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Briannnnn Government Final Review

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 1hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

____ described the Constitution as "who gets what, when, how."

a)

James Madison

b)

Abraham Lincoln

c)

Harold Lasswell

d)

John Locke

2.

if a government that previously had no limits on what it could do to its citizens way overthrown and replaces with a government that has strict substantive and procedural limits on what it could do, this change would best be characterized as a shift from a(n)

a)

Constitutional Government to Totalitarian Government

b)

Authoritarian Government to a Totalitarian Government

c)

Totalitarian Government to a Constitutional Government

d)

Totalitarian Government to an Authoritarian Government

3.

The decline in political efficacy in the United States is

a)

Unlikely to matter at all for the functioning of the American democracy because America's constitutional form of limited government is so well established

b)

Likely to have negative effects on American Democracy because it will lead to less citizen participation in government

c)

Likely to have negative effects on American Democracy because it will lead to more citizen participation in government

d)

likely to have positive effects on American democracy because it will lead to more citizen participation in the government

4.

During the last 50 years, the American population has

a)

not experienced any regional shifts

b)

shifted as a result of people leaving the northeast and midwest and moving to the south and southwest

c)

shifted as a result of people leaving the south and southwest and moving to the northeast and midwest

d)

shifted as a result of people leaving urban areas and moving to rural areas

5.

Political culture refers to the

a)

way artists, musicians, filmmakers, and cultural critics use their messages to influence political decision making

b)

shared values, beliefs, and attitudes that serve to hold a nation and its people together

c)

system of organizing politically, which is defined historically in the Articles of Confederation and Perpetual Union

d)

Formal rules that govern the interaction between the executive, legislative, and judicial branches

6.

____ are the three core values in American politics

a)

liberty, equality, and democracy

b)

democracy, patriotism, and the rule of law

c)

equality, oligarchy, and free enterprise

d)

anarchy, equality, and patriotism

7.

Which of the following statements about liberty and equality is most accurate?

a)

In contrast to equality, which requires limits on the scope of government action, liberty implies an obligation for the government to act on behalf of the people

b)

In contrast to liberty, which requires limits on the scope of government action, equality implies an obligation for the government to act on behalf of the people

c)

liberty and equality cannot simultaneously exist in a democratic political system

d)

liberty and equality are two different terms for the idea that political authority ultimately rests in the hands of the people

8.

______ is the core political value most highly prioritized by American conservatives.

a)

Liberty

b)

Equality

c)

Family

d)

Justice

9.

______ is the most important core value of liberalism.

a)

Liberty

b)

Democracy

c)

Equality

d)

Justice

10.

The president's power to veto a bill passed by Congress is a good example of

(a)  

11.

Federal judges are appointed by the ____ and must be approved by the _____.

a)

Senate; President

b)

President; Senate

c)

President; House of Representatives

d)

President; Supreme Court

12.

Judicial Review is the power of

a)

the courts to decide the constitutionality of actions taken by the other branches of government

b)

Congress to review the decisions of federal courts

c)

the states to review the constitutionality of federal actions and laws

d)

the courts to review and edit pieces of legislation before they are voted on in Congress

13.

The enumerated powers of Congress are listed in _________ of the Constitution

a)

Article I, Section 8

b)

Article II, Section 1

c)

Article III, Section 2

d)

the Bill of Rights

14.

Which of the following definitions about the House of Representatives and the Senate is true?

a)

The Senate and the House have the power to ratify treaties.

b)

The Senate and the House have the power to approve presidential appointments.

c)

The House alone has the power to overturn a President's veto, while the Senate does not.

d)

The House alone has the power to originate revenue bills, while the Senate does not.

15.

The Constitution expressly grants Congress the power to

a)

appoint judges

b)

receive ambassadors

c)

regulate interstate commerce

d)

abolish state boundaries

16.

Which of the following is the best definition of the elastic clause?

a)

a part of the Constitution that empowers Congress to make all laws "necessary and proper" to carry out its enumerated powers

b)

a part of the Constitution that empowers the Supreme Court to review actions by the legislative or executive branches

c)

a part of the Constitution that says laws passed by the national government are superior to laws adopted by the states

d)

a mechanism that gives each branch of government influence over other branches of the government

17.

The Antifederalists argues that the powers of the national government should be limited by

a)

providing Congress with a larger grant of powers

b)

decreasing the powers of the executive branch, especially those of the vice president

c)

adding a bill of rights to the Constitution

d)

preventing government from collecting revenue through taxation

18.

