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HEMA 1 PREFINAL EXAM

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following would be associated with an elevated ESR value?

a)

Microcytosis

b)

Polycythemia

c)

Decreased globulins

d)

Inflammation

2.

What does the reticulocyte count assess?

a)

Inflammation

b)

Response to infection

c)

Erythropoietic activity of the bone marrow

d)

Ability of red blood cells to form rouleaux

3.

A patient has a hemoglobin level of 8.0 g/dL. According to the rule of three, what is the expected range for the hematocrit?

a)

21% to 24%

b)

23.7% to 24.3%

c)

24% to 27%

d)

21% to 27%

4.

Which of the following would not interfere with the result when hemoglobin determination is performed by the cyanmethemoglobin method?

a)

Increased lipids

b)

Elevated WBC count

c)

Lyse-resistant RBCs

d)

Fetal hemoglobin

5.

If potassium cyanide and potassium ferricyanide are used in the manual method for hemoglobin determination, the final product is:

a)

Methemoglobin

b)

Azide methemoglobin

c)

Cyanmethemoglobin

d)

Myoglobin

6.

What do you suspect is the cause of the variation in platelet counting among the four instruments (Beckman, Sysmex, Abbott and Siemens)?

a)

Different instruments have different levels of sensitivity.

b)

All instruments use the same principle for counting platelets

c)

Some instruments are susceptible to false-positive platelet flagging under certain condition

d)

Different instruments use different thresholds to capture and count platelets.

7.

A patient peripheral blood film demonstrates agglutinated RBCs, and the CBC shows an elevated MCHC. What other parameters will be affected by the agglutination of the RBCs?

a)

MCV will be decreased and the RBC count will be increased

b)

MCV will be decreased and the RBC count will be decreased.

c)

MCV will be increased and the RBC count will be decreased

d)

MCV will be increased and the RBC count will be increased

8.

Uses diffraction, reflection, and refraction of light waves

a)

Impedance

b)

Radio Frequency (RF)

c)

Optical scatter

d)

None of the given choices

9.

Uses high-voltage electrical waves to measure the internal complexity of cells

a)

Impedance

b)

Radio Frequency (RF)

c)

Optical scatter

d)

None of the given choices

10.

Involves detection and measurement of changes in electrical current between two electrodes

a)

Impedance

b)

Radio Frequency (RF)

c)

Optical scatter

d)

None of the given choices

11.

Orthogonal light scatter is used to measure:

a)

Cell volume

b)

Internal complexity of the cell

c)

Cellular granularity

d)

Nuclear density

12.

On the Beckman Coulter instruments, hematocrit is a calculated value. Which of the following directly measured parameters is used in the calculation of this value?

a)

RDW

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

MCV

d)

MCHC

13.

Which hematology instrument uses volume, conductivity, and five angles of light scatter to determine WBC differential counts

a)

Abbott CELL-DYN Sapphire

b)

Siemens ADVIA 2120i

c)

Sysmex XN-1000

d)

Beckman Coulter UniCel DxH 800

14.

Which hematology instrument uses peroxidase-staining absorbance and light scatter to determine WBC differential count?

a)

Abbott CELL-DYN Sapphire

b)

Siemens ADVIA 2120i

c)

Sysmex XN-1000

d)

Beckman Coulter UniCel DxH 800

15.

Which hematology instrument uses sodium lauryl sulfate for hemoglobin determination at 555 nm absorbance?

a)

Abbott CELL-DYN Sapphire

b)

Siemens ADVIA 2120i

c)

Sysmex XN Series

d)

Beckman Coulter UniCel DxH 800

16.

Which hematology instrument uses fluorescent staining instead of supravital staining for nucleated RBC counting

a)

Abbott CELL-DYN Sapphire

b)

Siemens ADVIA 2120i

c)

Sysmex XN Series

d)

Beckman Coulter UniCel DxH 800

17.

