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Biology 2nd Year

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 2hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which body system controls the body to maintain homeostasis?

a)

excretory

b)

nervous

c)

circulatory

d)

skeletal

2.

Which two systems work together to maintain homeostasis while transporting oxygen throughout the body and removing carbon dioxide?

a)

circulatory and respiratory

b)

respiratory and excretory

c)

circulatory and digestive

d)

respiratory and digestive

3.
Homeostasis
a)
allows for a wildly fluctuating internal environment
b)
is impossible in vertebrates
c)
is the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment and often incorporates a form of feedback regulation
d)
is the maintenance of a relatively stable external environment and often incorporates a form of feedback regulation
4.

The group of organisms that use the process of homeostasis includes

a)

mammals, only

b)

animals, only

c)

plants and animals

d)

all living things

5.
The tendency of an organism to maintain a balanced state in order to stay healthy.
a)
Stimuli
b)
Response
c)
Tropism
d)
Homestasis
6.

An organism that produces its own body heat is called...

a)

Poikilotherm

b)

Homeotherm

c)

Endotherm

d)

Ectotherm

7.

Which set of organisms are able to survive with lower amounts of food?

a)

Endotherms

b)

Ectotherms

8.

Which of the following ISN'T a thermoregulatory strategy for warming up?

a)

vasoconstriction

b)

shivering

c)

sweating

d)

extra layers of blubber (fat)

9.

Which ISN'T an endotherm?

a)

Panda

b)

Penguin

c)

Kangaroo

d)

Crocodile

10.

Which of the following ISN'T an ectotherm?

a)

Black Widow Spider

b)

Lion

c)

Lobster

d)

Rattlesnake

11.

Which of the following ISN'T a form of behavior-based regulation?

a)

Turning on the air conditioning

b)

Putting on a jacket

c)

Shivering

d)

Drinking a warm drink like coffee or hot chocolate

12.

Where is the thermoregulatory centre loacted?

a)

In the pituitary gland of the brain

b)

In the cerebellum of the brain

c)

In the hypothalamus of the brain

d)

In the cortex of the brain

13.

What changes occur to cool the body down

a)

vasoconstriction, increase sweating and hairs lie flat

b)

vasodilation, increase sweating and hair erector muscle relaxes and hairs lie flat

c)

Vasodilation, reduced sweating, hair erector muscle relax and hair stand up.

d)

Vasoconstriction, increase sweating and hair erector muscle relaxes and hairs lie flat

14.

What changes occur to increase body temperature

a)

Vasoconstriction, hair erector muscle relaxes and hair pulled upright, no sweating and shivering

b)

Vasodilation, hair erector muscle contract and hair pulled upright, no sweating and shivering

c)

Vasoconstriction, hair erector muscle contract and hair pulled upright, no sweating and shivering

d)

Vasodilation, hair erector muscle contract and hair pulled upright, increased sweating and shivering

15.

what is osmoregulation?

a)

Control of water and salt in the body

b)

Control of blood pressure in the body

c)

Control of blood glucose in the body

16.

If a person's blood cells shrivel (shrink) their blood is likely ____ in comparison to the cell.

a)

isotonic

b)

hypotonic

c)

hypertonic

17.

Osmosis is the movement of _____ across a membrane.

a)

food

b)

energy

c)

oxygen

d)

water

18.

Nemo and other ocean dwelling fish cannot survive in freshwater because......

a)

freshwater is hypertonic to Nemo's cells and will result in water leaving them causing the cells to shrink

b)

freshwater is hypotonic to Nemo's cells and will result in water leaving them causing the cells to shrink

c)

freshwater is hypertonic to Nemo's cells and will result in water entering them causing the cells to swell and burst

d)

freshwater is hypotonic to Nemo's cells and will result in water enter them causing the cells to swell and burst

19.

Considering the four choices below, which two represent active transport?


  • From high to low concentration
  • From low to high concentration
  • Using cellular energy
  • Without using cellular energy
a)

High to low; using cell energy

b)

High to low; without using cell energy

c)

Low to high; using cell energy

d)

Low to high: without using cell energy

20.

Which of the following is not part of excretion?

a)

remove toxic materials

b)

remove undigested food

c)

remove waste product of metabolism

d)

remove substances in excess of requirement

21.

Humans have three main excretory products, which of the following is not one of them.

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

salts

c)

urea

d)

faeces

22.

Urea is made in the _______.

a)

pancreas

b)

liver

c)

stomach

d)

intestine

23.

Urea is made from _________.

a)

amino acid

b)

fat

c)

fibre

d)

salts

24.