Which of the following statements best describes the framers' view of liberty?

a)

Liberty is the absence of government.

b)

Liberty is less important than social and economic equality

c)

Government promotes liberty by maintaining order

d)

The framers feared that democracy and equality could undermine individual liberty

19.

Which of the following is NOT among the expressed powers granted to the national government in Article I, Section 8 of the Constitution?

a)

The power to collect taxes

b)

The power to declare war

c)

The power to regulate commerce

d)

The power to establish a national bank

20.

The purpose of the Tenth Amendment is to

a)

ensure that each state constitution offers the same number of individual rights provided by the federal constitution

b)

limit the powers of the federal government by reserving special powers to the states and to the people

c)

grant citizens of each state access to the federal court system

d)

protect freedom of speech

21.

____ powers exist when both the state and national government share authority in certain domains.

a)

Implied

b)

Reserved

c)

Expressed

d)

Concurrent

22.

"Commerce among the several states" was first defined in which Supreme Court case?

a)

Prints v. United States

b)

Marbury v. Madison

c)

MuCulloch v. Maryland

d)

Gibbons v. Ogden

23.

What is the overall importance of McCulloch v. Maryland(1819)?

a)

The Court allowed Congress to use the necessary and proper clause to broadly interpret its delegated powers

b)

The Court gave a very restricted definition of Congress's delegated and implied powers, setting the state for more limited representation of this power in the future

c)

The Court announced that dual federalist did not conform to the framer's design

d)

The Court declared that the National Bank was unconstutional

24.

Suppose the government wanted to develop a national high-speed rail netted. The federal government supplies states with the money to do so, but imposes very strict laws on how it will be spent. These type of funding is most likely to come from

a)

a block grant

b)

general revenue sharing

c)

an unfunded mandate

d)

a categorical grant

25.

"Marble cake federalism" is associated with the

a)

increasing political power of local governments over the last two decades

b)

practice of federal officials bribing their state counterparts with various gifts in order to convince them to follow national standards

c)

pattern of intergovernmental cooperation that has blurred the lines between the states and the national governments

d)

confusion that emerged during the 1960s about which level of government is actually responsible for regulating the national economy

26.

An example of ____ is when federal officials force state officials to implement more stringent national water pollution regulations

a)

home rule

b)

preemption

c)

police power

d)

the doctrine of states' rights

27.

A major reason that the slogan "states' rights" became tarnished in the 1950s and 1960s was that it had been used by

a)

opponents of the civil rights movement to support laws favoring racial inequality

b)

religious organizations. to increase federal spending on faith-based initiatives

c)

antiwar activities to protest the war in Vietnam

d)

supporters of the civil rights movement to oppose racial segregation

28.

Using block grants to return power to the states was part of ____ during the Nixon and Reagan administrations.

a)

the New Deal

b)

the Great Society

c)

New Federalism

d)

the New Frontier

29.

The process by which political values are formed

a)

political socialization

b)

ideological education

c)

brainwashing

d)

value enhancing

30.

A person's political party preference is primarily acquired through the influence of the

a)

person's family

b)

region of the country the person inhabits

c)

person's education

d)

media

31.

the tendency for Black Americans to perceive other Black Americans as members of a group with a common identity and a shared political interest is called

a)

reverse racism

b)

symbolic racism

c)

linked fate

d)

intergroup commonality

32.

Which of the following is an example of the "gender gap"?

a)

that men and women have roughly the same overall levels of support for abortion

b)

that men are more supportive of Donald Trump's presidency than women

c)

that women earn, on average, less than men

d)

that women received the right to vote in the United States long after most men did

33.

Which of the following statements about public opinion in America is most accurate?

a)

Political knowledge is very high in America

b)

Citizens with low levels of knowledge are generally better able to evaluate new information and determine its relevancy to their beliefs

c)

Citizens with high levels of knowledge are generally able to better evaluate new information to determine its relevancy to their beliefs

d)

Politically knowledgeable citizens are more likely to consider themselves independent and not have a liberal or conservative ideology

34.

The small group selected by pollsters to represent the entire population is called a

a)

validity quotient

b)

reliability quotient

c)

sample

d)

quota

35.

