wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

FINAL EXAM BIOLOGY 6/25

Total questions: 104

Worksheet time: 2hrs 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What type of selection would most likely result in a higher and narrower peak in a trait distribution graph?

a)

A) Directional selection

b)

B) Disruptive selection

c)

C) Stabilizing selection

d)

D) Sexual selection

2.

Which best explains why only snakes in regions that overlap with toxic newts developed resistance?

a)

A) The snakes learned to avoid the newts and passed this behavior to their offspring

b)

B) Resistant snakes migrated to the habitats of the newts

c)

C) All snakes originally had resistance, but those outside newt areas lost it

d)

D) Randomly resistant snakes survived and passed on the trait

3.

Which study would provide the best evidence that pack hunting in wolves is advantageous?

a)

Compare the hunting skills of wolves of different ages

b)

Observe the types of prey hunted by individuals versus packs

c)

Measure the ratio of males to females in hunting packs

d)

Compare the survival rates of pups in different pack sizes

4.

How could lizards adapt to increased predation by raccoons at the entrances of their burrows?

a)

Switch to daytime hunting

b)

Dig more interconnected burrows

c)

Feed on underground plant roots

d)

Develop group living behaviors

5.

How do altruistic genes increase in guard bees that do not reproduce within the population?

a)

A) Altruism genes are dominant

b)

B) The large size of the colony compensates for individual losses

6.

If 35% of the fish have the SS genotype, 15% have ss, and 60% have Ss, what percentage have stripes?

a)

85%

b)

90%

c)

95%

d)

100%

7.

Which factor is least likely to cause the extinction of a population?

a)

Extensive flooding

b)

Decrease in dissolved oxygen in a lake

c)

Decrease in predator species

d)

Extreme drought

8.

What is the main cost for an individual meerkat when acting as a sentinel?

a)

Energy

b)

Opportunity

c)

Risk

d)

Resources

9.

Which of the following changes is an example of sexual selection?

a)

A) A nucleic acid sequence incorrectly copied during DNA replication

b)

B) The average size of individuals decreases due to predation

c)

C) Female frogs select males with the deepest croaks

d)

D) A population adapting to colder temperatures

10.

Which of the following is not an example of innate behavior?

a)

Spiders of a certain species making similar web patterns

b)

A turtle crawling toward the ocean after hatching

c)

A cheetah learning to hunt by observing its mother

d)

Male penguins caring for eggs without prior observation

11.

In the evolution of heat-tolerant fruit flies, what would most likely happen first?

a)

Fruit flies migrate to warmer regions

b)

Fruit flies with heat tolerance survive and reproduce

c)

There is variation in heat tolerance in the original population

d)

The offspring inherit the heat tolerance traits

12.

Why would a smaller population of lizards be more affected by the bottleneck effect after a storm?

a)

Smaller populations have less genetic diversity to begin with

b)

The storm would kill more individuals in a smaller population

c)

Smaller populations recover more slowly

d)

The habitat would be more severely damaged for a smaller population

13.

How could climate change cause changes in the frequencies of fur color in rabbits?

a)

By directly causing mutations in the DNA of rabbits

b)

By changing the amount of snow cover, affecting the effectiveness of camouflage

c)

By altering the reproductive patterns of rabbits

d)

By introducing new predator species into the area

14.

What does the experiment with starlings suggest about grouping behavior in nature?

a)

Grouping provides no benefit against predators

b)

Grouping increases individual vigilance

c)

Grouping reduces individual risk through shared vigilance

d)

Grouping attracts more predators

15.

According to the data on fish population and CO₂, which statement is most accurate?

a)

The increase in CO₂ definitely caused the decrease in the fish population

b)

There is a correlation between the increase in CO₂ and the decrease in the fish population

c)

Reducing CO₂ will immediately restore the fish population

d)

The decrease in the fish population is not related to environmental changes

16.

Process by which individuals that are better adapted to their environment survive and reproduce more successfully; also called natural selection. (a)  

Choose from the below words

Natural Selection

Adaptation

Survival of the Fittest

Evolution

17.

The mechanism that causes evolution is ​ (a)   .

Choose from the below words

natural selection

biogeography

vestigial structures

homologous structures

18.

What does the image represent?

a)

Founder effect

b)

Mutations

c)

Bottleneck effect

d)

Gene flow

19.

(a)   is when a change in allele frequencies occurs due to a random event.

Choose from the below words

Genetic drift

evolution

Gradualism

Divergent evolution

20.

Formation of new species. (a)  

Choose from the below words

Speciation

Adaptation

Diversification

Extinction

21.

