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Real Estate Investment

Total questions: 108

Worksheet time: 1hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A building with two separate living quarters.

a)

Duplex

b)

Apartment

c)

Condominium

d)

Triplex

2.

A building with two separate living quarters.

a)

Duplex

b)

Apartment

c)

Condominium

d)

Triplex

3.

A building with two separate living quarters.

a)

Duplex

b)

Apartment

c)

Condominium

d)

Triplex

4.

Two of the rewards that investments offer are

a)

income and tax benefits.

b)

negative leverage and appreciation.

c)

appreciation and taxation.

d)

positive leverage and prestige.

5.

A real estate investment can take a long period of time to sell. For the investor, this means that real estate is

a)

management intensive.

b)

insensitive to marketing.

c)

vulnerable to seller's markets.

d)

relatively illiquid.

6.

Compared to a stock portfolio, a real estate investment would be considered

a)

a riskier investment.

b)

a more management-intensive investment.

c)

a shorter-term investment.

d)

a more leveraged investment.

7.

Six investors purchase a shopping center. One investor manages the tenants and another handles the marketing and leasing. Two investors manage accounting and finance, and the remaining two run the management office. This is a possible example of

a)

a general partnership.

b)

a limited partnership.

c)

a real estate investment trust

d)

an investment conduit.

8.

Taxable income produced by an income property is

a)

gross income minus expenses plus land and building depreciation.

b)

gross income minus expenses minus land and building depreciation.

c)

gross income minus building depreciation plus land depreciation.

d)

gross income minus expenses minus building depreciation.

9.

As a general rule, in deriving taxable income on an investment property, it is legal to

a)

deduct principal and interest payments from income.

b)

deduct principal payments from income.

c)

deduct interest payments from income.

d)

deduct principal and interest payments from income and capital gain.

10.

Cash flow is a measure of how much pre-tax or after-tax cash an investment property generates. To derive cash flow it is therefore necessary to exclude

a)

cost recovery expense.

b)

interest expense.

c)

loan principal payments.

d)

net operating income.

11.

One way investors measure the yield of an investment is by

a)

dividing net operating income by cash flow.

b)

multiplying the investor's required yield times after-tax cash flow.

c)

dividing cash flow by the investor's equity.

d)

multiplying cash flow times the price paid for the property.

12.

All investors desire their investments to increase in value. However,

a)

the degree of return is inversely related to the degree of risk.

b)

the more the investor stands to gain, the greater the risk that the investor may lose.

c)

investments requiring intense management have lesser returns.

d)

the more liquid an investment is, the greater the chances are that the investment will not appreciate.

13.

He is the one who takes care of all repairs and maintenance, collects the rent and assures suitable living conditions.

a)

Residential land lord

b)

Property manager

c)

Care taker

d)

Owner

14.

Statement # 1 Investment in real estate is good because It appreciate over time.


Statement # 2 Investment in real estate has a tax benefits

a)

True; true respectively

b)

True, false respectively

c)

False ; false respectively

d)

False, True respectively

15.

Statement # 1 Investment in real estate provides hedge against inflation.


Statement # 2 Investment in real estate is a long term investment

a)

True; true respectively

b)

False, false respectively

c)

False; true respectively

d)

True; false respectively

16.

It is consider a speculative investment, so some banks are often unwilling to make loans on _________

a)

Vacant land

b)

Building

c)

Farm land

d)

Apartment

17.

I own a property for 999 years, I own a Freehold property.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

How does Resale property appreciate in value?

a)

Based on the age of the property

b)

Based on paper valuation

c)

Based on gradual increase in transaction value

19.

A town has a rapidly growing population, but there are no  longer any vacant lots around the lake to build more houses. In this case, it is likely that the price of existing homes on the lake

a)

will stabilize, since the population must stabilize.

b)

will increase

c)

will decline, since no further building can take place.

d)

will not show any predictable movement.

20.

If there is a significant undersupply of homes in a  market, construction will tend to increase. This is an  example of

a)

supply outstripping demand.

b)

overpricing products.

c)

the price mechanism.

d)

the market tending toward equilibrium

21.

If commercial real estate rental prices are falling in a  market, it is likely that

a)

demand has outstripped supply of space

b)

the market is in equilibrium

c)

the market is over-supplied

d)

employment is increasing

22.

Which of the following is an important economic characteristic of real estate?

a)

The demand must literally come to the supply

b)

Real estate is a highly liquid product

c)

The product is quick to adapt to market changes

d)

The market is centralized

23.

