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Practice Final Quiz RT 103

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How far above the humeral head should the upper margin of the IR be placed for a lateral projection of the humerus?

a)

1/2 inch

b)

1 inch

c)

1 1/2 inches

d)

2 inches

2.

The central area of the long cylindrical shaft of the radius, ulna and humerus is called the:

a)

Body

b)

Neck

c)

Styloid

d)

Fissure

3.

How many degrees should the elbow angle for an AP oblique projection in medial rotation?

a)

35 degrees

b)

40 degrees

c)

45 degrees

d)

55 degrees

4.

For the PA projection of the wrist the ulnar deviation, the central ray is directed to the:

a)

Pisiform

b)

Scaphoid

c)

Radiocarpal joint

d)

Midcarpal area

5.

Which bone is labeled as letter G in the figure above?

a)

Pisiform

b)

Scaphoid

c)

Triquetrum

d)

Lunate

6.

Which of the following bones make up the wrist?

a)

Five carpals

b)

FIve metacarpals

c)

Eight carpals

d)

Eight metacarpls

7.

What anatomy is labeled as letter B in the image below?

a)

Greater tubercle

b)

Lesser tubercle

c)

Humeral head

d)

Glenoid

8.

How is the upper extremity positioned for the lateral projection of the humerus?

a)

Lateral rotated to place humeral epicondyles at a 45-degree angle

b)

Medially rotated to place humeral epicondyles at a 45-degree angle

c)

Laterally rotated to place the humeral epicondyles parallel with the IR

d)

Medially rotated to place humeral epicondyles perpendicular to the IR

9.

What anatomy of the third digit is labeled as letter C in the figure above?

a)

Distal phalanx

b)

Proximal phalanx

c)

Middle phalanx

d)

Metacarpal

10.

Where is the central ray directed for a lateral projection of the humerus?

a)

Elbow joint

b)

Shoulder joint

c)

Glenoid cavity

d)

Midpoint of the humerus

11.

What anatomic structure is shown in profile on a lateral projection of the humerus?

a)

Capitulum

b)

Glenoid cavity

c)

Lesser tubercle

d)

Greater tubercle

12.

What projection of the elbow demonstrates the radial head and neck free of superimposition?

a)

AP oblique projection, lateral rotation

b)

AP oblique projection, medial rotation

c)

AP projection, partial flexion

d)

AP projection,acute flexion

13.

Which fat pad lies parallel with the anterior aspect of the proximal radius?

a)

Anterior

b)

Coronoid

c)

Posterior

d)

Supinator

14.

The second-largest tarsal bone, and the one that occupies the highest position in the foot, is the:

a)

Talus

b)

Navicular

c)

Calcaneus

d)

Medial cuneiform

15.

What anatomy is labeled as letter D in the image below?

a)

Tibia

b)

Fibula

c)

Talus

d)

Calcaneus

16.

Which two are essential projections of the calcaneus? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Axial (dorsoplantar)

b)

Lateral (mediolateral)

c)

Axial (plantodorsal)

d)

Lateral (lateromedial)

17.

The medial and lateral oblique projections of the ankle require the leg and foot to be how many degrees?

a)

15

b)

20

c)

45

d)

30

18.

When the femur is vertical, the medial condyle is lower than the lateral condyle. How many degrees of differences are there between the two?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

5 to 7

d)

8 to 10

19.

To demonstrate the ankle mortise, the leg and foot should be rotated medially how many degrees?

a)

10

b)

25

c)

45

d)

15 to 20

20.

When the ASIS to tabletop measurement is greater than 24 cm, the central-ray angulation for an AP knee is:

a)

0 degrees

b)

5 degrees cephalad

c)

5 degrees caudad

d)

7 degrees cephalad

21.

What is the central-ray angulation for the axial(plantodorsal) projection of the calcaneus?

a)

25 degrees

b)

30 degrees

c)

35 degrees

d)

40 degrees

22.

How many degrees of angulation are required to open the IP joint spaces of the toes on an AP projection?

a)

0

b)

10

c)

15

d)

20

23.

How many should the leg be flexed for a lateral projection of the knee?

a)

10 degrees

b)

45 degrees

c)

10 to 20 degrees

d)

20 to 30 degrees

24.

Which two of the following are the allowed amount of knee flexion for the PA axial intercondylar fossa (Camp-Coventry) projection? (select all that apply?

a)

20 degrees

b)

30 degrees

c)

40 degrees

d)

50 degrees

25.

Posteriorly, the femoral condyles are separated by a deep depression called the:

a)

Popliteal surface

b)

Intercondylar eminence

c)

Patellar surface

d)

Intercondylar fossa

26.

Valgus and varus deformities of the knee can be evaluated with which of the following projections?

a)

AP

b)

AP oblique

c)

PA, bilateral weight-bearing

d)

AP, bilateral weight-bearing

27.

