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BMS Remedial Exam

Total questions: 62

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is produced in the Citric Acid Cycle?

a)

2 ATP

b)

2 GTP

c)

6 CO2

d)

2 FADH2

e)

10 NADH

2.

In the Electron Transport Chain, Rotenone inhibits which complex?

a)

Complex I

b)

Complex III

c)

Complex II

d)

Complex IV

3.

In the Electron Transport Chain, Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of which complex?

a)

Complex I

b)

Complex III

c)

Complex II

d)

Complex IV

4.

In the Electron Transport Chain, Antimycin A inhibits which complex?

a)

Complex IV

b)

Complex II

c)

Complex I

d)

Complex III

5.

In the Electron Transport Chain, Cyanide and CO inhibit which complex?

a)

Complex IV

b)

Complex I

c)

Complex III

d)

Complex II

6.

What are the products of glycolysis?

a)

4 pyruvate

b)

2 ATP

c)

2 pyruvate

d)

4 ATP

e)

2 NADH

7.

When do we use the Citric Acid Cycle?

a)

When we have high energy (lots of ATP)

b)

When we have low energy (ADP, AMP)

8.

Select all of the following that are Monosaccharides

a)

Frutose

b)

Mannose

c)

Lactose

d)

Sucrose

e)

Glucose

9.

What is Lactose composed of?

a)

Glucose + Glucose

b)

Glucose + fructose

c)

Glucose + Galactose

10.

Oxygen is the ultimate electron _______

a)

Donor

b)

Acceptor

11.

Where are the GLUT1 Transporters located?

a)

in the brain

b)

in the muscle

c)

in all cells

d)

in the intestines

12.

Which of the following does NOT occur in Phase II Metabolism?

a)

Glucuronidation

b)

Hydrolysis (breaks down via H2O)

c)

Sulfation (addition of sulfates)

d)

Acetylation (adds acetyl ions)

13.

What drugs/medications inhibit CYP3A4 Enzymes?

a)

St. John's Wort

b)

Antifungal Azoles

c)

HIV Drugs

d)

Grapefruit Juice

14.

What is the most abundant amino acid in the blood?

a)

Alanine

b)

Glutamine

15.

FADH2 is NOT water soluble, so it stays inside of the cell

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Which of the following are correct regarding the Sodium/Potassium Pump?

a)

It is a Primary Active Transporter

b)

It is a Secondary Active Transporter

c)

It is inhibited by Ouabain (this is deadly to all cells)

d)

Brings 2 K+ out, and 3 Na+ in

e)

Brings 3 Na+ out, and 2 K+ in

17.

What does an unsaturated lipid mean?

a)

Less double bonds

b)

More double bonds

18.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding a competitive inhibitor?

a)

Inhibitor binds at any time

b)

It is an irreversible action

c)

Vmax is the same, Km increases

d)

Vmax decreases, Km is the same

19.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding a non competitive inhibitor?

a)

Vmax decreases, Km can increase OR decrease

b)

Inhibitor binds to the ACTIVE site

c)

Vmax decreases, Km stays the same

20.

What is the function of an Isomerase enzyme?

a)

Breakdown of a covalent bond without water or oxidation (ex: decarboxylase)

b)

Formation of a covalent bond between two large molecules and creates a new molecule

c)

Breakdown of a covalent bond using water (ex: protease)

d)

Rearrangement of bond within a molecule (ex: mutate)

21.

What is the function of Transferase enzyme?

a)

Rearrangement of bonds within a molecule (ex: mutate)

b)

Transfer of a functional group from one molecule to another (ex: kinase)

c)

Formation of a covalent bond between two large molecules creating a new molecule

d)

Breakdown of a covalent bond using water (ex: protease)

22.

What is the function of a Ligase enzyme?

a)

Breakdown of a covalent bond using water (ex: protease)

b)

Transfer of electrons

c)

Formation of a covalent bond between two large molecules, creating a new molecule

d)

Breakdown of a covalent bond without using water (ed: decarboxylase)

23.

(T/F): Ammonia is toxic to all tissues

a)

False

b)

True

24.

What direction is DNA synthesized?

a)

5' --> 3'

b)

3' --> 5'

25.

What is the difference between a purine and a pyrimidine?

a)

Purine is a single ring, while pyrimidine is a double ring

b)

Purine is a double ring, while pyrimidine is a single ring

26.

Select all that are part of the Internal Environment of the body:

a)

Gastrointestinal System

b)

Tissues (cells)

c)

Urinary System

d)

Fluid

e)

Blood

27.

What is the correct environment?

Air in the Lungs

a)

Internal Environment

b)

External Environment

28.

Select all of the electrolytes that have a higher concentration in the extracellular compartment:

a)

Potassium

b)

Chloride

c)

Fluoride

d)

Sodium

e)

Bicarbonate

29.