Urea is carried from the _______ to the _______.

a)

stomach, liver

b)

liver, kidneys

c)

kidneys, stomach

d)

kidneys, liver

25.

______ stores excess glucose in the form of glycogen.

a)

Kidney

b)

Pancreas

c)

Muscle cells

d)

Liver

26.

Which of the following is not the function of the liver?

a)

break down harmful substances like alcohol

b)

storage of excess glucose

c)

emulsify fat

d)

produces bile

27.

Blood enters the kidneys through the ___________.

a)

renal arteries

b)

renal veins

c)

tubules

d)

ureter

28.

Which of the following is not a function of the kidney tubules?

a)

absorb plasma

b)

filter blood

c)

decide how much water is excreted

d)

remove waste

29.

________ is formed when small molecules like salts, glucose, urea and water are forced out from the blood plasma when blood flows through the kidney tubules.

a)

Filtrate

b)

Urine

c)

Waste

d)

Excretion

30.

Blood flows into the liver from the heart and the ________.

a)

stomach

b)

intestines

c)

kidneys

31.

_________ is the outer layer of the kidney.

a)

Cortex

b)

Medulla

c)

Pelvis

32.

Kidney tubules are also known as __________.

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Bowman's capsule

c)

Nephrons

d)

Tubules

33.

Due to high pressure, 20% of the fluid in the blood is squeezed out from the ____________ into the Bowman's capsule.

a)

tubules

b)

blood vessels

c)

glomerulus

34.

Which of the following is not in the renal cortex?

a)

Loop of Henle

b)

Bowman's capsule

c)

Glomerulus

35.

In order to aid water reabsorption, excessive salt is pumped out from the filtrate at the ________.

a)

glomerulus

b)

Bowman's capsule

c)

First coiled tubule

d)

Loop of Henle

36.
What causes the shoot of a plant to grow towards light?
Apakah sebab pucuk tumbuhan tumbuh ke arah cahaya?
a)
What causes the shoot of a plant to grow towards light?
Apakah sebab pucuk tumbuhan tumbuh ke arah cahaya?
b)
The shoot needs to grow longer to avoid competition for light
Pucuk perlu tumbuh lebih lama untuk mengelakkan persaingan mendapat cahaya.
c)
The shoot needs to grow longer to avoid competition for light
Pucuk perlu tumbuh lebih lama untuk mengelakkan persaingan mendapat cahaya.
d)
The concentration of auxin is higher in cells exposed to light
Kepekatan auksin lebih tinggi dalam sel yang terdedah pada cahaya.
37.

The gaps between neurons are called

answer choices

a)

Effectors

b)

neurotransmitters

c)

reflexes

d)

synapses

38.

Identify the part of the brain that takes up the greatest volume

answer choices

a)

BRAIN STEM

b)

CEREBELLUM

c)

PONS

d)

CEREBRUM

39.

Which part of the nervous system is not involved in producing reflex actions?

answer choices

a)

brain

b)

spinal cord

c)

receptor

d)

sensory

40.

What is function of medulla?

answer choices

a)

controls heart RATE

b)

memory

c)

controls balance

d)

conscious thought

41.

The neurons that conduct information towards the CNS are _________.

answer choices

a)

interneurons

b)

motor neurons

c)

sensory neurons

d)

efferent neurons

42.

Which of the following is part of the peripheral nervous system?

answer choices

a)

BRAIN

b)

SPINAL CHORD

c)

HEART MUSCLE

d)

TASTE BUDS ON TONGUE

43.

Which of the following is not a hormone?

answer choices

a)

INSULIN

b)

GLUCOSE

c)

THYROXINE

d)

ADRENALINE

44.

which endocrine gland is called the master gland

answer choices

a)

pituitary

b)

pineal

c)

adrenals

d)

thyroid

45.

Identify the name of the white insulating substance that often covers the axon of a neuron and helps speed up the conduction of the message

answer choices

a)

MYELIN

b)

NEUROTRANSMITTER

c)

SYNAPSE

d)

VESICLE

46.

Which hormone is known as the ‘fight or flight’ hormone?

answer choices

a)

GROWTH HORMONE

b)

ADRENALINE

c)

OESTROGEN

d)

ANTIDURETIC HORMONE

47.

The nerve cells in your body are called neurons. From which part of the neuron is most likely responsible for carrying signals between the cell body and axon terminal?

answer choices

a)

soma

b)

axon

c)

Node of Ranvier

d)

Schwann cell

48.