Suppose six months before a presidential election, a public-opinion poll shows that the incumbent president will lose in November. If you were trying to reassure the president about his or her chances for reelection, which of the following would be the strongest case to make?

a)

A survey conducted so far ahead of the election is guilty of selection bias; you can't get a random sample until you are closer to election day

b)

Surveys cannot use simple random sampling when conducted months before an election; this survey probably has a high margin of error

c)

A survey conducted so far ahead of the election produces very different results than a survey conducted closer to election day

d)

A survey conducted six months before the election shows that public opinion is very unlikely to change

36.

In order for a survey to accurately generalize the entire population, the survey must

a)

sample at least 10% of the target population

b)

sample at least 25% of the target population

c)

sample at least 10,000 individuals from the target population

d)

select respondents randomly, and everyone in the target population must have an equal chance of being selected

37.

If a national survey finds candidate A leads candidate B by 5% in the upcoming election and the margin of error in the survey is 3%, it means candidate A

a)

leads candidate B by exactly 5 percentage points

b)

leads candidate B by anywhere between 2 and 8 percentage points

c)

leads candidate B by exactly 3 percentage points

d)

trails candidate B by anywhere between 2 and 8 percentage points

38.

What is the social desirability effect?

a)

the bias in surveys that comes from the failure of pollsters to interview respondents from lower socioeconomic backgrounds

b)

the strong desire that people have to express their opinions to survey researchers

c)

the fact that respondents report what they think the interviewer wishes to hear or whatever they think is socially acceptable instead of what they actually believe

d)

the impression conveyed by polls that something is important to the public when it actually is not

39.

protects citizens from arbitrary government action

(a)  

40.

expands ban on interracial marriage

(a)  

41.

court upholds mandatory flag salute

(a)  

42.

government cannot restrict a person's free exercise unless it can show a compelling reason for doing so

(a)  

43.

states must guarantee due process rights found in the US bill of rights

(a)  

44.

school prayer unconstitutional since state officially endorsed prayer

(a)  

45.

Sterilization act of 1924 ruled unconstitutional

(a)  

46.

court upheld state law limiting free exercise rights of two Native American men

(a)  

47.

court struck down state and local components of RFRA

(a)  

48.

declared the racial integrity act unconstitutional

(a)  

49.

What was the main cause for reducing the legal voting age to 18?

a)

young American citizens formally organized and protested for the right to vote

b)

the Constitution mandated that the draft age be equivalent to the voting age

c)

Government official hoped it would lead to a decline in sorptive student protests against the Vietnam War

d)

A decision by the Supreme Court Justices determined that voting requirements based on age were unconstitutional

50.

Compared to other developed countries, voter turnout in the United States is

a)

higher

b)

about the same

c)

lower

d)

impossible to compare

51.

Accidental mobilization occurs when

a)

people are mistakenly contacted by a political party on election day

b)

individuals are exposed to political information online that they did not explicitly seek out

c)

a candidate makes a verbal gaffe that leads new groups of people to vote in an election

d)

turnout in a midterm congressional election is much higher than analysts predict

52.

What is social capital

a)

campaign contributions made by community organizations

b)

community networks that motivate political participation

c)

the funds that interest groups raise during election campaigns

d)

an individual's belief on his or her ability to competently engage in personal interactions with other people

53.

The primary goal of Russian propaganda to disrupt the 2016 election was to

a)

mobilize Trump supporters to vote, demobilize Clinton supporters, and promote third-party candidates to Bernie Sanders supporters

b)

mobilize Clinton supporters to vote, demobilize Trump supporters, and promote third-party candidates to Bernie Sanders supporters

c)

demobilize Trump and Clinton supporters while also promoting third-party candidates to Bernie Sanders's supporters

d)

demobilize all American voters

54.

Suppose you were hired to work on the campaign of a 2020 presidential candidate. Your job was to reach out to the group of people most likely to vote. Which group should you target first?

a)

18-24 year olds

b)

men

c)

women

d)

low-income voters

55.

What is one reason that political parties and politicians view latinos and Latinas as a critically important group?

a)

the Latino and Latina population in the United States is rapidly growing

b)

Latinos and Latinas register to vote at higher levels than Whites and African Americans

c)

Latinos and Latinas contribute more money to political parties and campaigns than White and African Americans combined

d)

Latinos and Latinas consistently vote for the Republican Party

56.

Under the Constitution, _____ the power to control voter registration.

a)

Congress has

b)

the President has

c)

the Federal Election Commission has

d)

State legislatures have

57.

