WorksheetsSIMPIC 2022 Preparation
Total questions: 53
Worksheet time: 19mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Name selective media for C.jejuni cultivation!
a)
Campy-Blood Agar
b)
Skirrow Media
c)
MIU broth
d)
XLD agar
2.
Which of the following species of Brucella commonly cause disease in human?
a)
Brucella abortus
b)
Brucella melitensis
c)
Brucella suis
d)
Brucella canis
3.
The following conditions can cause false positive in nontreponemal test (can be>1)
a)
Viral infection
b)
Rheumatoid arthritis
c)
Systemic lupus erythematosus
d)
Acute or chronic illness
e)
Pregnancy, Recent immunization, Drug addiction, Leprosy, Malaria, Multiple blood transfusions
4.
Continuous septicemia occurs primarily in…
a)
endocarditis,sepsis
b)
Staphylococcal abscess
c)
Streptococcal pneumonia
5.
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of diphtheria toxin
a)
Forms pores in red blood cells causing hemolysis
b)
Degrades lecithin in eukaryotic cell membranes
c)
Causes release of tumor necrosis factor
d)
Inhibits elongation factor 2
6.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a)
Lipopolysaccharide is part of the cell wall of E. coli.
b)
Cholera toxin is attached to the flagella of V. cholerae.
c)
The lecithinase of C. perfringens causes diarrhea.
d)
Toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 is produced by hemolytic<br />stains of S. epidermidis.
7.
Optimum recovery of Y. enterocolitica from the stools of patients with gastroenteritis requires which of the following specialized media
a)
Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin agar
b)
Xylose-lysine decarboxylase agar
c)
Hektoen-enteric agar
d)
Regan-Lowe medium
8.
Which of the following is generally not considered a potential<br />agent of bioterrorism and biologic warfare
a)
Y. pestis
b)
Botulinum toxin
c)
Streptococcus pyogenes
d)
Brucella species
9.
An 8-year-old boy was bitten by a stray cat. Two days later, the wound was red and swollen and drained purulent fluid. P. multocida was cultured from the wound. The drug of choice to treat this infection is
a)
Amikacin
b)
Erythromycin
c)
Gentamicin
d)
Penicillin G
10.
Tetanus toxin (tetanospasmin) diffuses to terminals of inhibitory<br />cells in the spinal cord and brainstem and blocks which of<br />the following?
a)
Release of acetylcholine
b)
Cleavage of SNARE proteins
c)
Release of inhibitory glycine and γ-aminobutyric acid
d)
Release of protective antigen
11.
A food commonly associated with Bacillus cereus food poisoning<br />is
a)
Fried rice
b)
Baked potato
c)
Hot freshly steamed rice
d)
Green beans
e)
Honey
12.
Aminoglycoside antibiotics typically cause which of the following<br />adverse events?
a)
They cause aplastic anemia.
b)
They cause nonspecific stimulation of B cells.
c)
They cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity.
d)
They cause photosensitivity.
13.
Which one of the following groups of antimicrobial agents acts<br />on microorganisms by inhibiting protein synthesis?
a)
Fluoroquinolones
b)
Aminoglycosides
c)
Penicillins
d)
Glycopeptides (eg, vancomycin)
e)
Polymyxins
14.
A 20-year-old Asian woman, a recent immigrant to the United<br />States, develops fever and a cough productive of blood-streaked<br />sputum. She has lost 6 kg of body weight in the past 6 weeks.<br />Her chest radiograph shows bilateral upper lobe infiltrates with<br />cavities. Given the history and chest radiography findings,<br />which of the following drug regimens would be the best appropriate<br />initial therapy while awaiting culture results?
a)
Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol
b)
Penicillin G and rifampin
c)
Cefotaxime, clindamycin, and trimethoprim–<br />sulfamethoxazole
d)
Ampicillin–sulbactam
e)
Vancomycin, gentamicin, and clindamycin
15.
Which of the following carbapenem antibiotics has no activity<br />against P. aeruginosa?<br />
a)
Imipenem
b)
Meropenem
c)
Doripenem
d)
Ertapenem
16.
The drug of first choice for the treatment of serious anaerobic<br />infections caused by B. fragilis is
a)
Clindamycin
b)
Ampicillin
c)
Cefoxitin
d)
Metronidazole
e)
Amoxicillin–clavulanate
17.
Which of the following animals is the source of L. interrogans?
a)
Alligators
b)
Ducks
c)
Frogs
d)
Catfish
e)
Swine
18.
A young man sustains major soft tissue injury and open fractures<br />of his right leg after a motorcycle accident. One day later,<br />he has a temperature of 38°C, increased heart rate, sweating,<br />and restlessness. On examination, the leg is swollen and tense,<br />with thin, dark serous fluid draining from the wounds. The<br />skin of the leg is cool, pale, white, and shining. Crepitus can be<br />felt in the leg. His hematocrit is 20% (∼50% of normal), and his<br />circulating hemoglobin is normal. His serum shows free hemoglobin.<br />Which of the following microorganisms is the most<br />likely cause of this infection?
a)
Clostridium tetani
b)
Staphylococcus aureus
c)
Escherichia coli
d)
Bacillus anthracis
e)
Clostridium perfringens
19.