Which part of the eye is where images are converted to nerve impulses?

answer choices

a)

Retina

b)

Cornea

c)

Optic Nerve

d)

Lens

49.
When is ovulation most likely to occur?
a)
About halfway between the start of one menstruation and the next
b)
At the start of menstruation
c)
1-5 days before the start of menstruation
d)
5-10 days after the start of menstruation
50.
The diagram shows a fetus developing in a uterus. Which structures remove excretory products from the fetus?
a)
P and Q
b)
Q and R
c)
R and S
d)
S and P
51.
In human reproduction, which sequence of events if correct?
a)
menstruation > ovulation > fertilisation > implantation
b)
menstruation > ovulation > implantation > fertilisation
c)
ovulation > menstruation > fertilisation > implantation
d)
ovulation > menstruation > implantation > fertilisation
52.
What would be the result of cutting both the sperm ducts in a male animal?
a)
Male sex hormones would no longer circulate in the blood.
b)
The animal would be unable to pass urine.
c)
The animal would be unable to develop sperms.
d)
The animal would become sterile.
53.
Which precautions should be taken to prevent the spread of HIV? 1) avoidance of direct skin contact 2) wearing gloves when treating patients 3) not sharing soap with another 4) prevent exchange of body fluids 5) treatment of blood to destroy virus
a)
1, 2 and 3
b)
1, 3 and 4
c)
2, 3 and 5
d)
2, 4 and 5
54.

What is the scrotum?

a)

A pouch of skin surrounding the testes

b)

A fold of skin that protects the penis

c)

An additional gland located at the end of the urethra

55.

Where are spermatozoa stored while they are maturing?

a)

In the prostate

b)

In the epidymis

c)

In the testes

d)

In the seminal vesicle

56.

Where is the genetic material (DNA) located in the spermatozoa?

a)

In the head

b)

In the tail

c)

In the middle piece

57.

Which part of the uterus is connected to the vagina?

a)

The fallopian tubes

b)

The cervix

c)

The ovaries

58.

The external female genitalia are

a)

The vulva and uterus

b)

The vagina and labia

c)

The labia and clitoris

59.

Where does oogenesis take place?

a)

Uterus

b)

Fallopian tubes

c)

Ovaries

d)

Vagina

60.

The FSH hormone is secreted by

a)

the ovarian follicle

b)

the pituitary gland

c)

the corpus luteum

61.

Which hormones cause the endometrium to grow?

a)

LH and progesterone

b)

FSH and LH

c)

Oestrogens and progesterone

62.

The majority of the embryo´s organs are formed

a)

during the first trimester

b)

during the second trimester

c)

during the third trimester

63.

Where in the body does fertilisation occur in humans?

a)

Epididymis

b)

Uterus

c)

Oviduct

d)

Vagina

64.

The prostrate gland secretes.....................

a)

nutrients only

b)

nutrients and hormones only

c)

nutrients and enzymes only

65.
Which is true about Asexual reproduction?
a)
Insects are needed to transfer pollen.
b)
New plants grow from seeds. 
c)
Offspring are genetically identical to their parent.
d)
Two types of gametes are involved. 
66.
Which structure is not essential in wind-pollinated flowers?
a)
anther
b)
ovary
c)
petal
d)
stigma
67.
Many wind-pollinated flowers have __________.
a)
feathery stigmas and light pollen.
b)
feathery stigmas and sticky pollen.
c)
short stigmas and light pollen.
d)
short stigmas and sticky pollen. 
68.

Which is the correct order for the life cycle of a frog?

a)

frog, egg, tadpole, changing tadpole

b)

tadpole, changing tadpole, egg, frog

c)

egg, tadpole, changing tadpole, frog

d)

changing tadpole, frog, tadpole, egg

69.

For several months after a baby kangaroo is born it remains in its mother's pouch for protection and drinks his mother's milk for food, What stage of the life cycle is this?

a)

beginning of life

b)

reproduction

c)

growth and development

d)

death

70.

Animals whose parents _______ tend to have many offspring at one time in order for enough to survive.

a)

stay with them when they are young

b)

do not stay with them when they are young

c)

continue to feed the young

d)

are the heat source for the young

71.

Select all of the life cycle stages that a human goes through.

a)

Metamorphosis

b)

Nymph

c)

Cocoon

d)

Egg

e)

Pupa

72.

Parental care depends on the type of organism as well as the number of offspring produced. Order the organisms in terms of the amount of parental care that they typically give to offspring from greatest care to least. 

Butterflies have 700 offspring, cats have 8, humans have 1, fish have 1,000, turtles have 25.

a)

humans, turtles, butterflies, fish, cats

b)

fish, butterflies, turtles, cats, humans

c)

cats, humans, turtles, butterflies, fish

d)

humans, cats, turtles, butterflies, fish

73.