____ conducts its elections entirely by mail.

a)

New Mexico

b)

Oklahoma

c)

Oregon

d)

Michigan

58.

Blue Wall States in the 2016 election

(a)  

59.

In the 2020 primary elections in New Hampshire, all registered voters were able to participate regardless of parties. New Hampshire has

a)

a closed primary system

b)

a ranked-choice vote primary system

c)

an open primary system

d)

a proportional representation system

60.

In a _____ election, voters choose the nominees for their parties. In a _____ election, voters choose who they want to be office holders.

a)

midterm; final

b)

general; primary

c)

primary; general

d)

runoff; midterm

61.

A(n) ___ is the practice of referring a proposed law passed by the legislative to a vote. A(n) _____ is a proposed law or policy change that is placed on the ballot by citizens or interest groups for a vote.

a)

referendum; recall

b)

initiative; referendum

c)

recall; initiative

d)

referendum; initiative

62.

When the Consumer Confidence Index is greater than 100 prior to an election, Americans tend to

a)

vote for third-party presidential candidates

b)

vote for the incumbent party's presidential candidate

c)

vote against the incumbent party's presidential candidate

d)

abstain from voting

63.

The first caucus in the presidential campaign is held in _____, while the first primary election is presidential primary election campaign is held in ______.

a)

Connecticut; Iowa

b)

Iowa; Connecticut

c)

Iowa; New Hampshire

d)

New Hampshire; Iowa

64.

The electoral college is

a)

the group of electors who formally select the president and vice president

b)

a tool used in the early years of the American republic through which the House of Representatives selected presidential nominees

c)

a special conclave of the Supreme Court that helps settle cases related to election and campaign law

d)

An archaic group that once was responsible for picking the president but now simply certifies that the winner of the popular vote wins the presidency

65.

Hilary Clinton won the state of California in the 2016 election. In 2016, California had 53 representatives in the House of Representatives. How many electoral votes from California did Clinton win?

a)

53

b)

55

c)

62

d)

77

66.

Suppose more and more states wish to increase their political influence bu holding their nominating process earlier and earlier. This causes the process for nominating the president to become

a)

gerrymandered

b)

proportionally represented

c)

a closed primary

d)

front-loaded

67.

In order to win the presidency, a candidate must win

a)

at least 270 electoral votes

b)

a majority of the popular vote

c)

at least 26 state-level presidential elections

d)

at least 300 electoral votes

68.

Political scientists call voter's choices that focus on future behavior ____ voting, while those based on past performances are called _____ voting

a)

prospective; retrospective

b)

retrospective; prospective

c)

partisan; issue

d)

issue; partisan

69.

Congress is a ____ legislature with ____ total members

a)

unicameral; 342

b)

bicameral; 535

c)

bicameral; 100

d)

bicameral; 275

70.

The kind of representation that takes place when constituents have the power to hire and fire their representatives is called ______ representation

a)

substantive

b)

descriptive

c)

delegate

d)

trustee

71.

Which of the following illustrates a member of Congress acting as a delegate?

a)

Senator Elizabeth Warren (MA) votes on an infrastructure bill based on what she thinks is best for constituents

b)

During a town hall, constituent Analyn urges Senator Ted Cruz (TX) to vote in favor of an upcoming tax cut, which he does

c)

Senator Chuck Grassley (IA) votes against a wind power subsidy even though a majority of his constituents would like to see one enacted

d)

No answer choices are correct

72.

Senator Mitch McConnell (KY) is running for reelection. which of the following advantages would he have over his rivals?

a)

possible pork barrel projects to benefit his constituents

b)

All of these answer choices are correct

c)

robust campaign funds

d)

the ability to send regular newsletters to constituents about his accomplishments

73.

Which of the following is the best definition of redistricting?

a)

the process the allocates congressional seats among the 50 states

b)

the process of redrawing electoral districts every 10 years

c)

the distribution of voters in districts in such a way that gives unfair advantage to a particular group or party

d)

the process of making appropriations that take funding away from one district and shift it to another

74.

When Democratic members of Congress were considering the affordable care act, many were divided on the bill. Some favored it and others opposed it. What would be the role of the whip in this situation

a)

to make committee assignments

b)

to call the gathering of a conference

c)

to line up party members to vote for this bill

d)

to elect the minority party leader

75.

How is the speaker of the house determined?

a)

the Vice President of the United States is also the speaker of the house

b)

the representative with the longest tenure in the House is the Speaker of the house

c)

The elected leader of the majority party in the House is the Speaker

d)

the president selects the Speaker of the House from the majority party in the house

76.