A laboratory science student consistently makes wedge technique blood films that are too long and thin. What change in technique would improve the films?

a)

Increasing the downward pressure on the pusher slide

b)

Decreasing the acute angle of the pusher slide

c)

Placing the drop of blood closer to the center of the slide

d)

Increasing the acute angle of the pusher slide

18.

When a blood film is viewed through the microscope, the

RBCs appear redder than normal, the neutrophils are barely visible, and the eosinophils are bright orange. What is the most likely cause?

a)

The slide was overstained

b)

The stain was too alkaline

c)

The buffer was too acidic.

d)

The slide was not rinsed adequately.

19.

A stained blood film is held up to the light and observed to be bluer than normal. What microscopic abnormality might be expected on this film?

a)

Rouleaux

b)

Spherocytosis

c)

Reactive lymphocytosis

d)

Toxic granulation

20.

A laboratorian using the 40X objective lens sees the following numbers of WBCs in 10 fields: 8, 4, 7, 5, 4, 7, 8, 6, 4, 6. Which of the following WBC counts most closely correlates with the estimate?

a)

1.5 x 109/L

b)

5.9 X 109/L

c)

11.8 X 109/L

d)

24 X 109/L

21.

Which of the following blood film findings indicates EDTA-induced pseudothrombocytopenia?

a)

The platelets are pushed to the feathered end.

b)

The platelets are adhering to WBCs

c)

No platelets at all are seen on the film.

d)

The slide has a bluish discoloration when examined macroscopically

22.

Given the following data, summarize the following blood picture:

WBC: 86.3 X 109/L

HGB: 9.7 g/dL

HCT: 24.2%

MCV: 87.8 fL

MCHC: 33.5%

PLT: 106 X 109/L

a)

Leukocytosis, normocytic-normochromic anemia, thrombocytopenia

b)

Microcytic-hypochromic anemia, thrombocytopenia

c)

Neutrophilia, macrocytic anemia, thrombocytosis

d)

Leukocytosis, thrombocytopenia

23.

Where is most hematopoietic cells or tissue found in adults?

a)

Liver

b)

Lungs

c)

Spleen

d)

Long bones

24.

What is the preferred bone marrow collection site in adults?

a)

Second intercostal space on the sternum

b)

Anterior or posterior iliac crest

c)

Any of the thoracic vertebrae

d)

Anterior head of the femur

25.

What is the normal M:E ratio range in adults in bone marrow examination?

a)

1.5:1 to 3.3:1

b)

5.1:1 to 6.2:1

c)

8.6:1 to 10.2:1

d)

10:1 to 12:1

26.

Which are the most common erythrocytic stages found in normal marrow?

a)

Pronormoblasts

b)

Pronormoblasts and basophilic normoblasts

c)

Basophilic and polychromatophilic normoblasts

d)

Polychromatophilic and orthochromic normoblasts

27.

What cells, occasionally seen in bone marrow biopsy specimens, are responsible for the formation of bone?

a)

Macrophages

b)

Plasma cells

c)

Osteoblasts

d)

Osteoclasts

28.

What is the largest hematopoietic cell found in a normal bone marrow?

a)

Osteoblast

b)

Myeloblast

c)

Pronormoblast

d)

Megakaryocyte

29.

Which of the following is not an indication for a bone marrow examination?

a)

Pancytopenia (reduced numbers of RBCs, WBCs, and platelets in the peripheral blood)

b)

Anemia with RBC indices corresponding to low serum iron and low ferritin levels

c)

Detection of blasts in the peripheral blood

d)

Need for staging of Hodgkin lymphoma

30.

What is the appropriate reagent for the reticulocyte count?

a)

New methylene blue

b)

Phyloxine B

c)

Solution lyses erythrocytes and darkens the cells to be counted

d)

None of the given choices

31.

