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AP Enviromental Science Final Review Units 1-5

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 1hrs 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following economic consequences to a provisioning ecosystem service will most likely result from increased global warming?

a)

Widespread crop failure, because of increased acid precipitation in agricultural areas

b)

The collapse of local fisheries, because of the damage to coral reefs from ocean acidification

c)

Loss of revenue from the oil industry, because of increased oil spills from offshore oil wells

d)

Increased cost for water filtration, because of loss of coastal wetlands

2.

An island off the coast of Africa contains a larger percentage of specialist species than generalist species. Which of the following describes the most immediate effect if an invasive generalist species is introduced to the island?

a)

As predation increases, the population size of the invasive generalist species will decrease.

b)

As competition for resources increases, the population size of the island’s specialist species will decrease.

c)

As resources are partitioned, the population sizes of both the generalist species and the specialist species will increase.

d)

As niches overlap, the invasive generalist species will be outcompeted by the island’s specialist species.

3.

A team of ecologists are studying four different ecosystems with varying levels of biodiversity. The ecologists categorize the different levels of biodiversity for the four ecosystems as shown in the table below.

Based on the information above, which of the following best describes Ecosystem C?

a)

Its low species diversity indicates that Ecosystem C most likely has species with very low population sizes.

b)

Its high genetic diversity indicates that Ecosystem C most likely has species that evolve quickly.

c)

Its high genetic diversity indicates that Ecosystem C is most likely the result of the founder effect and a subpopulation originating from Ecosystem A.

d)

Its low habitat diversity indicates that Ecosystem C most likely has a low number of specialist species and few species that utilize large territories.

4.

Researchers in the Galápagos Islands measured the average beak size in a population of finches from 1976 to 1984, as shown in the graph below. Birds with smaller beaks are better suited for grasses and soft seeds, while birds with larger beaks are better suited for seeds and nuts. In years with less rainfall, there are fewer grasses to feed on and the finches rely more on seeds for food. In 1977, 1980, and 1982, there were droughts, and the area experienced significantly less rainfall than average. Which statement is best supported by the data in the graph?

a)

Finches were better able to find mates, and the population size increased in 1977 because of the abundance of grasses.

b)

Finches with larger beaks were more likely to survive in 1980 because they were able to feed primarily on seeds and nuts during the drought.

c)

The average beak size in 1981 increased to 9.8mm9.8mm because finches had access to unlimited resources.

d)

The finch population declined from 1983 to 1984 due to a decrease in habitat.

5.

Based on the theory of island biogeography, which of the following islands would most likely have the highest number of species living on it?

a)

An island 30 hectares in size that is 30 kilometers off the coast of the mainland

b)

An island 30 hectares in size that is 10 kilometers off the coast of the mainland

c)

An island 10 hectares in size that is 30 kilometers off the coast of the mainland

d)

An island 10 hectares in size that is 10 kilometers off the coast of the mainland

6.

Which describes a type I survivorship curve?

a)

The curve is intermediate and indicates equal rates of death at all ages

b)

The highest death rates occur at young ages

c)

Rises sharply at first but then begins to level off as the off as the effects of limiting factors become stronger

d)

The higher death rates occur at older ages

7.

What is exponential growth?

a)

the maximum population size of a species

b)

when a population grows beyond the carrying capacity abilities of a habitat

c)

when a population grows by a fixed percentage each year

d)

A sudden increase in births of a particular population or species

8.

Which is NOT a limiting factor?

a)

Temperature extremes

b)

abundance of predators

c)

genetic mutations

d)

prevalence of disease

9.

A logistic growth curve....

a)

Rises sharply at first but then begins to level off as the effects of limiting factors become stronger.

b)

Shows exponential growth and is shaped like a J

c)

shows the rate of natural increase over time

d)

shows the death rates at various ages of a species

10.

Scientists collected data for 35 years on the populations of mice and owls in a given area.

Based on the trends shown in the table, in which of the following years was the owl population at carrying capacity?

a)

1985

b)

1990

c)

2015

d)

2020

11.

