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Cellular Processes Past exams

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The plasma membrane of a cell is a phospholipid bilayer. What portion of the phospholipid is on the outer surface of the cell?

a)

the hydrophobic portion

b)

the alpha-helical portion

c)

the hydrophilic portion

d)

the delta loop portion

2.

Which of the following is NOT true about an enzyme

a)

they are consumed in the reaction

b)

they catalyze a reaction

c)

they lower the energy activation

d)

all of these are truw

3.

Which of the following CANNOT be determined from a Michaelis-Menten plot?

a)

the VMax

b)

the Km

c)

the effective substrate concentration range

d)

all of these can be determined

4.

Sam makes an inhibitor drug that binds the enzyme in the same pocket as the precursor protein. What kind of inhibitor is the drug?

a)

Non-competitive

b)

competitive

c)

isotopic

d)

none of these

5.

Bri told us a news story about nerve cell repair. What was the reagent used for repair?

a)

a nanobot that responded to a magnet

b)

a new enzyme configuration

c)

an upregulated gene using CRISPR

d)

An amino acid-based drug

6.

sophia's news story revealed that scientists have found a gene product that is more prevalent in cancer cells with ruptured cell nuclei. What gene product did she mention?

a)

Trex-1

b)

TRAP-2

c)

Trbl-5

d)

mTOR-3

7.

Which category of enzymes can be described as joining two molecules together with covalent bonds?

a)

Ligases

b)

Isomerases

c)

Lyases

d)

Transferases

8.

What type of enzyme is responsible for phosphorylation?

a)

phosphatases

b)

kinases

c)

oxidoreductases

d)

phosphodiesterases

9.

Hydrolysis of GTP can act as an important molecular switch. Which is NOT true about how this switch works?

a)

GTP binds to a protein

b)

GTP is hydrolyzed to make GDP

c)

bound GDP is phosphorylated to make GTP

d)

GDP leaves the protein

10.

Which of the following can get through the phospholipid bilayer without the aid of a transport protein?

a)

amino acids

b)

CO2

c)

NA+

d)

glucose

11.

Which movement of a phospholipid takes the most energy?

a)

lateral diffusion

b)

flip-flop

c)

rotation

d)

flexion

12.

Which of these is a technique that can prove that membrane proteins move within the phospholipid bilayer?

a)

ultracentrifuge

b)

gel electrophoresis

c)

fluorescence recovery after photobleaching

d)

TEM

13.

Every cell has an electrical gradient across its plasma membrane. Which of the following would NOT change this gradient?

a)

movement of glucose across the membrane

b)

movement of sodium ions across the membrane

c)

movement of potassium ion across the membrane

d)

movement of protons across the membrane

14.

what determines ion channel specificity?

a)

amino acid side chains in the pore

b)

ion charge

c)

electrochemical gradients

d)

lipid bilayer concentration

15.

this organelle contains oxidative enzymes that convert fatty acids to sugars

a)

lysosomes

b)

peroxisome

c)

rough endoplasmic reticulum

d)

ribosomes

16.

if a protein is made in the cytosol, what does it need in order to get transported into the nucleus?

a)

just a nuclear localization signal sequence (NLS)

b)

an NLS AND a nuclear transport receptor

c)

both items in B AND a voltage-gated ion channel translocator

d)

just a nuclear transport receptor

17.

Which of the following is NOT a step in endocytosis

a)

cargo binds to receptors

b)

receptors recruit dynamin

c)

adaptin recruit clathrin

d)

dynamin helps pinch off vescile

18.

Which two proteins must interact in order for a vesicle's contents to be exocytosed?

a)

V-SNARE and Z-SNARE

b)

C-SNARE and T-SNARE

c)

T-SNARE and V-SNARE

d)

C-SNARE and Z-SNARE

19.