What is the appropriate procedure and characteristic for the Westergren method

a)

The diluting solution lyses erythrocytes with propylene glycol and contains sodium carbonate and water

b)

The procedure measures the rate of erythrocyte settling.

c)

Ferrous ions are oxidized to the ferric state.

d)

The diluting solution is either 1% hydrochloric acid or 2% acetic acid

32.

What source of error will have greatest effect on Packed Cell Volume (hematocrit)?

a)

Incorrect dilution of blood and diluent

b)

Hemolysis of whole blood specimen

c)

Excessive anticoagulant will produce shrinkage of cells

d)

None of the given choices

33.

A normal blood smear should have no more than approximately _____ (maximum) number of platelets per oil immersion field in an area where the erythrocytes are just touching each other.

a)

10

b)

15

c)

20

d)

25

34.

Match the procedure and reference value: Reticulocyte count (newborn infant)

a)

Up to 13 mm/hour

b)

2.5 to 6.0%

c)

150 to 450 × 109/L

d)

36 to 45%

e)

4.4 to 11.3 × 109/L

35.

Match the procedure and reference value: Packed Cell Volume (Hematocrit)

a)

Up to 13 mm/hour

b)

2.5 to 6.0%

c)

150 to 450 × 109/L

d)

36 to 45%

e)

4.4 to 11.3 × 109/L

36.

Match the procedure and reference value: Westergren ESR method (adult male age 65 years)

a)

Up to 13 mm/hour

b)

2.5 to 6.0%

c)

150 to 450 × 109/L

d)

36 to 45%

e)

4.4 to 11.3 × 109/L

37.

Match the procedure and reference value: Total leukocyte count/Total WBC Count

a)

Up to 13 mm/hour

b)

2.5 to 6.0%

c)

150 to 450 × 109/L

d)

36 to 45%

e)

4.4 to 11.3 × 109/L

38.

Match the procedure and reference value: Direct platelet count

a)

Up to 13 mm/hour

b)

2.5 to 6.0%

c)

150 to 450 × 109/L

d)

36 to 45%

e)

4.4 to 11.3 × 109/L

39.

What clinical or specimen condition will produce an increased total leukocyte count.

a)

Active allergies

b)

Immediate hypersensitivity reactions

c)

Inflammation

d)

A lipemic blood specimen

40.

Match the procedure with the clinical or specimen condition that will produce an increased test result.

Packed Cell Volume: ____________________

a)

Splenectomy

b)

Rouleaux formation

c)

Polycythemia

d)

Crisis associated with hemolytic anemia

41.

Match the procedure with the clinical or specimen condition that will produce an increased test result.

Reticulocyte count: ____________________

a)

Splenectomy

b)

Rouleaux formation

c)

Polycythemia

d)

Crisis associated with hemolytic anemia

42.

Match the procedure with the clinical or specimen condition that will produce an increased test result.

Westergren ESR Method: ____________________

a)

Splenectomy

b)

Rouleaux formation

c)

Polycythemia

d)

Crisis associated with hemolytic anemia

43.

The Packed Cell Volume/Hematocrit procedure can be affected by the

a)

speed of the centrifuge

b)

length of time of centrifugation

c)

ratio of anticoagulant to whole blood

d)

All of the given choices

44.

Which of the following erythrocytic inclusions contain RNA and can be observed by staining with new methylene blue?

a)

Howell-Jolly bodies

b)

Heinz bodies

c)

Pappenheimer bodies

d)

Reticulocytes

45.

The sedimentation rate of erythrocytes can be affected

by all of the following except

a)

ratio of anticoagulant to whole blood

b)

position of the tube

c)

temperature of the specimen or laboratory

d)

All of the given choices

e)

None of the given choices

46.

Match the procedure with the specific stain or use.

Acidified serum lysis test (Ham test):________________

a)

Positive in monocytes

b)

Measures an extremely potent hemolysin at 4°C

c)

Positive in cell of granulocytic lineage

d)

Measures hemolysis

47.