Suppose that a major piece of legislation is being considered by Congress. The House and the Senate have passed mostly similar versions of the bill, but important differences remain. Which committee would be in charge of working out a compromise between the two chambers?

a)

joint committee

b)

conference committee

c)

reconciliation committee

d)

select committee

77.

over what policy areas does the House Ways and means committee have jurisdiction?

a)

taxes, trade, and entitlement programs

b)

foreign relations and national security

c)

rules governing debate on the floor and committee assignments

d)

highways and waterways

78.

Compared to the rest of American history, recent Congresses have been ____ polarized and ____ productive in terms of passing laws

a)

less; equally

b)

less; less

c)

more; less

d)

more; more

79.

_____ powers are specifically established by the language of the Constitution

a)

enumerated

b)

delegated

c)

implied

d)

inherent

80.

The president's delegated powers come from

a)

the Constitution

b)

Congress

c)

the president's party

d)

the Supreme Court

81.

In order to get around the need for Senate approval of treaties, many contemporary presidents have made use of ____ in foreign affairs

a)

diplomacy

b)

international protocols

c)

executive agreements

d)

executive immunity

82.

Richard Nixon claimed ____ when he refused to turn over the secret White House tapes to congressional investigators

a)

presidential immunity

b)

expressed powers

c)

executive privilege

d)

the Fifth Amendment

83.

The idea that all executive power inheres in the president except as explicitly limited by the Constitution is called the ____ executive theory

a)

unlimited

b)

totalitarian

c)

unitary

d)

dual

84.

Powers of the presidency not explicitly spelled out in the Constitution nor given to the executive branch through acts of Congress are best describes as

a)

explicit powers

b)

delegated powers

c)

inherent powers

d)

usurped powers

85.

The ____ asserted that the president could send American troops into action abroad only in the event of a declaration of war or other statutory authorization by Congress, or if American troops were attacked or directly endangered

a)

War Powers Resolution of 1973`

b)

National Security Act of 1947

c)

Boland Amendment of 1982

d)

USA PATRIOT Act of 2001

86.

The main difference between inherent and implied powers is that

a)

inherent powers can be traced to the powers expressed in the actual language of the Constitution, while implied powers derive from congressional laws and Supreme Court decisions

b)

Implied powers can be traced to powers expressed in the actual language of the Constitution, while inherent powers derive from congressional laws and Supreme Court decisions

c)

Implied powers can be traced to powers expressed in the actual language of the Constitution, while inherent powers derive from national sovereignity

d)

inherent powers can be traced to the powers expressed in the actual language of the Constitution, while implied derive from national sovereignty

87.

the president is America's presence on the global stage, representing America at official ceremonies and functions. In this role we would say that in the United States, the president is the

a)

head of government

b)

head of the bureaucracy

c)

head of the political party

d)

head of state

88.

the main political value of the Vice President is to

a)

bring the president votes in the election that he or she might now otherwise win

b)

draw negative attention away from the president during times of crisis

c)

give the president an institutional link to Congress

d)

promote bipartisanship with members of the opposing political party through negotiations

89.

The doctrine of ______ requires courts to follow authoritative prior to decision when ruling

a)

stare decis

b)

habeas corpus

c)

ex post facto

d)

a priori

90.

Suppose a defendant is convicted at trial but believes the judge and an error that impacted the decision. She would first ask her case be tried again at the _____. If she were to lose at that court, she could still try again, if her argument were accepted, at the _____.

a)

trail court; court of appeals

b)

Supreme Court; court of appeals

c)

court of appeals; supreme court

d)

court of appeals; trial court

91.

the sphere of a court's power and authority is called its

a)

defendant

b)

oral argument

c)

appeal

d)

jurisdiction

92.

Cases in which the U.S. government is a party are

a)

always heard in state court

b)

heard in a state court only if a state government is the other party

c)

heard in a state court if the other party files a special request to have the case heard in a state court

d)

always heard in a federal court

93.

Which of the following cases would always be heard in federal court?

a)

a case related to a drunk-driving accident

b)

a case involving the citizens of more than one state and in which $150,000 is at stake

c)

a case related to an accusation of sexual harassment in the workplace

d)

a case involving the state of New York suing the state of New Hampshire over state highway maitenance

94.