What voltage-gated ion channel plays a big role in getting neurotransmitter-containing vesicles to release their content?

a)

sodium

b)

calcium

c)

potassium

d)

chloride

20.

which of the following is NOT a mode of gating ion channels?

a)

voltage

b)

ligase

c)

ligand

d)

mechanical

21.

how is resting membrane potential maintained?

a)

the sodium channels

b)

the potassium channels

c)

the sodium/chloride pump

d)

the sodium/potassium pump

22.

which phospholipid is more prevalent in the outer leaflet of the cell membrane

a)

phosphatidylserine

b)

phosphatidylethanolamine

c)

phosphatidylcholine

d)

phosphatidylinositol

23.

What protein helps maintain the lateral register of the muscle sarcomere and prevent overstretch?

a)

myosin

b)

actin

c)

alpha-actinin

d)

titin

24.

How does the protein "know" which parts are supposed to be in the membrane?

a)

It has a hydrophobic start and stop sequences

b)

it has nuclear transport receptor motifs

c)

it will always be a beta-sheet

d)

it has an ER signal sequence

25.

You're working for a big Pharma and they have asked you to test a new drug they've created that is supposed to inhibit calcium ion channels by binding to one of its cytoplasmic loops. Which patch clamping patch would be the most efficient one for you to use to test this drug?

a)

whole cell

b)

inside-out patch

c)

outside-out patch

d)

cell attached

26.

How wide is the average ribosome?

a)

2um

b)

10nm

c)

20nm

d)

10um

27.

which of the following is the proper descending order of prefixes for measurement?

a)

micro - milli - pico - nano - femto

b)

nano - pico - micro - femto - milli

c)

milli - micro - nano - pico - femto

d)

femto - milli - nano - micro - pico

28.

how wide is the average mitochondria?

a)

2 um

b)

10 nm

c)

10 nm

d)

10 um

29.

True or false? Only green plant and bacterial cells are photosynthetic

a)

true

b)

false

30.

model genetic organisms are used a lot in cell biology research. Which of the following is yeast?

a)

Drosophila melanogaster

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Saccharomyces cerevisiae

d)

Caenorhabditis elegans

31.

Which of the following relationships is INCORRECT?

a)

amino acids --- peptide bonds --- protein

b)

Fatty acid chains --- ionic bonds --- nearby fatty acid chains

c)

Monosaccharides --- glycosidic bonds --- carbohydrates

32.

Which element is most prevalent in the organisms?

a)

H

b)

O

c)

C

d)

N

33.

Which model organism is a vertebrate with transparent embryos?

a)

C. elegans

b)

S. cerevisiae

c)

D. rerio

d)

E. coli

34.

Which of the following is not true about the Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum?

a)

It's a site of polysaccharide synthesis

b)

It's a site of protein synthesis

c)

It's a membrane is continuous with the nucleus membrane

d)

most transmembrane proteins are made there

35.

What type of chemical reaction is most commonly used to build up biomolecule chains?

a)

phosphorylation

b)

condensation/dehydration

c)

hydrolysis

d)

keto-enol tautomerization

36.

Which of the following model genetic organism is a tiny, fast growing plant?

a)

Arabidopsis thalania

b)

Drosophilia melangaster

c)

Caenorhabditis elegans

d)

Danio rerio

37.

What type of bond links together sugars in a disaccharide?

a)

phosphodiester

b)

peptide

c)

glycosidic

d)

hydrogen

38.

which chemical bond/force type is the weakest?

a)

hydrogen

b)

covalent

c)

ionic

d)

van der Waals

39.

Which of the folling is the Central Dogma of Cell and Molecular Biology?

a)

protein --- mRNA --- DNA

b)

mRNA --- DNA --- protein

c)

DNA --- mRNA --- protein

d)

DNA --- protein --- mRNA

40.

In which organelle in the cell do proteins go in, get decorated, packaged and shipped out?

a)

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

b)

Nucleus

c)

Golgi Apparatus

d)

Nucleolus

41.

In which organelle is rRNA synthesized?

a)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

b)

nucleus

c)

golgi apparatus

d)

nucleolus

42.

Which chemical bond/force type takes 90kcal/mol to break?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Covalent

c)

Ionic

d)

Van de Waals

43.