When the knee is properly positioned for an AP projection, the patella with lie:

a)

Directly in the center of the limb

b)

Slightly to the medial side

c)

Slightly to the lateral side

d)

Parallel with the tabletop

28.

The central-ray angulation for an AP oblique projection of the toes is:

a)

0 degrees

b)

5 degrees posteriorly

c)

10 degrees posteriorly

d)

15 degrees posteriorly

29.

The external oblique position of the AP oblique projection (Judet method) demonstrates the _____ column and _____ rim of the acetabulum.

a)

Iliopublic; posterior

b)

Iliopublic; anterior

c)

Ilioischial; posterior

d)

Ilioischial; anterior

30.

The AP axial projection (Bridgeman method) requires that the central ray be directed:

a)

Perpendicular

b)

20 to 35 degrees caudad for males: 30 to 45 degrees caudad for females

c)

40 degrees caudad

d)

40 degrees cephalad

31.

Unless contraindicated, the lower limb and leg should be internally rotated for an axiolateral projection of the hip (Danelius-Miller). How many degrees of rotation are required?

a)

10 to 15

b)

15 to 20

c)

20 to 25

d)

25 to 30

32.

What is the respiration phase for the AP projection of the pelvis?

a)

Full expiration

b)

Full inspiration

c)

Suspended respiration

d)

Shallow breathing

33.

Which of the following best describes the female pelvis?

1. Heavy bones

2. Oval inlet

3. Wide outlet

a)

1 and 2

b)

1 and 3

c)

2 and 3

d)

1, 2, and 3

34.

In the anatomic position, the body of the femur is angled _____ degrees.

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

d)

20

35.

The neck of the femur projects anteriorly at an approximate angle of _____ degrees.

a)

5 to 10

b)

10 to 15

c)

15 to 20

d)

20 to 25

36.

The anatomy indicated by the arrow on this figure is the:

a)

Pubis

b)

Ischium

c)

Acetabulum

d)

Obturator foramen

37.

The strongest bone in the body is the:

a)

Femur

b)

Pelvis

c)

Skull

d)

Humerus

38.

Which of the following projections can be performed with one exposure if a compensating filter is used?

a)

AP hip

b)

AP oblique ilium

c)

AP oblique acetabulum (Judet method)

d)

Axiolateral hip (Danelius-Miller method)

39.

For the AP oblique femoral necks (modified Cleaves method), the central ray is directed _____ degrees.

a)

0

b)

15

c)

35

d)

45

40.

The central ray for an AP pelvis is directed perpendicular to the center of the IR. The central-ray entrance point will be about _____ inches _____ to the pubic symphysis.

a)

2; superior

b)

3; superior

c)

2; inferior

d)

3; inferior

41.

The area identified on the bone shown in this figure is the:

a)

Posterior inferior spine

b)

Lesser trochanter

c)

Greater trochanter

d)

Intertrochanteric crest

42.

The angle of the SI joints is _____ degrees relative to the midsagittal plane.

a)

10

b)

20

c)

25 to 30

d)

30 to 35

43.

The bone part identified by the arrow in this figure is the:

a)

Acromion

b)

Costal surface

c)

Coracoid process

d)

Glenoid cavity

44.

When the Fisk modification is used for the tangential projection of the intertubercular groove, the vertical humerus is placed at an angle of _____ degrees.

a)

0

b)

5

c)

5 to 10

d)

10 to 15

45.

The part identified by the arrow in this figure is the:

a)

Acromion

b)

Coracoid process

c)

Glenoid cavity

d)

Superior border

46.

All of these projections can be used to demonstrate the clavicle except;

a)

AP

b)

AP axial

c)

PA axial

d)

Lateral

47.

The acromial extremity of the clavicle articulates with the:

a)

Glenoid cavity

b)

Coracoid process

c)

Sternal extremely of the clavicle

d)

Acromion process of the scapula

48.

For the PA oblique projection (scapular Y) of the shoulder, the body is rotated so that the midcoronal plane is how many degrees from the IR?

a)

25

b)

45

c)

45 to 60

d)

25 to 60

49.

When the Fisk modification is used for the tangential projection of the intertubercular groove, the patient is:

a)

Prone

b)

Supine

c)

Sitting

d)

Standing

50.

For an AP projection of the scapula, the recommended exposure field is:

a)

8 ` 10 inches (18 ` 24 cm) lengthwise

b)

10 ` 12 inches (24 ` 30 cm) lengthwise

c)

8 ` 10 inches (18 ` 24 cm) crosswise

d)

10 ` 12 inches (24 ` 30 cm) crosswise

51.

The bony area identified by the arrow in this figure is the:

a)

Acromion

b)

Costal surface

c)

Coracoid process

d)

Glenoid cavity

52.