The foremost factor contributing to commercial and residential demand in a market is

a)

marketing

b)

base employment

c)

existing supply of properties

d)

household income

24.

A construction boom in a market is an indication that prices

a)

have been increasing

b)

have been declining

c)

have been in equilibrium

d)

have exceeded supply

25.

A local government could stimulate the real estate market by

a)

increasing labor costs and curbing the money supply

b)

increasing taxes and interest rates

c)

declaring a moratorium on construction

d)

expanding the sewer system

26.

Two important concerns of retail property users are

a)

trade area population and spending patterns

b)

quality of life and dwelling amenities

c)

costs of occupancy and building efficiency

d)

environmental regulations and access by  

suppliers

27.

Two important concerns of office property users are

a)

trade area population and visibility

b)

convenience and neighborhood make-up

c)

costs of occupancy and building efficiency

d)

environmental regulations and zoning

28.

Price is best described as

a)

what suppliers charge for goods and services

b)

the amount of money consumers are willing to  pay for a product or service

c)

the amount of money a buyer and seller agree to  exchange to complete a transaction

d)

a control placed on prices by the federal  

government

29.

The annual net income from a commercial property is $22,000, and the capitalization rate is 8%. What is the value of the property using the income approach?

a)

$275,000

b)

$176,000

c)

$200,000

d)

$183,000

30.

In the context of the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), the relevant measure of risk is

a)

unique risk.

b)

beta.

c)

standard deviation of returns.

d)

variance of returns.

31.

The market portfolio has a beta of

a)

0

b)

1

c)

–1

d)

0.5

32.

The risk-free rate and the expected market rate of return are 0.06 and 0.12, respectively. According to the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), the expected rate of return on security X with a beta of 1.2 is equal to

a)

0.06

b)

0.144

c)

0.12

d)

0.132

33.

The risk-free rate and the expected market rate of return are 0.056 and 0.125, respectively. According to the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), the expected rate of return on a security with a beta of 1.25 is equal to

a)

0.142

b)

0.144

c)

0.153

d)

0.134

34.

Which statement is not true regarding the market portfolio?

a)

It includes all publicly-traded financial assets.

b)

It lies on the efficient frontier.

c)

It is the tangency point between the capital market line and the indifference curve.

d)

All securities in the market portfolio are held in proportion to their market values.

35.

Your personal opinion is that a security has an expected rate of return of 0.11. It has a beta of 1.5. The risk-free rate is 0.05 and the market expected rate of return is 0.09. According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model, this security is

a)

underpriced

b)

overpriced

c)

fairly priced

d)

Cannot be determined from data provided

36.

The expected return on a security includes a reward for:

a)

market risk and specific risk

b)

specific risk

c)

diversification and portfolio risk

d)

time value of money and market risk

37.

What is the beta of a U.S. Treasury bill?

a)

1.0

b)

−1.0

c)

0

d)

Unknown

38.

Which one of these statements is correct?

a)

Betas can be measured exactly.

b)

If a stock has a very low beta, it is likely to have a high beta in the future

c)

The expected future risk premium is easy to accurately determine

d)

CAPM is widely used as a means of estimating expected returns

39.

In the context of the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), the relevant measure of risk is

a)

unique risk.

b)

beta.

c)

standard deviation of returns.

d)

variance of returns.

40.

The market portfolio has a beta of

a)

0

b)

1

c)

–1

d)

0.5

41.

The risk-free rate and the expected market rate of return are 0.06 and 0.12, respectively. According to the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), the expected rate of return on security X with a beta of 1.2 is equal to

a)

0.06

b)

0.144

c)

0.12

d)

0.132

42.

The type of lease that includes a third party, a lender, is called as which of the following?

a)

Sale and leaseback

b)

Leveraged leases

c)

Operation Lease

d)

Net lease

43.

The party who owns a leased asset is called the:

a)

LESSOR

b)

LESSEE

c)

GUARANTOR

d)

TRUSTEE

44.

Which of the following is not a type of lease?

a)

operating lease

b)

financial lease

c)

Conditional sale agreement

d)

sale and leaseback

45.

__________ lease is a long-term lease that is not cancelable and its life often matches the useful life of the asset.

a)

Financial

b)

Operate

c)

Net

d)

None of the above

46.

NPV stands for what?

a)

Net Present Value

b)

Net Profit Value

c)

Not Present Value

d)

Nice Present Value

47.