A change in a gene, group of genes, or chromosome that results in a change in proteins

a)

Replication

b)

Mutations

c)

Translation

d)

Transcription

22.

The errors or changes that occur in the DNA sequence are called....

a)

adaptations

b)

Darwinism

c)

mutations

d)

natural selection

23.

Genetic variation can arise from a random change in the DNA of a gene. This change is called

a)

mutation

b)

gene flow

c)

gene pool

d)

allele

24.

Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix during DNA replication?

a)

Ligase

b)

Helicase

c)

Primase

d)

DNA polymerase

25.

What is the main purpose of transcription in the process of gene expression?

a)

Copy DNA into mRNA

b)

Synthesize proteins from amino acids

c)

Assemble ribosomes

d)

Replicate the entire genome

26.

During translation, which molecule carries amino acids to the ribosome?

a)

DNA

b)

rRNA

c)

mRNA

d)

tRNA

27.

DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,

a)

each with two original strands

b)

each with two new strands

c)

each with one new strand and one original strand

d)

one with two new strands and the other with two original strands

28.

Which enzyme joins the Okazaki fragments?

a)

Helicase

b)

Polymerase

c)

Ligase

d)

Primase

29.

Which enzyme is responsible for adding nucleotides?

a)

Helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

Ligase

d)

Primase

30.

According to the diagram, the enzyme (represented in gray) is most likely...

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Ligase

c)

Primase

d)

Helicase

31.

Okazaki fragments are found on the _______________ strand

a)

Leading

b)

Lagging

32.

DNA replication occurs during which phase of the cell cycle?

a)

G 1 phase

b)

S phase

c)

G 2 phase

d)

Mitotic phase

33.

DNA is built in this direction

a)

5' to 3' (new nucleotides are added to the 3' end)

b)

3' to 5' (new nucleotides are added to the 5' end)

c)

3' to 5' (new nucleotides are added to the 3' end)

d)

5' to 3' (new nucleotides are added to the 5' end)

34.

The two DNA strands are held together by

a)

covalent bonds

b)

hydrogen bonds

c)

nothing

35.

The DNA sequence is TTA CCG. What is the complementary sequence?

a)

TTA CCG

b)

AAT GGC

c)

GGC AAT

36.

The DNA sequence is ATG. What is the complementary sequence?

a)

ATG

b)

GTA

c)

TAC

37.

What is a difference between DNA and RNA?

a)

RNA is double-stranded

b)

RNA is not made up of nucleotides

c)

RNA contains uracil instead of thymine

d)

RNA does not contain a sugar

38.

With which RNA bases would TACGAA pair during transcription?

a)

AUGCUU

b)

ATGCTT

c)

GCATCC

d)

GCAUCC

39.

What happens to the mRNA sequence after it has been synthesized?

a)

it remains in the nucleus

b)

it leaves the cell

c)

it leaves the nucleus

d)

it breaks into smaller pieces

40.

What does tRNA do?

a)

provides DNA information to the ribosomes

b)

transfers amino acids to the ribosomes

c)

is part of the ribosomes

d)

builds proteins

41.

Where are proteins made?

a)

ER

b)

nucleus

c)

cytoplasm

d)

mitochondria

42.

What does this image represent?

a)

amino acid

b)

base pairing

c)

nucleotide

d)

the DNA molecule

43.

What will be the resulting mRNA from this DNA sequence:
GAT-TAC-AGA-TTA-CAT?

a)

CTA-ATG-TCT-AAT-GTA

b)

GAU-UAG-UGA-UUA-GUT

c)

CUA-AUG-UCU-AAU-GUA

d)

CAT-ACA-TAC-ATA-TAG

44.

Which enzyme is used in transcription?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

ligase

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

helicase

45.

Which of these bases does not exist in RNA?

a)

C

b)

T

c)

U

d)

A

46.

Using the codon, identify the amino acid sequence:
AUG-CCA-GUA-GGG-UAA

a)

MET-HIS-ALA-GLY-STOP

b)

MET-PRO-GLY-VAL-STOP

c)

MET-PRO-VAL-GLY-STOP

d)

MET-THR-SER-ASP-STOP

47.

Which amino acid is formed from the RNA codon UUA?

a)

Phenylalanine

b)

Leucine

c)

Serine

d)

Tyrosine

48.

Which combination is Homozygous Dominant?

a)

HH

b)

Hh

c)

hh

d)

hH

49.

The following genotypes are ​ (a)   ​ : Tt, Mm and Gg​ ​

Choose from the below words

heterozygous

homozygous

50.

The following physical descriptions are ​ (a)   hair color, eye color, height.

Choose from the below words

phenotypes

genotypes

51.

If your genotype is Bb, then you can only pass a B or b to your child but you can't pass both.