In the "How we Know" that you read about the Cdc2 gene, what was able to rescue the mutant DNA phenotype in S. pombe?

a)

healthy S. cerevisiae Cdc2 protein

b)

healthy human Cdc2 DNA

c)

both of these

d)

none of these

44.

Which of the following is NOT part od the structure of an amino acid?

a)

an amino end

b)

a carbonyl end

c)

an alpha carbon

d)

all of these are parts

45.

What distinguishes a triacylglycerol from a phospholipid?

a)

beta carbon placement

b)

fatty acid saturation

c)

number of fatty acid chains

d)

different side chains

46.

In our Patrick paralyzed case, Patrick had a loss of function mutation in a gene for an enzyme that converts pyruvate to acetyl CoA. What enzyme is responsible for this reaction?

a)

Pyruvate phosphatase

b)

pyruvate lipase

c)

pyruvate kinase

d)

pyruvate dehydrogenase

47.

In the Patrick case, what built up in Patrick's muscles?

a)

acetyl CoA

b)

Lactic acid

c)

succinyl CoA

d)

glucose

48.

Knowing what you now know about Patrick's case and how nutrients enter the energy cycles, which nutrient type would Patrick's cells most readily metabolize without negative consequences?

a)

sugar

b)

lipids/fats

c)

proteins

d)

starch

49.

what's special about endocrine signaling compared to the other types of cell signaling?

a)

it's cell to cell contact-dependent

b)

it utilizes the bloodstream

c)

it's a special relationship between neighboring cells

d)

it requires coupling with the nervous system

50.

when activated by its signal molecule, which G alpha leads to an eventual increase in diacylglycerol?

a)

Gas

b)

Gat

c)

Gaq

d)

Gai

51.

When activated by its signal molecule, which G alpha leads to an eventual increase in cAMP?

a)

Gas

b)

Gat

c)

Gaq

d)

Gai

52.

which of the following is NOT a type of cytoskeletal filament?

a)

actin

b)

myosin

c)

intermediate filaments

d)

microtubules

53.

What is the most abundant protein, whose responsibility is to "fix" carbon from carbon dioxide?

a)

Crisco

b)

Rubisco

c)

San Francisco

d)

None of these

54.

Which cytoskeletal filament system comprises the "highways" next to which the ER exists?

a)

Actin

b)

intermediate filaments

c)

microtubules

d)

myosin

55.

how many protofilaments come together to make a microtubule?

a)

2

b)

8

c)

9

d)

13

56.

what cellular process uses ferrodoxin NADP reducatase?

a)

Cell cycle

b)

apoptosis

c)

photosynthesis

d)

respiration

57.

The reaction A + B --- C + D proceeds spontaneously in the forward direction, therefore the reaction of A + B has a Gibbs free energy that is:

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

neutral

d)

none of these

58.

What are the products of mitochondria that can be used by chloroplast?

a)

CO2 + C6H1206

b)

O2 + H2O

c)

H20 + CO2

d)

O2 + CO2

59.

The Gibbs free energy equation takes into account entropy, enthalpy, and what?

a)

time

b)

temperature

c)

charge

d)

ionic strength

60.

The high energy phosphate bond in ATP is ___ and ___ energy to break the bond

a)

easy to break, releases

b)

hard to break, releases

c)

hard to break, requires

d)

easy to break, requires

61.

You've now learned two different electron transport chains that involve cytochrome-based proteins. Which of these is the cytochrome "flavor" used in photosynthesis?

a)

Cytochrome C

b)

cytochrome oxidase

c)

cytochrome bc-1

d)

cytochrome b6-f

62.

What 3 carbon molecule comes out of the Calvin cycle before they combine to make glucose?

a)

NADPH

b)

Glyceraldehyde 3- phosphate

c)

pyruvate

d)

glucocorticotropin

63.

Which of the following is NOT a product of the anterior pituitary gland?

a)

Growth hormone

b)

prolactin

c)

adrenocorticotrophic hormone

d)

Antidiuretic hormone

64.