What is the first step in working out the NPV?

a)

Draw a table & label Net Cash Flow, Discount Factor, Discounted Net Cash Flow

b)

Multiply the Net Cash Flow by the correct discount factor

c)

Add up all the discounted net cash flows and then minus off the initial cost

d)

Advise the investment to proceed if the NPV is positive

48.

What is the second step in working out the NPV?

a)

Draw a table & label Net Cash Flow, Discount Factor, Discounted Net Cash Flow

b)

Multiply the Net Cash Flow by the correct discount factor

c)

Add up all the discounted net cash flows and then minus off the initial cost

d)

Advise the investment to proceed if the NPV is positive

49.

What is the third step in working out the NPV?

a)

Draw a table & label Net Cash Flow, Discount Factor, Discounted Net Cash Flow

b)

Multiply the Net Cash Flow by the correct discount factor

c)

Add up all the discounted net cash flows and then minus off the initial cost

d)

Advise the investment to proceed if the NPV is positive

50.

What is the fourth step in working out the NPV?

a)

Draw a table & label Net Cash Flow, Discount Factor, Discounted Net Cash Flow

b)

Multiply the Net Cash Flow by the correct discount factor

c)

Add up all the discounted net cash flows and then minus off the initial cost

d)

Advise the investment to proceed if the NPV is positive

51.

What does the time value of money mean?

a)

The idea that a £ today is worth more than a £ in the future

b)

The idea that a £ today is worth less than a £ in the future

c)

The value of time in monetary terms

d)

How much time is takes to earn an investment back

52.

What is the theory behind "the time value of money"?

a)

The £ received today can earn interest up until the £ in the future is received

b)

The £ received today can lose interest up until the £ in the future is received

c)

There is risk involved in predicting future Net Cash Flows

d)

The idea that time is priceless and we should all live in the present

53.

Takes account of time value of money, placing emphasis on earlier cash flows

a)

Advantage

b)

Disadvantage

54.

The following would appear in which section of the cash flow statement?

Cash payments for purchasing inventory

a)

Operating

b)

Investing

c)

Financing

55.

Which is not a category of cash flow?

a)

Operating

b)

Investing

c)

Financing

d)

Current Assets

56.

Although it ignores the time value of money, what is the most common method used in practice for capital budgeting?

a)

internal rate of return

b)

net present value

c)

payback

d)

accounting rate of return

57.

Which of the following is always true with regard to the net present value (NPV) approach?

a)

The NPV and the IRR approaches will always rank projects in the same order

b)

The NPV and Payback approaches will always rank projects in the same approaches

c)

If a project is found to be acceptable under the NPV approach, it would also be acceptable under the internal rate of return (IRR) approach

d)

If a project is found to be acceptable under the NPV approach, it would also be acceptable under the payback approach

58.
Which of the following statements best describe the IRR?
a)
The rate of return on the investment calculated based on cash inflows and outflows.
b)
The rate of return on the investment calculated based on investment capital and profit generate.
c)
The minimum rate of return required for the business to be profitable.
d)
The maximum rate of return that business could generate.
59.

This is a form of analysis defined by calculating how long it will take for the asset to "earn back" the money you invested in purchasing it.

a)

internal rate of return

b)

net present value

c)

payback method analysis

d)

tax accounting

60.

This answers the question, "How much is my asset worth right now?"

a)

net present value

b)

internal rate of return

c)

discount rate

d)

capital budgeting

61.

Although it ignores the time value of money, what is the most common method used in practice for capital budgeting?

a)

internal rate of return

b)

net present value

c)

payback

d)

accounting rate of return

62.

A set of projects in which the acceptance of one project means that the others cannot be accepted

a)

Replacement Decision

b)

Expansion Decision

c)

Independent Projects

d)

Mutually Exclusive Projects

63.

The present value of an asset's future cash flows minus its purchase price initial investment is

a)

Internal Rate of Return

b)

Payback

c)

Net Present Value

d)

Modified Internal Rate of Return

64.

Which of the following statements regarding NPV is true?

a)

If NPV is positive, the project is expected to earn more than the firm's cost of capital.

b)

Accepting negative NPV projects will reduce shareholders' wealth.

c)

If the NPV is positive, the project's cost is less than the project's expected benefit.

d)

All of the above.

65.

The following are the advantages of net present value, EXCEPT

a)

it can be used as a rough screening device to eliminate those projects whose returns do not materialize until later years.

b)

all positive NPVs will increase the value of the firm

c)

it allows comparison of benefits and costs in a logical manner

d)

it recognizes the timing of benefits resulting from the project

66.