The graph illustrates the total fertility rates measured from 1950 to 2020. The total fertility rates are projected from 2020 to 2040. Which of the following best describes the trends seen in the total fertility rates for the world population from 1950 to the projected rates in 2040?

a)

Total fertility rates fell below carrying capacity after 1965 because of an increase in global conflicts.

b)

Total fertility rates remained fairly steady from 1970 to 1985 as less-developed regions shifted to more agricultural-based economies.

c)

Total fertility rates declined rapidly from 1960 to 2000 because women had children later in life as a result of increased educational opportunities.

d)

Total fertility rates are projected to increase slightly from 2000 to 2040 as a result of technological advances and access to health care.

12.

A scientist is studying a biome that experiences large seasonal fluctuations in both temperature and precipitation patterns.

Which of the following would best characterize the organisms that inhabit the biome?

a)

Habitat specialists would be most abundant because they have broad niches

b)

Generalists would be most abundant because the resources available would be constantly changing.

c)

Generalists that feed only on animals would be more abundant in the summer months, while generalists that feed only on plants would be more abundant in the winter months.

d)

Specialists that live in trees would be more abundant in the summer months, whereas specialists that live in caves would be more abundant in the winter months.

13.

Song sparrows are found in a variety of habitats, including marshes, grasslands, agricultural fields, and suburban areas. They feed on a variety of organisms, including beetles, caterpillars, snails, and earthworms. They also consume plants, including different types of grains and berries. The table below summarizes the reproductive data for song sparrows.

REPRODUCTIVE DATA FOR SONG SPARROWS

Clutch Size: 1-6 eggs

Number of Broods per year:1-7 broods

Incubation Period:12-15 days

Nestling Period:9-12 days

Based on the description and the data table above, which of the following combinations best classifies the song sparrow?

a)

K-strategist and generalist

b)

r-strategist and generalist

c)

K-strategist and specialist

d)

r-strategist and specialist

14.

What is the carrying capacity?

a)

The maximum population size of a species that given environment can sustain

b)

The number of species habitat can sustain

c)

The number of resources that can be used in an environment

15.

Which of the following is a characteristic of an organism that displays a Type III survivorship curve?

a)

The organism has a fairly constant mortality rate over time.

b)

The organism reaches reproductive maturity after many years.

c)

The organism produces large numbers of offspring every time it reproduces.

d)

The organism provides constant parental care to its offspring for several years.

16.

Based on current trends and patterns, which of the following statements best predicts how the human population will change over the next 50 years?

a)

As the amount of available food and drinking water increases, the population size will also increase.

b)

As the population density increases, there will be an increase in disease transmission, leading to increased mortality.

c)

A decrease in the number and magnitude of earthquakes and tsunamis will decrease the amount of land available for agriculture, leading to decreased fecundity.

d)

As educational and economic opportunities increase for women in less developed countries, both the total fertility rate and the population size will increase.

17.

How many biomes are there?

a)

7

b)

13

c)

5

d)

10

18.

Which traits describe a K-selected species?

a)

Low biotic potential, produce few offspring with lots of parental care

b)

high biotic potential, produce many offspring in a short amount of time with little or no parental care

c)

High biotic potential, with few offspring and moderate parental care

d)

Low biotic potential, with lots of offspring that die at an early age

19.

Which of the following best describes why birth and death rates are changing in a country that is in phase 2 of demographic transition?

a)

idk

b)

Individuals have better sanitation and access to clean drinking water

c)

The density of individuals has lowered due to more buildings and homes

d)

Children are no longer needed to support families

20.

A biome is a...

a)

latitude pattern

b)

Terrestial system that includes vegetation, animals, microorganisms, and producers

c)

Major regional complex of similar communities, recoginzed by its dominant plant type and vegetation structure

d)

Region with a certain type of soil chemistry

21.

Which is a characteristic of a temperate grassland?

a)

limited amount of precipitation that supports grasses

b)

relatively stable precipitation but varied seasonal temperatures

c)

broad-leafed trees and mid latitude

22.

What is a chaparral?

a)

A coniferous forest with nutrient-poor soil.

b)

A highly seasonal biome dominated by shrubs, influenced by marine weather, and dependent on fire.

c)

A grassland with clusters of trees

d)

A starbucks drink

23.