It is a characteristics of life that is the irreversible increase of an organism’s size over a given period.

a)

Growth

b)

Adaptation

c)

Development

d)

Evolution

74.

Type of Development where it involves an alteration in the nature of the system.

a)

Qualitative Development

b)

Quantitative Development

c)

Regressive Development

d)

Multi-phase Development

75.

A characteristics of life which requires a transformation in structures.

a)

Development

b)

Growth

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Evolution

76.

The capacity of the biological system to carry out operations.

a)

Functional Development

b)

Growth in Cells

c)

Growth in Plants

d)

Structural Development

77.

A development in which the organism at an early stage develops a relatively complex structure that enables it to be motile, and later adopts a form of life for which motility is no longer a necessity.

a)

Progressive Development

b)

Regressive Development

c)

Quantitative Development

d)

Qualitative Development

78.

A process in cells growth that splits the parent cell into two genetically identical daughter cells.

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Respiration

d)

Contraction

79.

A development that only few organisms experience and a result from failure to carry out fully the normal processes of development.

a)

Normal Development

b)

Single- phase Development

c)

Quantitaive Development

d)

Abnormal Development

80.

when a frog undergoes metamorphosis, the following are the processes that involves during the transforrmation, except...

a)

growing of ears

b)

Regression

c)

Resorption

d)

growth of the limbs

81.

The regulatory stimulants that activates the body into performing certain actions and determines the speed, size, and physical trait the organisms will develop in its system.

a)

Hormones

b)

Blood

c)

vitamins

d)

water

82.

a genetic disorder caused when abnormal cell division results in an extra full or partial copy of chromosome 21.

a)

Turner Syndrome

b)

Trisomy 18

c)

Down Syndrome

d)

Jacobsen Syndrome

83.
In which phase does the cell spend most of it's life?
a)
Interphase
b)
Nuclear Division
c)
Telophase
d)
Mitosis
84.
The result of meiosis is:
a)
two diploid cells
b)
two haploid cells
c)
four diploid cells
d)
four haploid cells
85.
During what phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?
a)
G1 phase
b)
S phase
c)
G2 phase
d)
M phase
86.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
87.
In which type of cells will mitosis occur?
a)
egg cells
b)
sperm cells
c)
jail cells
d)
Body cells except the sperm and egg cells
88.

A feature regulated by a set of genes (allele) passed on

from parents to offspring. Also called inherited traits.

a)

Heterozygous

b)

Mendel

c)

Chromosome

d)

Traits

89.

Passing on traits from parents to offspring

a)

Chromosome

b)

Genotype

c)

Heredity

d)

Allele

90.

During meiosis and gamete formation, homologous (paired up) alleles split up

a)

Phenotype

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Genotype

d)

Dihybrid Cross

91.

During meiosis, the homologous pairs of chromosomes and the matching alleles are lined up independently.

Offspring are a mix of maternal genes and paternal genes.

This increases genetic variation.

a)

Homozygous Dominant

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Crossing Over

d)

Independent Assortment

92.

The genetic cross between two parents for one trait:

Example BB x bb

B = dominant for brown

b = recessive for blue

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Dihybrid Cross

c)

Monohybrid Cross

d)

Iron Cross

93.

Referring to the original parents.

a)

P1

b)

F1

c)

F2

d)

Homozygous

94.

The ratio of phenotypes in a Punnett Square

a)

Phenotypic Ratio

b)

Genotypic Ratio

c)

Dihybrid Cross

d)

Independent Assortment

95.

Epistasis is the interaction between_____________ genes.

a)

2

b)

4

c)

3

d)

16

96.

Which best describes epistasis?

a)

An allele that changes the genotype of another allele

b)

A gene that changes the genotype of another gene

c)

An allele that controls or masks the expression of another allele

d)

A gene that controls or masks the expression of another gene

97.

This is when multiple genes code for a single trait

a)

Polygenic

b)

Pleiotropy

c)

Linked genes

d)

Codominant genes

98.

Which of the following inheritance patterns explains how a particular version of a regulatory gene can activate or deactivate a gene that controls a particular trait?

a)

codominance

b)

pleiotropy

c)

epistasis

d)

incomplete dominance

99.

Labrador retriever's fur color is an example of epistasis. In this case the E gene controls the expression of the B gene. It a puppy was born with the genotype eeBB its fur color would be ________ and if it was born with the genotype EEbb it would be __________

a)

yellow, yellow

b)

yellow, black

c)

chocolate, black

d)

yellow, chocolate

100.

The goal of the Human Genome Project was to determine the

a)

total number of alleles in the human genome

b)

DNA sequence of the entire human genome.

c)

number of mutations in the human genome.

d)

pattern of inheritance of the human genome.