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Independent Assortment

52.

Different traits are inherited independently of each other

a)

Law of independent assortment

b)

Genetics law

53.

Sex chromosomes are different in male and female. Which statement is correct?

a)

Males are XX and Females are XY.

b)

Males are ii and Females are XX.

c)

Males are XY and Females are XX.

d)

Males are XY and Females are ii.

54.

Polygenic traits are controlled by more than 1 pair of genes. Give an example.

a)

Freckles

b)

Eye Color

c)

Dimples

d)

Widows Peak

55.

Which type of allele is masked or hidden in this example: Hh

a)

The dominant one

b)

The homozygous one

c)

The heterozygous one

d)

The recessive one

56.

Why do sex-linked disorders carried on the X chromosome impact males more than females?

a)

Because males only get one X and if it's affected, they automatically get the disorder.

b)

Because males have a weaker immune system.

c)

Because males have 2 X chromosomes.

d)

Because males are more likely to get bad X chromosomes from their Dad.

57.

Monohybrid means...

a)

the trait has one dominant and one recessive allele

b)

the trait has many dominant and recessive alleles

c)

the trait will always be homozygous

d)

the trait is going to cause a disorder

58.

Incomplete Dominance: white flowers (Cw, Cw) and red flowers (Cr, Cr) make pink flowers (Cr,Cw). If a red and pink flower mated, what is the probability of having a pink flower?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

59.

A= Dimples

a= No dimples

What is true about both parents?

a)

Both parents are homozygous and have dimples.

b)

Both parents are homozygous and don't have dimples.

c)

Both parents are heterozygous and don't have dimples.

d)

Both parents are heterozygous and have dimples.

60.

A= Dimples

a= No dimples

What is true about the offspring?

a)

There are 3 different genotypes possible.

b)

There are 3 different phenotypes possible.

c)

50% will not have dimples.

d)

25% will have dimples.

61.

What are the phenotype percentages of the offspring?

(A-Brown fur color; a-white fur color)

a)

50 % Brown fur and 50% White fur

b)

25 % Brown fur and 75% White fur

c)

75 % Brown fur and 25% White fur

d)

0% Brown fur and 100% White fur

62.
If T=Tall & t=short, what is the genotypic ratio?
a)
1:3
b)
3:1
c)
1:2:1
d)
2:2
63.
In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant over brown fur (b). If a rabbit has brown fur, what can you conclude about its genotype?
a)
It is BB.
b)
It is Bb
c)
It is brown
d)
It is bb.
64.
Mendel's law of segregation states that during meiosis, the alleles that control each trait separate, and only _________________ from each pair is/are passed to the offspring
a)
one allele
b)
the dominant trait
c)
two alleles
d)
the recessive trait
65.
Why are there no white rabbit babies?
a)
The white gene is not present in any of the babies.
b)
It takes two recessive genes to show the trait.
c)
Grey is a better color.
d)
Baby five will be white.
66.

What is the genotypic ratio of the offspring?

a)

3:1

b)

1:3

c)

1:2:1

d)

2:2

67.

Based on the karyotype, what is the sex of this person?

a)

Male

b)

Female

68.

Is this trait dominant or recessive

a)

Dominant

b)

Recessive

69.

Human Genome Project

a)

a biomolecule comprised of amino acid residues joined together by peptide bonds

b)

scientific research project with the goal of determining the base pairs that make up human DNA

c)

a change in the DNA sequence of an organism

d)

a technology that can be used to edit genes and, as such, will likely change the world

70.

What is the scientific term that refers to sex cells?

a)

autosome

b)

gamete

c)

karyotype

d)

chromosome

71.

The exchange of genetic information that insures that every gamete is unique is referred to as

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

reduction division

d)

crossing over

72.

How many times does a sex cell undergo mitosis?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

73.

What is another term for body cells?

a)

somatic cells

b)

gamete

c)

stem cell

d)

neural cell

74.
What is the name of the step in the diagram above? 
a)
Interphase
b)
Prophase I
c)
Metaphase I
d)
Anaphase I
75.
What kind of cells are made in MEIOSIS?
a)
Haploid cells
b)
Diploid Cells
c)
Skin Cells
d)
Liver Cells
76.

How many cells are created at the end of Meiosis I?

a)

2 haploid cells

b)

4 haploid cells

c)

2 diploid cells

d)

4 diploid cells

77.

By looking at the chromosomes how can you tell that this person is biologically female?

a)

Because there are two X chromosomes

b)

Because there are more chromosomes than in a male

78.