Match the procedure with the specific stain or use.

Alpha-naphthyl acetate esterase:________________

a)

Positive in monocytes

b)

Measures an extremely potent hemolysin at 4°C

c)

Positive in cell of granulocytic lineage

d)

Measures hemolysis

48.

Match the procedure with the specific stain or use.

Naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase:________________

a)

Positive in monocytes

b)

Measures an extremely potent hemolysin at 4°C

c)

Positive in cell of granulocytic lineage

d)

Measures hemolysis

49.

Match the procedure with its appropriate test reaction.

Kleihauer-Betke test:_________________________

a)

Erythrocytes lysed by toluene and saponin with the released product being reduced by sodium hydrosulfite

b)

Fetal hemoglobin is not eluted/degraded

c)

Denatured by crystal violet

d)

Screens for one of the most prevalent hereditary enzyme deficiencies

50.

Leukocytes that demonstrate a positive reaction in the tartratic acid-resistant acid phosphatase cytochemical stain are the lymphocytes seen in

a)

infectious lymphocytosis

b)

malignant lymphoma

c)

acute lymphoblastic leukemia (non-T type)

d)

hairy cell leukemia

51.

A decreased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score is seen in

a)

polycythemia vera

b)

chronic myelogenous leukemia

c)

leukemoid reactions

d)

acute myelogenous leukemia

52.

In the leukocyte alkaline phosphatase procedure, blood smears should be stained

a)

within 8 hours of specimen collection

b)

within 48 hours of specimen collection

c)

within 72 hours of specimen collection

d)

within 5 days of specimen collection

53.

The alpha-naphthyl acetate esterase stain is detected primarily in _____ and is almost absent in _____.

a)

megakaryocytes; erythrocytes

b)

monocytes; granulocytes

c)

granulocytes; monocytes

d)

erythrocytes; megakaryocytes;

54.

Which of the following is not a benefit of laboratory instrumentation to the hematology laboratory?

a)

Produces faster results from specimens

b)

Reduced cost on rarely performed procedures

c)

Less variation in technique from technologist to technologist

d)

Increased accuracy because data are collected on more cells counted or analyzed

55.

Electrical impedance principle

a)

The volume of each cell is proportional to the degree of light scatter

b)

Each cell momentarily increases resistance

56.

The major application of fl ow-cell cytometry i

a)

determining cell size and granularity

b)

sorting of cells and cellular identification using monoclonal antibodies

c)

treating cancer cells and identifying specific virus types

d)

counting leukocytes and platelets

57.

The term parameter means

a)

a subset of a population

b)

the mean value of a sample

c)

two SDs on either side of the mean value

d)

any numerical value that describes an entire population

58.

Which parameters are calculated rather than directly measured

a)

Hematocrit and erythrocyte distribution width

b)

Erythrocyte count and leukocyte count

c)

Leukocyte count and hematocrit

d)

Platelet count and platelet volume

59.

Applying the optical principle of laser scatter technology to cell counting and analysis, discrimination between erythrocytes and platelets depends on the

a)

cellular volume

b)

cellular refractive index

c)

time of flight through the sensing zone

d)

all of the given choices

60.

In an erythrocyte histogram, the erythrocytes that are larger than normal will be to the _____ of the normal

distribution curve.

a)

right

b)

left

c)

in the middle

61.

The RDW and MCV are both quantitative descriptors of erythrocyte size. If both are increased, the most probable erythrocytic abnormality would be

a)

iron deficiency anemia

b)

acquired aplastic anemia

c)

megaloblastic anemia

d)

hemoglobinopathy

62.

The MPV is

a)

analogous to the MCHC

b)

a direct measure of the platelet count

c)

a measurement of the average volume of platelets

d)

a comparison of the patient’s value to the normal value

63.

An excessive accumulation of iron in body tissues is called

a)

Hemochromatosis

b)

Erythroblastosis

c)

Megaloblastosis

d)

Acrocyanosis

64.