A 45-year-old fisherman imbedded a fishhook into his right<br />forefinger. He removed it and did not seek immediate medical<br />therapy. Five days later, he noted fever, severe pain, and<br />nodular-type swelling of the finger. He sought medical therapy.<br />The violaceous nodule was aspirated, and after 48 hours<br />of incubation, colonies of a Gram-positive bacillus that caused<br />greenish discoloration of the agar and formed long filaments<br />in the broth culture were noted. The most likely cause of this<br />infection is
a)
Lactobacillus acidophilus
b)
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
c)
Listeria monocytogenes
d)
Rhodococcus equi
e)
Nocardia brasiliensis
20.
The following characteristic(s) allows Listeria monocytogenes as a frequently foodborne pathogen (can be >1)
a)
It can survive at 4°C.
b)
It survives under conditions of low pH.
c)
It survives in the presence of high-salt concentrations.
21.
A 36-year-old male patient has an abscess with a strain of<br />S. aureus that is β-lactamase positive. This indicates that the<br />organism is resistant to which of the following antibiotics?
a)
Penicillin G, ampicillin, and piperacillin
b)
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
c)
Erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin
d)
Vancomycin
e)
Cefazolin and ceftriaxone
22.
The exfoliative toxins, TSST-1, and the enterotoxins are all<br />superantigens. The genes for these toxins are
a)
Present in all strains of S. aureus
b)
Widely distributed on the staphylococcal chromosome
c)
On both the staphylococcal chromosome (TSST-1 and<br />exfoliative toxins) and on plasmids (enterotoxins)
d)
On the staphylococcal chromosome in a pathogenicity<br />island
e)
On plasmids
23.
Which of the following statements best describes the function<br />of the agr in S. aureus?
a)
It regulates production of β-hemolysins.
b)
It is influenced by environmental oxygen
c)
It controls the preferential expression of surface adhesins.
d)
It is important in the control of autolysis.
24.
Which of the following staphylococcal organisms produces coagulase<br />and has been implicated in infections following a dog bite?
a)
Staphylococcus intermedius
b)
S. epidermidis
c)
S. saprophyticus
d)
S. hominis
e)
S. hemolyticus
25.
In Chlamydia, another important structural component<br />is the MOMP which is encoded by what gene?.
a)
ompA
b)
ompB
c)
ompC
d)
ompD
26.
Which of the following Chlamydia species is susceptible to sulfonamides?
a)
C.pneumonia
b)
C.trachomatis
c)
C.psitacci
27.
Which of the following Chlamydia species contains glycogen in inclusion?
a)
C.pneumonia
b)
C.trachomatis
c)
C.psitacci
28.
Perinatal C. trachomatis infections frequently manifest as:
a)
urogenital disease.
b)
necrotic pneumonia.
c)
inclusion conjunctivitis.
d)
a pustular rash.
e)
endophthalmitis.
29.
C. pneumoniae pneumonia most resembles infection caused<br />which of the following organisms?
a)
<br />Streptococcus pneumoniae
b)
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
c)
Haemophilus influenzae
d)
C. trachomatis
e)
Rhinovirus
30.
Which one of the following statements about C. pneumoniae is<br />most correct?
a)
Transmission from person to person is by the airborne<br />route.
b)
It makes glycogen-rich inclusions that stain with iodine.
c)
There are multiple serovars, including three that cause a<br />systemic illness.
d)
They are resistant to macrolides.
e)
The reservoir is house cats.
31.
The serovars of C. trachomatis generally can be divided into<br />groups representing their clinical infections and anatomic<br />site infected. Which of the following statements about the<br />C. trachomatis serovars is most correct?
a)
There is no immunologic cross-reaction between C.<br />trachomatis serovars A, B, Ba, and D and the C. pneumoniae<br />serovar.
b)
Serovars L1, L2, and L3 are associated with lymphogranuloma<br />venereum.
c)
The same C. trachomatis serovars are associated with<br />blinding trachoma and sexually transmitted infections.
d)
The antibody titer rise seen beginning around 6–8 years<br />follows infections with C. trachomatis serovars D–K.
32.
The reservoir for Erlichia chaffeensis includes (may be >1)
a)
Humans
b)
Mice
c)
Sheep
d)
Deer
e)
Dogs
33.
The reservoir for the causative agent of Siberian tick typhus is
a)
Rodents
b)
Dogs
c)
Deer
d)
Humans
34.
The most useful drug to treat ehrlichiosis is
a)
Doxycycline
b)
Penicillin G
c)
Trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole
d)
Gentamicin
e)
Nitrofurantoin
35.
The histopathological hallmark of infection caused by<br />R. rickettsii is
a)
Morulae within granulocytes
b)
Morulae within monocytes
c)
Granulomatous inflammation
d)
Intracellular vacuoles
e)
Perivascular lymphocytes
36.
Reasons why C. burnetii could be a potential agent of bioterrorism<br />include
a)
It is acquired by the inhalation.
b)
It is highly infectious.
c)
It can be difficult to treat depending on the phase of<br />infection.
d)
Pneumonia may be severe.
e)
All of the above.