What is the rainshadow effect?

a)

When trees release excess carbon, increasing the surronding air temperature

b)

When water pollution results in precipitation with a lower pH level than normal

c)

When precipitation from contiminated surface water results in salinization

d)

When moisture-laden air ascends a steep slope, it releases precipitation as it cools, causing the slope to end up dry

24.

What is a water table?

a)

the recharge zone of an aquifer

b)

a porous, spongelike formation of rock,

c)

the space between an aquifer's upper and lower layers

d)

a confined aquifer

25.

Any area where water infilitrates Earth's surface and reaches an aquifer below is known as a...

a)

water table

b)

recharge zone

c)

zone of aeration

d)

zone of saturation

26.

When a porous, water-bearing layer of rock, sand, or gravel is trapped between upper and lower layers of less permeable substrate we have a....

a)

confined aquifer

b)

upwelling

c)

watertable

d)

zone of aeration

27.

The area of land drained by a river system, is that river's...

a)

wetland

b)

floodplain

c)

watershed

d)

drainage basin

28.

A meandering river is characterized by?

a)

a series of braided and intertwined rivers

b)

water rounding a bend that gradually eats at the outer shore, forming a bend

c)

One river that diverges into many smaller streams and creeks

29.

Areas nearest a river may shift from one course and are flooded periodically are said to be within the river's-

a)

watershed

b)

flood zone

c)

profundal zone

d)

floodplain

30.

What is the littoral zone?

a)

the region that extends along the bottom of the lake or pond, from shore to deepest point

b)

the open portion of a lake or pond, far from shore

c)

the nutient-rich edges of a water body where the water is shallow enough that aquatic plants grow

d)

the volume of open water that sunlight doesn't reach

31.

Eutrophication can occur when

a)

Nutrient pollution causes an over abundance in phytoplankton which then causes a loss of oxygen in water bodies

b)

too much acid precipitation occurs

c)

The temperature of a water body becomes too high and aquatic organism begin to die

d)

Corals are unable to build their shells and reefs start eroding

32.

Which is a description of a wetland?

a)

Wet sand and gravel saturated with water with little vegation and many invertebrates

b)

Over-flooded soils and river banks

c)

Soil is saturated with water and which generally feature shallow standing water with ample vegetation.

33.

Select all that are wetlands.

a)

Bogs

b)

Freshwater marshes

c)

Swamps

d)

Creeks

34.

The vast majority of ozone (O3) is found in a thin layer due to a lack of circulation in which of the following atmospheric layers?

a)

Thermosphere

b)

Mesosphere

c)

Stratosphere

d)

Troposphere

35.

Which of the following layers of the atmosphere contains charged gas molecules that glow and produce light when hit by solar energy, leading to glowing gases such as the northern lights, found over 90 kilometers above Earth's surface?

a)

Thermosphere

b)

Mesosphere

c)

Stratosphere

d)

Troposphere

36.

Carbon dioxide reacts with seawater to create..

a)

carbonic acid

b)

cyancide

c)

carbonate

d)

sulfuric acid

37.

A model of prevailing wind patterns around the world is shown in the diagram below

Which of the following is the best explanation for the formation of Hadley cells in the tropics, as seen in the diagram, between 30°N and 30°Slatitude?

a)

Heat from the ocean warms the moist air at the equator and causes it to rise because of its lower density. As the air becomes cooler, it becomes less dense and sinks.

b)

The Sun warms the moist air at the equator and causes it to rise because of its lower density. As the warm air moves away from the equator, it cools, becomes denser, and then sinks.

c)

Air cools over the land at the equator and then rises as it moves north or south.

d)

Rising air over the equator is heated by the Sun, moves north, and then moves south to create the jet stream and trade winds.

38.

A model of prevailing wind patterns around the world is shown in the diagram below.Which of the following is the best explanation for the deflection of the trade winds in both hemispheres, as seen in the diagram above?

a)

The wind is deflected east because of varying landmasses at the latitudes.

b)

The wind is deflected east because of the waves in the ocean.

c)

The wind is deflected west because of the mountains that the air encounters as the wind moves north or south.

d)

The wind is deflected west because of Earth’s rotation.

39.

When a reservoir releases more materials than it accepts it is called a (blank), and when a reservoir accepts more materials than it releases, it is called a sink.

a)

drainage basin

b)

source

c)

resource

40.