If a patient is having problems with thyroid hormone levels, it could be a problem with their thyroid, but what other gland could also be most likely responsible?

a)

adrenal

b)

pineal

c)

pituitary

d)

pancreas

65.

Which of the following is NOT a way in which a signal transduction cascade can be regulated?

a)

receptor subtype

b)

feedback loops

c)

second messenger availability

d)

all of these are regulatory possibilites

66.

Which cytoskeletal filament uses GTP for polymerization?

a)

actin

b)

intermediate filaments

c)

microtubules

d)

myosin

67.

Which cytoskeletal filament is the biggest with a diameter of 25 nm?

a)

actin

b)

intermediate filament

c)

microtubules

d)

myosin

68.

According to Maddie's cell news presentation what was surprising to find out about what brain cells do for a few hours post mortem?

a)

they create a lot of ATP

b)

their gene expression goes up

c)

their temperature goes up by several degrees

d)

the golgi is the first organelle to die

69.

According to Ski's news report, what two organisms have been recently investigated for their genetic differences and similarity?

a)

dragonflies and damselflies

b)

otters and beavers

c)

sharks and whales

d)

earthworms and nematodes

70.
Which enzyme has the job of unzipping the double helix?
a)
Helicase
b)
Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primerase
71.
What are the gaps between the newly synthesized DNA on the lagging strand called?
a)
Okazaki fragments
b)
Polymer gaps
c)
Helicase fragments
d)
Acidic gaps
72.
Polymerase is able to replicate the new DNA ______ along the leading strand.
a)
continuously
b)
only in short fragments
c)
very slowly
d)
prokaryotically
73.
Sometimes, DNA is called "semi-conservative." Why might this be?
a)
The old strand is "conserved" and used to make the new strands
b)
Uracil is "conserved" in that it is only used to make the new strands
c)
ATP is "conserved" via the usage of facilitated diffusion
d)
Ligase is "conserved" in that it is denatured by the process
74.

Enzyme that connects the DNA to the backbone (glues)

a)

Ligase

b)

Polymerase

c)

Helicase

d)

Primase

75.

#1 in the picture above (builder)

a)

Helicase

b)

Primase

c)

Polymerase

d)

Ligase

76.

​What gray enzyme in the picture is shown removing the RNA primer?

a)

DNA ligase

b)

DNA Polymerase

c)

Exonuclease

d)

RNA Primase

77.
The nucleic acid DNA is composed of
a)
sugar, protein, and nitrogenous bases.
b)
protein, nitrogenous bases, and phosphate.
c)
nitrogenous bases, phosphate, and RNA.
d)
sugar, phosphate, and nitrogenous bases.
78.

The disc shaped protein core that DNA wraps around is called

a)

histone

b)

nucleosome

c)

chromatin

d)

gene

79.

Direction that DNA is READ?

a)

3' to 5'

b)

5' to 3'

80.

Structure C is

a)

helicase

b)

primase

c)

DNA polymerase III

d)

gyrase

81.

Structure G is

a)

primase

b)

gyrase

c)

DNA polymerase III

d)

DNA polymerase I

82.

what are the three components (enzymes and proteins) needed for the first step of DNA synthesis?

a)

Helicase

b)

DNA gyrase

c)

DNAse

d)

single-stranded binding proteins

83.
removes the RNA primer and adds DNA nucleotides to fill in the gap
a)
DNA polymerase III
b)
ligase
c)
primase
d)
DNA polymerase I
84.
DNA found at the end of each chromosome is called a:
a)
Telomere
b)
Centromere
c)
Kinetochore
d)
Histone
85.
The process by which the genetic code of DNA is copied into a strand of RNA is called
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
transformation
d)
replication
86.

Which RNA carries the message?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

87.

What enzyme does transcription use?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

ligase

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

helicase

88.

RNA contains which sugar?

a)

deoxyribose

b)

Ribose

c)

glucose

d)

fructose

89.

Which RNA forms part of the ribosomes?

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

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