These are the chromosomes of someone with Kleinfelters syndrome. What is different about their chromosomes?

a)

There is only one Y chromosome

b)

One of the 5th chromosomes is too curved

c)

There is an extra X chromosome

d)

There are too few chromosomes

79.

Based on the karyotype, can you guess the name of this genetic disorder?

a)

Curvy 3

b)

Jacob's syndrome

c)

Triple X

d)

Superwoman syndrome

80.

On which chromosome is the mutation?

a)

21

b)

18

c)

7

d)

All

81.
An environmental factor such as predation, disease, and competition that depends on the number of members in a population per unit
a)
dispersion
b)
density- independent factor
c)
density- dependent factor
d)
population growth rate
82.

Which one would represent a country that has a high birth rate and death rate?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

83.
What type of population growth is shown in the graph?  
a)
logistic growth
b)
logical growth
c)
exponential growth
d)
density-dependent growth
84.
What type of growth is shown on this graph?
a)
logistic
b)
exponential
c)
average
d)
density-independent
85.
Which of the following is a density-dependent limiting factor?
a)
human activities 
b)
unusual weather
c)
competition
d)
natural disaster
86.
Which of the following will increase the size of a population?
a)
emigration and births
b)
immigration and deaths
c)
immigration and births
d)
emigration and deaths
87.
Which of the following is a density-independent limiting factor?
a)
natural disaster
b)
predation
c)
disease
d)
parasitism
88.
What pattern of growth will a population with limited resources show?
a)
density-dependent
b)
exponential 
c)
logistic
d)
logical 
89.

What is primary succession?

a)

Primary succession is the ecological succession that occurs in an area with established vegetation.

b)

Primary succession is the ecological succession that occurs in an area with no water.

c)

Primary succession is the ecological succession that occurs in an area with no soil.

d)

Primary succession is the ecological succession that occurs in an area with abundant soil.

90.

Describe the concept of climax community in ecological succession.

a)

The climax community is constantly changing in species composition.

b)

The climax community is the stable, mature community that undergoes little or no change in species over time.

c)

The climax community is characterized by high species turnover.

d)

The climax community is the initial stage of ecological succession.

91.
After a forest fire, an ecosystem would start regrowth through -
a)
primary succession
b)
secondary succession
c)
climax community
d)
limiting factors
92.
What is the order of succession shown in this figure?
a)
A, B, C, D
b)
B, A, D, C
c)
C, D, A, B
d)
D, A, B, C
93.
The finches on the Galapagos island were similar in form except for variations of their beaks. Darwin observed that these variations were useful for:
a)
 attracting a mate
b)
 defending territory
c)
 building nests
d)
 gathering food
94.
What does sexual reproduction allow for?
a)
Increased genetic diversity
b)
Increased offspring
c)
Decreased genetic diversity
d)
Decreased rate of evolution
95.
You look at two species and see very similar DNA. What does this likely tell you?
a)
These are the same animal.
b)
These animals have a common ancestor.
c)
These animals are not likely related.
d)
These animals are likely becoming one species.
96.

What was the first major human breakthrough that enabled our species' survival?

a)

Agriculture

b)

Urbanization

c)

Industrialization

d)

Genetic modification

97.

What is the main concern raised by Thomas Malthus in 1798?

a)

Rapid expansion of humans

b)

Technological innovation for human population

c)

Overpopulation outstripping the planet's food supply

d)

Decreasing human life expectancy

98.

What is a major negative impact of deforestation?

a)

Decrease in pollution

b)

An increase in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

c)

Increase in biodiversity

d)

More space for development and farming

99.

What is the BEST solution to pollution?

a)

Clean up

b)

Prevention

c)

Alternative fuel sources

d)

Planting more trees

100.

What are some causes of water pollution?

a)

Chemical fertilizers and pesticides

b)

Accidental oil spills

c)

Sewage and wastewater

d)

Industrial waste

e)

All of the above

101.

Global warming could cause the polar ice caps to melt increasing the amount of fresh water in the ocean and disrupting the flow of natural currents that cycle heat around the world. This change would most likely result in which of the following?

a)

An increase in climate change

b)

The collision of tectonic plates

c)

An increase in producer populations

d)

The reduction of ocean sediments

102.
Most water pollution is the result of
a)
human activities.
b)
drought.
c)
volcanic eruptions.
d)
storms.
103.

What is the making of gametes called?

a)

Spermatogenesis

b)

Egg Generator

c)

Oogenesis

d)

Gametogenesis

104.

Which of the following describes the fate of most polar bodies formed during oogenesis?

a)

No polar bodies are formed during oogenesis.

b)

They will help correct mutations in ovum.

c)

They will be fertilized by a sperm and result in fraternal twins.

d)

They will die/decompose.