Trial courts in the federal judiciary system are called

a)

grand juries

b)

district courts

c)

appellate courts

d)

civil courts

95.

How many justices currently serve on the Supreme Court?

a)

7

b)

9

c)

11

d)

15

96.

Which of the following statements best describes the formal requirements of serving as a federal court judge?

a)

federal court judges must be members of the American bar association

b)

federal court judges must have a degree from an accredited law school

c)

federal court judges must be at least 35 years of age

d)

There are no formal requirements to serve as a federal court judge

97.

Why is Marbury v Madison (1803) an important case?

a)

In this case, the justices recognized the authority of Congress to regulate the economy of the United States

b)

In this case, the justices nationalized the Bill of Rights

c)

In this case, the justices authorized the Supreme Court to exercise judicial review over laws passed by congress

d)

In this case, the justices declared the secession of the Confederate states to be in violation of the Constitution

98.

A person, agency, or interest group not directly a party to a case but with an interest in its outcome may file a(n) _____ brief.

a)

certiorari

b)

per curium

c)

amicus curiae

d)

standing

99.

The contributions that a worker makes to Social Security through his or her taxes

a)

accumulate in a personal account that the worker can access any time he or she in unemployed

b)

are paid back to the employer to help subsidized the costs of worker pensions

c)

accumulate in a person account that the worker can access once he or she reaches the age of 66

d)

are paid into the Social Security system and do not accumulate into a personal account

100.

The periodic adjustment of benefits or wages that takes into account the increased cost of living is called

a)

means testing

b)

indexing

c)

graphing

d)

economic tabulating

101.

Unemployment insurance is a ___ program that is funded by the ___

a)

noncontributory; federal and state governments

b)

noncontributory; state governments only

c)

contributory; federal and state governments

d)

contributory; state governments only

102.

Which of the following is the best example of the shadow welfare state?

a)

soup kitchens supported by local churches

b)

food stamps

c)

tax breaks

d)

cost-of-living adjustments

103.

The Temporary assistance for needy families (TANF) benefits provided by state governments __ the federal poverty line

a)

are the same in every state and slightly above

b)

vary widely across states but are required to be slightly above

c)

vary widely across states but are always below

d)

are the same in every state and always below

104.

Which of the following social policies is currently most costly to the government?

a)

Social Security

b)

food stamps

c)

public housing assistance

d)

medicare

105.

Spending money on medical programs such as Medicare and Medicaid have proven difficult to control because

a)

spending on social security has declined so significantly

b)

state and local governments have refused to contribute to the costs of administering these programs

c)

these programs are indexed to grow at two times the rate of inflation

d)

of the growing number of people eligible, and because of rising health care costs

106.

medicare is a ___ program; medicaid is a ___ program

a)

noncontributory; contributory

b)

contributory; noncontributory

c)

contributory; contributory

d)

noncontributory; noncontributory

107.

Which of the following groups receives the most benefit from government's social policies?

a)

the middle class and the elderly

b)

the working poor

c)

children

d)

racial and ethnic minorities

108.

Groups in society that ___ receive the most benefits from government's social policies

a)

make up the largest percentage of the population

b)

are the most politically powerful

c)

suffer the most hardship

d)

are made up of people who cannot help themselves, like children or the elderly

109.

Which of the following is the best example of a public good?

a)

a computer

b)

the interstate highway system

c)

toll roads

d)

an iPhone

110.

Which of the following has been fundamental goal of the government's involvement on the economy?

a)

promoting economic self-reliance

b)

encouraging investment in businesses abroad

c)

stimulation economic growth

d)

reducing imports from foreign economies

111.

Upton Sinclair's 1906 expose The Jungle helped spur government's active role in regulation by revealing

a)

widespread use of child labor in coal mines and factories throughout the United States

b)

violent suppression of labor unions by big business

c)

control of politicians by corporate interests who run political machines

d)

unsanitary practices at meatpacking plants

112.

before the 1930s, relations between labor management in the United States were

a)

defined by peaceful negotiations

b)

among the most violent in the world

c)

dependent on labor unions for stability

d)

stable

113.

What is a tariff?

a)

It is a tax on imported goods

b)

It is a consistent increase in the general level of prices

c)

It is a single firm that controls a market

d)

it is a government grant

114.

The ___ insures bank deposits up to $250,000

a)

federal reserve board

b)

federal deposit insurance corporation

c)

US department of treasury

d)

Office of Management and Budget