Based on the diagram, which of the following days in Earth’s yearly orbit would have the longest period of daylight in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

March equinox

b)

December solstice

c)

September equinox

d)

June solstice

41.

Based on the diagram, which of the following describes why the summer solstice in Australia occurs in December and not in June?

a)

At this time of year, the Earth is closest to the Sun due to its elliptical path.

b)

At this time of year, the tilt of Earth causes Australia to receive highly concentrated solar radiation.

c)

At this time of year, the tilt of Earth causes Australia to be closer to the Sun.

d)

At this time of year, the tilt of Earth causes solar radiation to reach Australia at a low angle of incidence.

42.

Cellular respiration releases carbon back into the atmosphere and oceans.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Nitrogen makes up how much of our atmosphere?

a)

78%

b)

62%

c)

47%

d)

39%

44.

Nitrogen is the sixth most abundant element on Earth

a)

False

b)

True

45.

Nitrogen is naturally biologically active

a)

False

b)

True

46.

To become biologically available, inert nitrogen gas must be "fixed" or combined with hydrogen in nature to form ammonia, this process is called-

a)

Ammonium fixation

b)

Nitrification

c)

Nitrogen fixation

d)

Denitrification

47.

Which are ways in which nitrogen fixation can be accomplished?

a)

Lightning strikes

b)

Air in the top layer of soil comes in contact with particular types of nitrogen-fixing bacteria

c)

Ammonium ions are converted into nitrate ions

48.

The Atacama Desert lies to the west of the Andes Mountains in northern Chile. It is the oldest, most consistently arid place in the world. Based on the map, which of the following best explains the area of the Andes Mountains that would have the greatest number of rivers?

a)

Equal numbers of rivers would be found on both the east and west sides of the Andes Mountains because water flows downhill.

b)

More rivers would be located on the west side of the Andes Mountains because it is the leeward side.

c)

More rivers would be located on the east side of the Andes Mountains because the trade winds are coming from the east.

d)

More rivers would be located on the south side of the Andes Mountains because it is protected from the drying sunlight.

49.

Nitrification is when

a)

Ammonium ions are converted into nitrite ions, then into nitrate ions

b)

Dentrifying bacteria convert nitrates in soil or water to gaseous nitrogen

c)

Nitrogen becomes biologically active

50.

What is the name of the processthat was invented to produce ammonia and fix nitrogen on a industrial scale?

a)

ur mom

b)

Haber-Bosch Process

c)

Fritz-Carl Process

d)

Synthezized hydroden fixation

51.

Which of the following would be most helpful to determine the soil texture of a sample?

a)

A pH meter and conductivity meter

b)

A soil core kit and a seismograph

c)

A density gradient tube and a soil triangle

d)

A quadrat and a transect line

52.

Which cycle does not have a gas phase?

a)

Carbon cycle

b)

Nitrogen Cycle

c)

Water cycle

d)

Phosphorus Cycle

53.

The vast majority of Earth's phosphorus is contained within rocks and is released only by....

a)

Erosion

b)

The water cycle

c)

Weathering

54.

The total amount of chemical energy produced by autotrophs is?

a)

Gross primary production

b)

Net primary production

c)

celluar respiration

55.

Gross primary production minus the energy used in respiration is

a)

glucose remaining

b)

biomass

c)

net primary productivity

56.

The rate at which autotrophs convert energy to biomass is termed

a)

net primary production

b)

productivity

c)

photosynthesis rate

d)

biomass production

57.

A developer wants to develop a large tract of land near a watershed, which will require the removal of several large trees. Which of the following statements best describes the impact that the development would have on the watershed?

a)

Removing large trees would decrease the amount of runoff in the watershed.

b)

Removing large trees would cause an increase in temperature and keep the surrounding water and soil warmer.

c)

Removing large trees would decrease the rate of erosion in a watershed.

d)

Removing large trees would increase the retention of water within the watershed.

58.

When species divide a niche to avoid competition for resources, it is called

a)

resource partitioning

b)

symbiosis

c)

mutualism

59.

Physically close association is called

a)

symbiosis

b)

mutualism

c)

beneficial arrangement

60.

Which scavenges the waste products or dead bodies of other community members?

a)

Decomposers

b)

Detrivores

61.

