibers

d)

sympathetic preganglionic fibers

51.

Which of the following is part of the facial skeleton

a)

parietal bone

b)

maxillary bone

c)

sphenoid bone

d)

temporal bone

52.

Cutaneous carcinomas are most commonly caused by exposure to

a)

X rays

b)

gamma radiation

c)

ultraviolet light

d)

mutagenic chemicals

53.

In the case of a subdural hematoma resulting from a blow to the head, blood accumulates between the

a)

dura mater and the skull

b)

dura mater and the arachnoid mater

c)

Pia mater and brain

d)

arachnoid mater and brain

54.

A motor unit includes

a)

muscle fibers only

b)

motor neurons only

c)

several motor neurons and one muscle fiber

d)

several muscle fibers and one motor neuron

55.

Which of the following is included in the pectoral girdle

a)

os coxa

b)

sternum

c)

sacrum

d)

scapula

56.

A sternal puncture is often employed to obtain a sample of

a)

fibroblasts

b)

osteoblasts

c)

blood-forming tissue

d)

yellow bone marrow

57.

In the central nervous system, myelin is formed by

a)

Schwann cells

b)

oligodendrocytes

c)

astrocytes

d)

microglial cells

58.

Which of the following bones is not included within the lower limb

a)

ulna

b)

femur

c)

tibia

d)

fibula

59.

As cells are pushed from the deeper portion of the epidermis toward the surface

a)

they divide continually

b)

their supply of nutrients improves

c)

they tend to die

d)

they become derma cells

60.

Eccrine sweat glands

a)

are most common in the armpits and groin

b)

respond primarily to evaluated body temperature

c)

respond primarily to emotional stress

d)

usually are associated with hair follicles

61.

Cutaneous melanomas seem most commonly to be caused by

a)

relatively short exposure to high intensity sunlight

b)

prolonged exposure to low intensity sunlight

c)

occasional exposure to X rays

d)

exposure to background radiation

62.

By producing hormone-like substances that influence the development of certain white blood cells, the skin plays a role in

a)

immunity

b)

excretion

c)

circulation

d)

respiration

63.

The blood vessels that supply skin cells are found in the

a)

epidermis alone

b)

epidermis and dermis

c)

dermis alone

d)

dermis and subcutaneous layer

64.

Multiunit smooth muscle

a)

is composed of sheets of muscle cells

b)

tends to displays rhythmicity

c)

occurs in the walls of the stomach and intestines

d)

None of the choices are correct

65.

Which of the following is NOT a step in the formation of endochondral bone

a)

Hyaline cartilage develops into the shape of the future bone

b)

Periosteum forms connective tissue on the outside of the developing bone

c)

Hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue

d)

Osteoblasts deposit osseous tissue in place of disintegrating cartilage

66.

Which of the following is NOT a type of neuroglial cell

a)

astrocyte

b)

oligodendrocyte

c)

ependymal cell

d)

Nissl cell

67.

Amphetamines have stimulating effects on the nervous system because they

a)

block the action of norepinephrine

b)

cause the release of norepinephrine

c)

block the normal uptake of norepinephrine

d)

increase the uptake of norepinephrine

68.

Injections that are administered into the tissues within the skin are called

a)

subcutaneous

b)

intradermal

c)

intramuscular

d)

hypodermic

69.

The skin functions to

a)

retard water loss from deeper tissues

b)

excrete waste substances

c)

regulate body temperature

d)

all of the choices are correct

70.

The impulse that triggers a contraction travels deep into a muscle fiber by means of

a)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

b)

transverse tubules

c)

mitochondria

d)

motor end plates

71.

The drug caffeine stimulates the activity of the nervous system by

a)

exhausting the supply of neurotransmitters

b)

stabilizing neuron membranes

c)

lowering the thresholds at synapses

d)

interfering with the actions of sodium ions

72.

Within the meninges, cerebrospinal fluid occupies the

a)

lumbar enlargement

b)

gray commissure

c)

epidural space

d)

subarachnoid space

73.

Which of the following lists the parts of a reflex arc in the correct sequence

a)

receptors, sensory neuron, motor neuron, interneuron, effector

b)

effector, receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, interneuron

c)

effector, sensory neuron, receptors, interneuron, motor neuron

d)

receptors, sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron, effector

74.

The microscopic bony chambers that house mature bone cells are called

a)

lacunae

b)

osteonic canals

c)

osteonic systems

d)

communicating canals

75.

An osteocyte is a

a)

bone building cell

b)

bone destroying cell

c)

bone cell surrounded by matrix

d)

bone marrow cell

76.

A muscle cramp is likely due to lack of

a)

actin

b)

myosin

c)

ATP

d)

ADP

77.

The cells that produce the shaft of a hair are

a)

epithelial cells

b)

fibrous connective tissue cells

c)

loose connective tissue cells

d)

adipose tissue cells

78.

The nerve fibers scattered throughout the dermis are associated with

a)

muscles

b)

glands

c)

sensory receptors

d)

all of the choices are correct

79.

Creatine phosphate serves to

a)

cause the decomposition of ATP

b)

cause the decomposition of ADP

c)

supply energy for the synthesis of ATP

d)

supply energy for the change of ATP to ADP

80.

The increase in the number of motor units activated when the intensity of stimulation increases is called

a)

latency

b)

recruitment

c)

threshold stimulation

d)

all-or-none response

81.

ADP molecules on the surface of actin serve as active sites for the formation of cross bridges with molecules of

a)

ATP

b)

myosin

c)

troponin

d)

tropomyosin

82.

The dermis is composed largely of

a)

fibrous connective tissue

b)

loose connective tissue

c)

epithelial tissue

d)

adipose tissue

83.

The regulation of body temperature is of vital importance because

a)

it remains close to 37o C

b)

slight shifts in temperature can disrupt the rates of metabolic reactions

c)

it is the product of chemical reactions

d)

the skin plays an important role in homeostasis

84.

The cells responsible for removing excess bone tissue after the fracture repair process are

a)

fibroblasts

b)

chondrocytes

c)

osteoblasts

d)

osteoclasts

85.

Ischemic cell change is caused by a lack of

a)

sodium ions

b)

potassium ions

c)

oxygen

d)

carbon dioxide

86.

Which of the following is most closely associated with the diencephalon

a)

thalamus

b)

cerebral aqueduct

c)

cerebral peduncles

d)

red nucleus

87.

The main function of melanocytes is to

a)

remove dead cells by phagocytosis

b)

help control body temperature

c)

protect deeper cells from sunlight

d)

produce vitamin D

88.

The cytoplasmic extensions that provide the main receptive surfaces for neurons are

a)

neurofibrils

b)

Nissl fibers

c)

axons

d)

dendrites

89.

Arthroscopy is a procedure used to examine the

a)

heart

b)

lungs

c)

joints

d)

None of the choices are correct

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