A Hill-Sachs defect is defined as a:

a)

Fracture due to posterior dislocation of the humeral head

b)

Wedge-shaped compression fracture of the articular surface of the humeral head

c)

Congenital deformity of the humeral head

d)

Congenital deformity of the glenoid cavity

53.

For delineation of the body of the scapula for the lateral projection, how is the arm positioned?

a)

Flex the elbow and place the hand on the anterior abdomen

b)

Flex the elbow and place the hand on the posterior thorax

c)

Extend the arm straight down at the side

d)

Extend the arm upward and rest the forearm on the head

54.

For the lateral projection of the scapula, the body is placed in which position?

a)

True lateral

b)

15 to 25-degree posterior oblique

c)

45 to 60-degree anterior oblique

d)

Prone

55.

The use of compensating filters is particularly useful when using:

a)

Small focal spot

b)

Digital radiography systems

c)

A larger exposure field

d)

Less collimation

56.

The scapula is classified as a(n) _____ bone.

a)

Flat

b)

Short

c)

Long

d)

Irregular

57.

What projection, position, and anatomy of interest in the image below is demonstrated?

a)

AP projection of the shoulder in external rotation

b)

AP projection of the shoulder in internal rotation

c)

AP projection of the shoulder in neutral position

d)

AP oblique projection of the shoulder (Grashey)

58.

The two flat, superior surfaces of the tibia are called the:

a)

Tubercles

b)

Malleoli

c)

Condyles

d)

Tibial plateaus

59.

The patient position and central-ray method demonstrated in this figure is the:

a)

Holmblad (intercondylar fossa)

b)

Camp-Coventry (intercondylar fossa)

c)

Settegast (patellofemoral joint)

d)

Hughston (patellofemoral joint

60.

Which two specific projections of the ankle are performed to diagnose a tear of the medial or lateral ligament (Select all that apply)

a)

AP, eversion stress

b)

AP inversion stress

c)

AP oblique, eversion stress

d)

AP oblique, inversion stress

61.

On which aspect of the foot does the cuboid lie?

a)

Lateral

b)

Medial

c)

Superior

d)

Inferior

62.

Where is the central ray directed for an AP projection of knees, weight-bearing?

a)

1/2 inch below the apices of the patellae

b)

1 inch below the apices of the patellae

c)

1 1/2 inches below the apices of the patellae

d)

2 inches below the apices of the patellae

63.

Which projections of the foot will best demonstrate the structural status of the longitudinal arch?

a)

AP axial

b)

Ap oblique medial rotation

c)

Lateral (lateromedial)

d)

Lateral (lateromedial) weight-bearing

64.

The aspect of the proximal femur shown in this figure is the

a)

Posterior

b)

Anterior

c)

Lateral

d)

Medial

65.

All of these comprise the hips bone, expect:

a)

Pubis

b)

Ischium

c)

ilium

d)

ileum

66.

THe neck of the feumr anteriorly at an approximate angle of degrees

a)

5 to 10

b)

10 to 15

c)

15 to 20

d)

20 to 25

67.

To accurately position the patient for hop radiographs, one must localize two bony points on the pelvis. These two reference points are the:

1. Superior margin of the symphysis

2. Greater trochanter of the femur

3. Anterior superior iliac spine

a)

1, 2

b)

1, 3

c)

2, 3

d)

1, 2, 3

68.

The ilia articulate with the sacrum posteriorly at the:

a)

Hip joint

b)

Pubic symphysis

c)

Sacroiliac joint

d)

Lumbar 5 and sacral 1 area

69.

How many degrees should the feet and lower limbs be internally rotated

a)

5 to 10

b)

15 to 20

c)

20 to 30

d)

25 to 30

70.

The central ray for an AP pelvis is directed perpendicular to the center of the IR. The central-ray entrance point will be about _____ inches _______ to the public symphysis

a)

2; superior

b)

3; superior

c)

2; inferior

d)

3; inferior

71.

Which of the following will be shown " in profile" if the lower limbs are in the correct position for an AP pelvis?

a)

Lesser trochanters

b)

Greater trochanters

c)

Anterior superior iliac spines

d)

Anterior inferior iliac spines

72.

Which of the following method will demonstrate the femoral necks in the AP oblique projection?

a)

Original Cleaves

b)

Modified Cleaves

c)

Danelius-Miller

d)

Lauenstein, Hickey

73.

For the AP oblique femoral necks (modified Cleaves method), the central ray is directed ___ degrees

a)

0

b)

15

c)

35

d)

25

74.

How much should the thighs be abducted for the AP oblique projection of the femoral necks (modified Cleaves method)?

a)

10 degrees

b)

20 degrees

c)

30 degrees

d)

45 degrees

75.