Each trophic level contains just what percentage of the trophic level below it?

a)

5%

b)

15%

c)

23%

d)

10%

62.

A species that has strong or wide-reaching impact far out of proportion to its abundance is often called a

a)

Secondary consumer

b)

Predator

c)

Keystone species

63.

Primary succession occurs when a disturbance..

a)

is so severe that no vegetation or soil life remains

b)

dramatically alters an existing community but does not destroy all living things

64.

Peru’s commercial anchovy industry would most likely be harmed during an El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO) event. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the decline in anchovy during an El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO) event?

a)

Acidic ocean waters kill off larval anchovies.

b)

Less nutrient-rich water reaches surface waters, disrupting the food web.

c)

Ocean currents move toxic contaminants from the sediments into the water column.

d)

An increase in phosphate-based nutrients leads to an algal bloom, which would decrease available oxygen for animals like shrimp.

65.

During an El Niño event, farmers in the southwestern United Stated often benefit from which of the following climatic changes?

a)

Longer and cooler summers that increase crop yield

b)

Wetter and warmer weather that increases soil moisture

c)

Cooler and drier conditions that help cold-weather crops

d)

Warmer and drier weather that reduces soil erosion and flooding

66.

Overfishing of stocks of fish species, like salmon and cod, in an effort to meet a growing global demand has become an international concern. A recent estimate indicates that the average annual consumption of fish globally in 2014 was about twice the consumption in 1960. Because of increased concerns about the impact of overfishing, fishery managers are looking for ways to protect wild populations while still satisfying global demand for food for human consumption.

Aquaculture or fish farming can be used to increase the availability of species like salmon and shrimp for consumption. Although fish farming can have a number of negative environmental effects, it does offer a number of advantages. Which of the following is a valid reason for promoting the use of fish farms?

a)

Fish production is constant, and fish farming reduces pressure on wild stocks.

b)

Fish raised at fish farms are cheaper and have a better flavor than wild-caught fish.

c)

Fish farming generates few, if any, pollutants that affect adjacent waterways.

d)

Pesticides and antibiotics are rarely used at fish farms but are often used in wild-caught fish populations.

67.

Which of the following is an example of an industrial practice that contributes to the tragedy of the commons?

a)

Burning fossil fuels for energy production

b)

Creating constructed wetlands on abandoned land

c)

Enacting and enforcing legislation on point-source pollutants

d)

Promoting aluminum and glass recycling

68.

After intensive logging, most of the trees along a stream have been removed. Which of the following water quality changes would most likely occur downstream after logging?

a)

Increased water temperature

b)

Increased dissolved oxygen

c)

Decreased total dissolved solids

d)

Decreased amount of fecal coliform

69.

Which of the following best describes the advantages and disadvantages of drip irrigation?

a)

This method is suitable for a range of topographies and is easy to operate, but it requires a high initial investment in machinery.

b)

This method most efficiently delivers water directly to plant roots compared with other methods, and wastes less water, but it may be too costly for farmers in developing countries to use.

c)

This method delivers water to the field by pipes and water flows directly over the soil, but there is a large amount of runoff.

d)

This method applies water directly to trenches dug in soil and is cost effective, but water is often lost to evaporation.

70.

Sustainable use of forests in the United States would likely be encouraged by

a)

cutting small groups of medium and large trees in uneven-aged forests

b)

clear-cutting large sections of forest

c)

logging in the northern part of the forests

d)

recycling plastic bottles

71.

Which Urban design strategy will most likely slow water runoff through an urban area and decrease flooding?

a)

drainage pipes near the parking lot

b)

the use of more concrete in sidewalks

c)

preserving open areas with intact vegetation

72.

An IPM approach to pest control emphasizes which of the following?

a)

elimination of the use of second-generation pesticides

b)

reduction of crop damage to an economically tolerable level

c)

reducing soil erosion

73.

Which of the following is true of the Ogalla Aquifer?

a)

It underlies eastern Quebec and is a limited source of freshwater

b)

It underlies Florida and has experienced extreme saltwater intrusion

c)

It underlies the Great Basin and is drying up at a steady pace

d)

It underlies the United States High Plains and is being depleted by overuse