What factors DIRECTLY affect the diffusion of a molecule?

a)

Concentration gradient

b)

Temperature

c)

Membrane Thickness

d)

Membrane Surface Area

e)

Molecular Weight

30.

(T/F): Simple Diffusion does NOT require a carrier

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Which solution has the same number of non-penetrating solutes as the intracellular compartment?

a)

Hypotonic

b)

Isotonic

c)

Hypertonic

32.

What is the osmolarity of the extracellular solution?

a)

150 mOsm/L

b)

100 mOsm/L

c)

300 mOsm/L

33.

Will water move In or Out of the cell?

a)

Out

b)

In

34.

Identify the components of the plasma membrane:

a)

Phospholipid bilayer

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Proteins

d)

Cholesterol

35.

(T/F): Basic functional groups generally decreases water solubility

a)

False

b)

True

36.

In order to get across most membranes, the drug must be relatively _________

a)

Non-polar

b)

Polar

37.

In the presence of what two molecules in functional groups, does the solubility of a molecule increase?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Chloride

c)

Calcium

d)

Oxygen

38.

Identify which functional groups will decrease lipophilicity (or increase hydrophilicity)?

a)

Aromatic amines

b)

Ionized compounds

c)

Non-polar functional groups

d)

Hydroxyls

e)

Polar functional groups

39.

Which functional groups will increase lipophilicity (or decrease hydrophilicity)?

a)

Alkanes

b)

Amines

c)

Alkenes

d)

Polar functional groups

e)

Aromatic hydrocarbons

40.

What is the most pharmacologically influential physicochemical properties of drugs?

a)

Solubility

b)

Acidity/basicity

c)

Reactivity

41.

Select the acidic organic functional groups:

a)

Phenol

b)

Sulfonamide

c)

Heterocyclic Amines

d)

Aromatic Amines

e)

Imide

42.

Which functional groups are considered neutral at physiological pH?

a)

Thioether

b)

Ester

c)

Amide

d)

Ketone

e)

Alkyl alcohol

43.

(T/F): Ionized states of molecules are always more polar than the uncharged forms

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Most of the orally bioavailable drugs on the market usually have a logP value less than ______

a)

10

b)

100

c)

5

d)

50

45.

Toposiomerase 2 cuts (a)   (one/two) strand(s) of DNA

46.

What has a singular circular chromosome?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Human Cells

c)

Bacteria

47.

What can have two or more nearly identical circular chromosomes?

a)

Human cells

b)

Bacteria

c)

Mitochondria

48.

How does the cell know which side of the DNA to repair?

a)

The new side has hairpin loops

b)

The new side does not have methyl groups on the adenosine of the GATC sequences

c)

The new side has RNA bases in it

d)

The new side has no Okazaki fragments

49.

Where in the eukaryotic cell does RNA synthesis take place?

a)

Golgi

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Peroxisome

d)

Rough ER

e)

Nucleus

50.

What is the consensus sequence in eukaryotic cells called?

a)

OriC site

b)

TATA box

51.

What are the non-coding regions of DNA that are removed?

a)

Introns

b)

Exons

52.

How many different tRNA molecules are used during protein synthesis?

a)

20

b)

61

c)

32

d)

64

53.

What is the first base of the anti-codon called?

a)

Primary Transcript

b)

TATA box

c)

Triplet Codon

d)

Wobble Position

54.

How many codons code for actual amino acids?

a)

64

b)

32

c)

20

d)

61

55.

What is the most important factor that controls protein concentration?

a)

Protein Synthesis (translation)

b)

RNA editing

c)

Gene Expression (transcription)

d)

Post-translational modifications

56.

What is the promoter region?

a)

The location at the very end of each chromosome

b)

The location at the end of a gene

c)

The location where RNA replication begins

d)

The location just upstream from where RNA replication begins

e)

The location on DNA where DNA replication begins

57.

Which conditions increase the expression of the LAC Operon?

a)

High glucose

b)

Low glucose

c)

Low lactose

d)

High lactose

58.

Primary active transport:

a)

Requires the ATP to move solutes in the opposite directions as the concentration gradient

b)

Uses the energy previously created by other transporters to move a solute across the membrane

59.

What metal ion is found at the center of the heme group?

a)

Lithium

b)

Copper

c)

Zinc

d)

Magnesium

e)

Iron

60.

Which molecule has a higher oxygen affinity?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Myoglobin

61.

Identify drug classes that are CYP3A4 Inhibitors

a)

Antifungal Azoles

b)

Grapefruit Juice

c)

Macrolides

d)

CCBs

e)

HIV inhibitors

62.

Identify the medications that are CYP3A4 Inducers

a)

Carbamazepine

b)

Phenobarbital

c)

Phenytoin

d)

Rifampin

e)

St. John's Wort