The most commonly used gauge of needles in venipuncture:

a)

20, 21, 22

b)

23, 24, 25

c)

15, 16, 18

d)

Either of the given choices

65.

The two most widely used needle lengths are:

a)

0.5 inch and 1 inch

b)

1 inch and 1.5 inches

c)

1.5 inch and 2 inches

d)

2 inches and 2.5 inches

66.

In venipuncture, the needle should be in the bevel up position (needle opening facing upward), pointing in the same direction as the vein, and should make an approximate ____ degree angle with them.

a)

10 degree angle

b)

15 degree angle

c)

30 degree angle

d)

45 degree angle

67.

The tourniquet should not be left on longer than ____ minute(s). If it remains on for a longer periods, the blood on the area will have an increased concentration of cells (hemoconcentration)

a)

1 minute

b)

<2 minutes

c)

3 minutes

d)

4 minutes

68.

All are true for skin puncture, except:

a)

The site of choice in infant is the lateral (outside or medial (inside) surface of the plantar side (bottom of the heel)

b)

The site should be warmed to a temperature no greater than 42 degrees Celsius for no longer than 2-5 mins unless collection if for capillary blood gas analysis.

c)

Povidone iodine should not be used because of possible blood contamination, which would produce falsely elevated levels of potassium, phosphorus, or uric acid.

d)

Punctures should not be made more than 4 mm deep because of the risk of bone injury and possible infection (osteomyelitis)

69.

Th veins in this site should not be used without physician permission

a)

Veins at the antecubital region

b)

Veins at the dorsal side of the wrist and hand

c)

Veins at the foot

d)

None of the given choices

70.

It takes approximately 18 days for a BFU_E to mature to an RBC, of which about 6 days are spent as identifiable precursors in the bone marrow. The mature erythrocyte has a life span of ____ in circulation.

a)

5 days

b)

8-11 days

c)

9-12 days

d)

120 days

71.

Hemoglobinization can first be recognized in what erythrocyte maturation stage?

a)

Pronormoblast

b)

Basophilic normoblast

c)

Reticulocyte

d)

Orthochromic normoblast

e)

Polychormatophilic normoblast

72.

High energy in the cell is in the form of:

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

ATP

d)

ADP

e)

2, 3 DPG

73.

An enzyme in the Embden-Meyerhof pathway and may be the most common causes of hereditary nonspherocytic anemia involving this patwhay.

a)

G6PD Deficiency

b)

Pyruvate Kinase Deficiency

c)

Hexose enzyme deficiency

d)

Beta galactosidase deficiency

74.

The earliest granulocytic stage in which specific granules appear:

a)

Myeloblast

b)

Metamyelocyte

c)

Promyelocyte

d)

Band

e)

Myelocyte

75.

The lifespan of the neutrophils is approximately ____ from myeloblast to death:

a)

1-5 days

b)

6-8 days

c)

9-10 days

d)

120 days

76.

Enzyme present only in maturing neutrophils from myelocyte onwards

a)

Acid phosphatase

b)

Leukocyte Alkaline Phosphatase

c)

Peroxidase

d)

Sudan Black B

77.

This is helpful in differentiating chronic myelogenous leukemia from a leukomoid reaction or polycthemia vera

a)

Acid phosphatase

b)

Leukocyte Alkaline Phosphatase

c)

Peroxidase

d)

Sudan Black B

78.

An OIF containing 100 RBCs should have ____ platelets, whereas field with 200 RBCs should have ____ platelets.

a)

3-10, 5-20 platelets

b)

8-20, 20-50 platelets

c)

5-20, 10-40 platelets

d)

20-40, 50-100 platelets

79.

Cyanmethemoglobin method for determining hemoglobin concentration measures all of the following except?

a)

Carboxyhemoglobin

b)

Oxyhemoglobin

c)

Sulfhemoglobin

d)

Methemoglobin

e)

Deoxyhemoglobin

80.