When selecting the best project from a group of mutually exclusive projects, you should choose the project with the highest ________.

a)

net present value

b)

internal rate of return

c)

accounting rate of return

d)

payback period

67.

A significant advantage of the net present value is that it _______.

a)

fully considers time value of money

b)

takes into consideration the yield to maturity

c)

usus profit in the analysis

d)

none of the above

68.

Which of the following statement about NPV is FALSE?

a)

It does not allow for projects to be ranked.

b)

It has an inadequate reinvestment assumption.

c)

It is likely that there will be more than one NPV for a project.

d)

All of the above

69.

Which of the following statement regarding NPV is true?

a)

An investment should be accepted if, and only if, the NPV equals the initial investment.

b)

An investment should be accepted if, and only if, the NPV equals zero.

c)

An investment should be accepted if the NPV is positive and rejected if it is negative

d)

An investment with greater cash inflows than cash outflows, regardless of when the cash flows occur, will always have a positive NPV and therefore should always be accepted.

70.

You are analyzing two mutually exclusive projects of similar size and have determined the following data. Both projects have 5-year lives.


Based on the above details, which of the two projects would you accept?

a)

Project A because it has the shortest payback period.

b)

Both as they both have positive NPV.

c)

Project B and reject Project A based on their NPV.

71.

We compute the profitability index of a capital budgeting proposal by

a)

multiplying the internal rate of return by the cost of capital.

b)

dividing the present value of the annual after-tax cash flows by the cost of capital.

c)

dividing the present value of the annual after-tax cash flows by the cash investment in the project.

d)

multiplying the cash inflow by the internal rate of return.

72.

The disadvantage of the IRR method is that

a)

the IRR deals with cash flows.

b)

the IRR gives equal regard to all returns within a project's life.

c)

the IRR will always give the same project accept/reject decision as the NPV.

d)

the IRR requires long, detailed cash flow forecasts.

Answer: D

73.

An independent project should be accepted if it

a)

produces a net present value that is greater than or equal to zero.

b)

produces a net present value that is greater than the equivalent IRR.

c)

has only one sign reversal.

d)

produces a profitability index greater than or equal to zero.

74.

A significant disadvantage of the internal rate of return is that it

a)

does not fully consider the time value of money.

b)

does not give proper weight to all cash flows.

c)

can result in multiple rates of return (more than one IRR).

d)

is expressed as a percentage.

75.

Under what condition would you NOT accept a project that has a positive net present value?

a)

If the project has a profitability index less than zero.

b)

If two or more projects are mutually inclusive.

c)

If the firm is limited in the capital it has available (capital rationing).

d)

If a project has more than one sign reversal.

76.
Which statement is true about liquidity?
a)
The more liquid an investment, the more return
b)
The less liquid the investment, the less return
c)
The more liquid an investment, the less return
d)
Both A and B
77.
A reason that people need to save and invest is to:
a)
Enable their money to make money
b)
Increase the money supply
c)
Be able to get anything they want
d)
Have an opportunity to talk with financial service providers
78.
Savings accounts and money-market accounts are most appropriate for:
a)
Long-term investments like retirement
b)
Earning a high rate of return
c)
Emergency funds and short-term goals
d)
Savings accounts and money-market accounts should be avoided since they carry high risk
79.
Money markets are great for your emergency fund due to their liquidity and stability.
a)
True
b)
False
80.
Suppose you buy a stock for $40 a share at the beginning of the year and the stock pays a dividend of $2 per share at the end of the year. If the stock's price of $37 per share at the end of the year, the return on the stock is closest to:
a)
-7.5%
b)
-2.7%
c)
-2.5%
d)
2.5%
81.
Commercial paper is an example of a:
a)
capital market instrument.
b)
money market instrument.
82.
Suppose a stock had return of 4% the first year, a loss of 5% the second year, and a return of 3% the third year, what is the average annual return on this stock?
a)
0.585%
b)
0.667%
c)
2%
83.

What type of instruments are traded in a Money Market?

a)

Call money

b)

Treasury bills

c)

Commercial bills

d)

All of the above

84.

Treasury bills are also known as:

a)

Fixed interest Bonds

b)

Flat Rate Bonds

c)

Low-Interest Bonds

d)

Zero-Coupon Bonds

85.

A capital market is ideal when:

a)

Financial institutions are sufficiently developed

b)

Finance is available at a reasonable cost

c)

Capital is most productively allocated

d)

All of these

86.