37.
The resistant mechanism of M. tuberculosis to isoniazid is mediated by:
a)
β-Lactamase
b)
Mutations in the catalase-peroxidase gene
c)
Alterations in the β subunit of RNA polymerase
d)
Mutations in the DNA gyrase gene
e)
Mutations in the genes encoding the S12 protein and<br />16S rRNA
38.
A 47-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of progressive<br />cough, weight loss, and fever. Chest radiography shows bilateral<br />cavitary disease suggestive of tuberculosis. Sputum culture grows an<br />acid-fast bacillus that is a photochromogen (makes an orange pigment<br />when exposed to light). The organism most likely is
a)
M. tuberculosis
b)
M. kansasii
c)
M. gordonae
d)
M. avium complex
e)
M. fortuitum
39.
The definition of extensively drug-resistant (XDR) tuberculosis<br />includes
a)
Resistance to isoniazid
b)
Resistance to a fluoroquinolone
c)
Resistance to capreomycin, amikacin, or kanamycin
d)
Resistance to rifampin
e)
All of the above
40.
What is the specific media used for Legionella cultivation?
a)
BCYE
b)
XLD
c)
TCBS
d)
TSIA
e)
BHI
41.
A certain extracellular protein in B.bacilliformis that helps identation of red blood cells is called
a)
Internalin
b)
Deformin
c)
Integrin
d)
Flagellin
42.
Treatment for Bartonella infection includes (can be >1)
a)
Azithromycin
b)
Fluoroquinolones
c)
Doxycycline
d)
Ampicillin
e)
Ceftriaxone
43.
Charcoal is present in buffered charcoal yeast extract agar used<br />to isolate L. pneumophila to
a)
Provide the growth factors ordinarily provided by freeliving<br />amebas present in environmental water
b)
Serve as a carbon source for the growth of L. pneumophila
c)
Prevent hemolysis of the red blood cells in the medium
d)
Provide a dark background
e)
Act as a detoxifying agent
44.
Which of the following statements about bacillary angiomatosis<br />is most correct?
a)
It is caused by B. bacilliformis
b)
It is typically confined to the skin
c)
The major differential diagnosis is Kaposi sarcoma.
d)
The etiologic agent can be grown in 1–2 days in routine<br />culture on sheep blood agar.
e)
Dogs are the reservoir for the etiologic agent.
45.
True statements regarding T. whipplei include all of the following<br />EXCEPT
a)
It is easy to cultivate on chocolate agar after 3 days of<br />incubation.
b)
It is a Gram-positive actinomycete
c)
It causes fever, abdominal pain, diarrhea, weight loss, and<br />migratory polyarthralgia
d)
It stains with PAS
46.
Pontiac fever is a severe form of pneumonia caused by<br />L. pneumophila serotypes 1 and 6.
a)
true
b)
false
47.
Regarding bacterial type III secretions systems, which of the<br />following statements is correct?
a)
They are commonly found in Gram-positive commensal<br />bacteria.
b)
They play an important role in the pathogenesis of toxininduced<br />diseases of Clostridium species, tetanus, botulism,<br />gas gangrene, and pseudomembranous colitis.
c)
They cause release of effectors of pathogenesis into the<br />extracellular environment, promoting bacterial colonization<br />and multiplication
d)
They directly inject bacterial proteins into host cells across<br />bacterial and host cell membranes, promoting pathogenesis<br />of infections.
e)
Mutations that prevent the bacterial type III secretion from<br />functioning enhance pathogenesis.
48.
Anthrax toxin are made up of three protein, consist of (can be >1)
a)
Protective antigen
b)
Attachment factor
c)
Edema factor
d)
Desctruction factor
e)
Lethal factor
49.
What is the function of protective antigen alone in anthrax toxin?
a)
binds to specific cell receptors, and after proteolytic<br />activation, forms a membrane channel that mediates<br />entry of Edema Factor and Lethal Factor into the cell
b)
Responsible to tissue edema
c)
Protect the bacteria from the macrophages
d)
impairing both innate and adaptive immunity,<br />allowing organism proliferation and cell death
50.
Which of the following antibiotic belongs to 2nd generation cephalosporin?
a)
Cefazolin
b)
Cefamandole
c)
Cefotaxime
d)
Cefepime
e)
Ceftaroline
51.
Where is erythromycin naturally obtained from?
a)
Streptomyces griseus
b)
Streptomyces orientalis
c)
Steptomyces lincolnensis
d)
Streptomyces mediterranei
e)
Streptomyces erythreus
52.
Aminoglycoside antibiotics typically cause which of the following<br />adverse events?
a)
They cause aplastic anemia.
b)
They cause nonspecific stimulation of B cells.
c)
They cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity.
d)
They cause photosensitivity.
53.
Which of the following agents would not be expected to demonstrate<br />postantibiotic affect against Gram-negative bacilli?
a)
Imipenem
b)
Ciprofloxacin
c)
Gentamicin
d)
Ampicillin
100 %