Where does the central ray enter the patient for an AP hip?

a)

The midsagittal plane (MSP) at the level of the ASIS

b)

A sagittal plane 2 inches lateral for MSP as the level of the public symphysis

c)

2 inches distal on a line drawn perpendicular to the midpoint of a line between ASIS and pubic symphysis

d)

A sagittal place 3 inches medial to the ASIS

76.

How many degrees is the lower limb and foot rotated internally for an AP

a)

5 to 10 degrees

b)

12 to 15 degrees

c)

15 to 20 degrees

d)

30 to 35 degrees

77.

What is the recommended collimated field size for an AP hip?

a)

6 x 6 inches

b)

8 x 10 inches

c)

10 x 12 inches

d)

14 x 17 inches

78.

What is the central-ray angle for an AP projections of the hip?

a)

15 degrees

b)

20 degrees

c)

15 to 20 degrees

d)

Perpendicular

79.

Which of the following method will demonstrate the hip in a lateral projection?

a)

Cleaves

b)

Modified Cleaves

c)

Danelius-Miller

d)

Lauenstein, Hickey

80.

Which method demonstrates the hip in an axiolateral projection?

a)

Hickey

b)

Modified Cleaves

c)

Danelius-Miller

d)

Lauenstein

81.

Unless contraindicated, the lower limb and leg should be internally rotated for an axiolateral projection of the hip (Danelius-Miller). How many degrees of rotation are required?

a)

10 to 15

b)

15 to 20

c)

20 to 25

d)

25 to 30

82.

Which of the following devices are necessary to perform an axiolateral projection of the hip (Danelius-Miller)?

1. Sandbags

2. Leg support device

3. IR holder

a)

1, 2

b)

1, 3

c)

2, 3

d)

1, 2 ,3

83.

Which of the following describes the position of the IR for the axiolateral projection of the hip (Danelius-Miller)?

1. Parallel with the long axis of the femoral neck

2. Its upper border in the crease above the iliac crest

3. Perpendicular to the long axis of the femur

a)

1, 2

b)

1, 3

c)

2, 3

d)

1, 2, 3

84.

The respiration phase for the axiolateral projection of the hip (Danelius-Miller) is:

a)

Inspiration

b)

Expiration

c)

Suspended respiration

d)

Shallow breathing

85.

What is the respiration phase for the AP projection of the pelvis?

a)

Full expiration

b)

Full inspiration

c)

Suspended respiration

d)

Shallow breathing

86.

What is the recommended exposure field size and orientation for the AP projection of the hip?

a)

10 x 12 crosswise

b)

10 x 12 lengthwise

c)

14 x 17 lengthwise

d)

14 x 17 crosswise

87.

Which of the following is an important and frequently used radiographic positioning reference point?

a)

Acetabulum

b)

Ischial spine

c)

Anterior superior iliac spine

d)

Posterior superior iliac spine

88.

How far apart should the heels be placed to internally rotate the lower limbs for an AP pelvis?

a)

1 to 3 inches

b)

4 to 6 inches

c)

8 to 10 inches

d)

12 to 15 inches

89.

Where is the central ray directed for the AP oblique projection (modified Cleaves) of the femoral necks?

a)

At the public symphysis

b)

1 inch superior to the public symphysis

c)

1 inch inferior to the pubic symphysis

d)

2 inches superior to the public symphysis

90.

Which of the following projections can be performed with one exposure if a compensating filter is used?

a)

AP hip

b)

AP oblique ilium

c)

AP oblique (Judet Method)

d)

Axiolateral hip (Danelius-Miller method)

91.

What is the central-ray entrance point for the AP oblique projection (Judet method) of the acetabulum?

a)

2 inches superior to the ASIS

b)

2 inches inferior to the ASIS

c)

3 inches superior to the ASIS

d)

3 inches inferior to the ASIS

92.

The external oblique position of the AP oblique projection (Judet method) demonstrates the _____ column and _____ rim of acetabulum.

a)

iliopubic; posterior

b)

liopubic; anterior

c)

ilioischial; posterior

d)

ilioischial; anterior

93.

The AP axial projection (Bridgeman method) requires that the central ray be directed:

a)

perpendicular.

b)

20 to 35 degrees caudad for males; 30 to 45 degrees caudad for females.

c)

40 degrees cephal

d)

40 degrees caudad.

94.

Examine this AP oblique (Judet) image of the right hip obtained with the patient positioned for the internal oblique. What is the anatomy of interest?

a)

Anterior acetabular rim and iliopubic column

b)

Posterior acetabular rim and iliopubic column

c)

Anterior acetabular rim and ilioischial column

d)

Posterior acetabular rim and ilioischial column

95.

Which two of the following describes the central ray for an axiolateral projection of the hip (Danelius-Miller)? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Perpendicular to the IR

b)

10 to 15 degrees cephalad

c)

10 to 15 degrees caudad

d)

Perpendicular to the long axis of the femoral neck