Jayant is holding a hundred shares of a company. He has been given a privileged offered to subscribe to a new issue of shares of the same company in the proportion of 2:1 to the number of shares already possessed by him. Identify the method of floatation being described in the above case.

a)

Offer through prospectus

b)

Offer for sale

c)

Rights issue

d)

Private placement

87.

Institutions such as banks that collect funds from savers that can be loaned to borrowers are known as

a)

financial intermediaries

b)

financial assets

c)

dividends

d)

Credit Unions

88.

Two common ways that title to real estate is voluntarily transferred are by

a)

gift

b)

sale

c)

auction

d)

levied

89.

For a future time period, a cash-flow forecast predicts :

a)

The profit or loss a business will make

b)

The break even level of output

c)

The money flowing into and out of the business

d)

The margin of safety

90.

A business is experiencing cash flow problems. It currently has the following trade credit terms in operation with its suppliers and customers:

Based on this information, which of the following would be a suitable way for the business to improve its cash flow position?

a)

Increase customer credit period and reduce supplier credit period

b)

Reduce customer credit period and increase supplier credit period

c)

Increase credit period with both customers and suppliers

d)

Reduce credit period with both customers and suppliers

91.

Which two of the following are ways a business could improve its cash flow position?

Select two answers:

a)

Increase overheads

b)

Negotiate discounted prices with suppliers

c)

Reduce receipts

d)

Increase payments

e)

Reduce stock levels in the business

92.

Which one is the working capital formula?

a)

Working capital = cash received - cash spent.

b)

Working capital = current assets - current liabilities.

c)

Working capital = operating cash flow - capital expenditures.

93.

Why is the cash flow forecast important?

a)

To know if the business is holding too much cash that could be used in a more profitable way.

b)

To know how much money ask the bank for.

c)

To help the manger to know the available cash to pay/purchase.

d)

All the above.

94.

What means "cash flow as a liquid asset"?

a)

That it assess a company's profitability.

b)

That is immediately available for spending on goods and services.

c)

That it includes all purchases of capital assets and investments in other business ventures.

d)

That it represents the cash a company generates after accounting for cash outflows to support operations and maintain its capital assets.

95.

Which of these ISN’T a way of holding working capital?

a)

Cash

b)

A company car

c)

Debtors

d)

Inventories

96.

Future earnings can help in deciding valuation

a)

True

b)

False

c)

No idea

97.

What needs to be considered when determining the valuation of a business?

a)

Cash flows or returns

b)

The person selling

c)

The person buying

98.

Which valuation approach is not based necessarily based on future earnings but also historical costs?

a)

Discounted Cash Financial (DCF)

b)

Asset-based valuation

c)

Relative valuation

99.

A primary financial market is one that:

a)

involves the sale of existing securities.

b)

offers securities with the highest expected return.

c)

offers the greatest choice of shares and debentures.

d)

involves the sale of securities for the first time.

100.

The amount of debt and equity used by a firm to finance its operations is called the firm's:

a)

debt ratio.

b)

working capital ratio.

c)

capital structure.

d)

financial position.

101.

If you invest $5000 now, and your investment pays 12% per annum, how much will you have in three years if compounded annually (to the nearest dollar)?

a)

$7025

b)

$14 821

c)

$6852

d)

$8014

102.

Suppose you need to pay your air-ticket of $2400 for a European trip next year. If you deposit money now, you can earn 7% per annum. How much do you need to invest today?

a)

$1759

b)

$1968

c)

$2000

d)

$2243

103.

You have been offered an investment that promises to double your money every nine years. Considering the rule of 72, what is your approximate rate of return on the investment?

a)

8%

b)

9%

c)

14%

d)

10%

104.

You have $50 000 now to invest. If you can earn 10% per annum on your deposit, and can invest for five years, what will be the future value of your deposit (to the nearest dollar) at the end of the investment period?

a)

$150 493

b)

$80 526

c)

$99 456

d)

$85 025

105.

The process of accumulating interest in an investment over time to earn more interest is called:

a)

discounting.

b)

compounding.

c)

complexing.

d)

indexing.

106.

The valuation calculating the present value of a future cash flow to determine its value today is called __________ valuation.

a)

complex

b)

current

c)

discounted cash flow

d)

future cash flow

107.

Long-term bonds are ... than short-term bonds.

a)

more liquid

b)

less risky

c)

less sensitive to interest rate changes

d)

subject to more uncertainty

108.

A bond has a coupon rate of 6%, matures in 6 years, and currently sells for $1,000 (par value). Therefore the yield to maturity is also 6%.

a)

True

b)

False