A white cell count above ___ is termed leukocytosis.

a)

4.0 x109/L

b)

9.0 x109/L

c)

10.0 x109/L

d)

11.0 x109/L

81.

Turbidity if the sodium dithionate tube test indicate the presence of

a)

Adult hemoglobin

b)

Fetal hemoglobin

c)

Sickling hemoglobin

d)

Unstable hemoglobin

82.

Red blood cells appear grayish-blue and the white cell nuclei will stain very deeply purple

a)

pH is too acidic

b)

pH is too alkaline

c)

Insufficient washing of smear

d)

None of the given choices

83.

A tachometer is used to check centrifuge and particularly measures:

a)

optical density

b)

pressure

c)

surface tension

d)

relative centrifugal force

e)

revolutions per minute

84.

Three values are counted directly on electronic impedance instruments

a)

RBCs, WBCs, and platelets

b)

RBCs, WBCs, and hemoglobin

c)

RBCs, RDW, and MCV

d)

Hematocrit

85.

The major function of neutrophilic granulocytes is

a)

antibody production

b)

destruction of parasites

c)

phagocytosis

d)

suppression of inflammation

86.

Which of the following are contents of basophilic granules?

a)

Heparin

b)

Histamine

c)

Myeloperoxidase

d)

Both histamine and Heparin

87.

The tissue basophil can be referred to as a/an

a)

mast cell

b)

macrophage

c)

mononuclear cell

d)

antibody-producing cell

88.

The major function of eosinophils is

a)

suppression of inflammatory reactions

b)

destruction of protozoa

c)

participation in anaphylaxis

d)

phagocytosis

89.

Which of the following molecules is stored in platelet dense granules?

a)

Serotonin

b)

Fibrinogen

c)

PF4

d)

Platelet-derived growth factor

90.

2/3 of the circulating platelets are found in the?

a)

Liver

b)

Peripheral Blood

c)

Kidney

d)

Spleen

91.

Aperture plugs are probably the most common problem in cell counting. It is associated with:

a)

Negative error

b)

Positive error

c)

Either positive or negative

d)

Neither positive or negative error

92.

Oval macrocyte

a)

Megalocyte

b)

Drepanocyte

c)

Codocyte

d)

Discocyte

93.

Echinocytes

a)

Short, scalloped, or spike-like projections that are regularly distributed around the cell

b)

Fragments of erythrocytes

c)

The scooped-out part of an erythrocyte that remains after a blister cell ruptures

d)

Compact round shape

94.

Associated with a decrease in hemoglobin synthesis.

a)

Microcytes

b)

Sickle cells

c)

Macrocytes

d)

Acanthocytes

95.

Normocytic RBC are usually present in the following RBC disorders except?

a)

Acute Post Hemorrhagic Anemia

b)

Aplastic Anemia

c)

Hemolytic Anemia

d)

Chronic Blood Loss Anemia

96.

Microcytes are seen in

a)

Iron deficiency anemia

b)

Abetalipoproteinemia

c)

Pernicious anemia

d)

No related disease state

97.

Pappenheimer bodies

a)

Nuclear remnants of DNA

b)

Precipitated denatured hemoglobin

c)

Granules composed of ribosomes and RNA

d)

Aggregates of iron, mitochondria, and ribosomes near the red cell periphery as purple dots.

98.

The x-axis on a blood cell histogram represents:

a)

cell size

b)

relative numbers per cell

c)

right angle scatter

d)

none of the given choices

99.

Di Guglielmo's Syndrome

a)

Acute Monoblastic Leukemia without differentiation

b)

Acute megakaryocytic leukemia

c)

Erythroleukemia

d)

Acute myelomonocytic leukemia

100.

Aka wandering cells.

a)

Macrophages

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Monocyte

d)

Plasmacyte