101.

What is a short segment of a DNA strand that codes for our characteristics?

a)

chromosome

b)

DNA

c)

RNA

d)

gene

102.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for making proteins
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
103.

Which choice best describes the DNA of a prokaryote?

a)

single circular chromosome

b)

single linear chromosome

c)

multiple circular chromosomes

d)

multiple linear chromosomes

104.

Which choice best describes the DNA of a eukaryote?

a)

single circular chromosome

b)

single linear chromosome

c)

multiple circular chromosomes

d)

multiple linear chromosomes

105.

A nucleosome is best described as

a)

nucleosomes coiled around each other

b)

a DNA strand wrapped around histone proteins

c)

one fully-packaged DNA molecule

d)

one strand of DNA double-helix

106.

Chromatin is best described as

a)

nucleosomes super-coiled around each other

b)

a DNA strand wrapped around histone proteins

c)

one fully-packaged DNA molecule

d)

one strand of DNA double-helix

107.

A DNA molecules is best described as

a)

nucleosomes super-coiled around each other

b)

a DNA strand wrapped around histone proteins

c)

one fully-packaged DNA molecule

d)

one strand of DNA double-helix

108.

DNA replication results in

a)

three identical copies of each chromosome

b)

23 different copies of each chromosome

c)

46 identical copies of each chromosome

d)

two identical copies of each chromosome

109.

Sister chromatids are joined together at a constriction called a

a)

chromatid

b)

centromere

c)

nucleosome

d)

spindle apparatus

110.

What are homologous chromosomes?

a)

Two chromosomes that are the same length

b)

Two chromosomes that have the centromere in the same position

c)

Two chromosomes that have genes for particular characteristics at the same location along their length

d)

All of the above

111.

All portions of DNA are used for coding.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Not sure

112.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
113.

The disc shaped protein core that DNA wraps around is called

a)

histone

b)

nucleosome

c)

chromatin

d)

gene

114.

A picture or image of a person's chromosomes taken through a microscope

a)

pedigree

b)

centromere

c)

karyotype

d)

none are correct

115.

What is the condensed form of DNA called?

a)

Chromosome

b)

Nucleotides

c)

Gene

d)

Nucleus

116.

Which sex chromosomes are present in all mature human sperm cells?

a)

both X and Y chromosomes

b)

either X or Y chromosomes

c)

only X chromosomes

d)

only Y chromosomes

HIDE ANSWER

117.

Hair color and eye color are examples of a person's....

a)

recessive traits

b)

genotype

c)

dominant alleles

d)

phenotype

118.

If a pea plant were homozygous recessive for height, how would it's genotype be represented?

a)

Tt

b)

tt

c)

TT

d)

tT

119.

What is the definition of Phenotype?

a)

The diagram that shows all the chromosomes of an individual

b)

How many genes on one chromosome

c)

The combination of alleles that control that an individual has for a particular trait

d)

How a trait is expressed (what it looks like or what it does)

120.

DNA's 2 strands are held together by

a)

oxygen bonds

b)

carbon bonds

c)

hydrogen bonds

d)

phospodiester bonds

121.

DNA is a polymer made of:

a)

Purines

b)

Nucleotides

c)

Pyrimidines

d)

phosphate

122.

What are the three components of a nucleotide?

a)

sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base

b)

sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base

c)

sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base

d)

sugar, phosphate, protein

123.

A _______ is a segment of DNA that codes for a specific protein or RNA molecule.

a)

chromosome

b)

gene

c)

gamete

d)

chromatid

124.

The 2 exact copies of DNA in a chromosome are called

a)

histone protein

b)

genes

c)

chromatin

d)

chromatids

125.

Chromosomes that are paired by size and content are called _______ chromosomes.

a)

sister

b)

homologous

c)

heterozygous

d)

chromatid

126.

What is a recessive allele?

a)

A trait that is always shown (capital letter)

b)

A trait that can be hidden (lower case letter)

c)

Alleles that are the same

d)

Alleles that are different

127.

In molecular cloning, a __________ is used to insert a fragment of DNA into the host cell.

a)

plasmid

b)

DNA fragment

c)

bacterium

d)

virus

128.

Organisms that have foreign DNA inserted from a different species are called

a)

transgenic

b)

transmutated

c)

adenoviruses

d)

haploid

129.

What cell organelle carries its own DNA passed down from the mother and is used to trace genealogy?

a)

ribosome

b)

golgi apparatus

c)

mitochondria

d)

vesicles

130.

In order to manipulate genetic material, DNA must be extracted from cells. What is the correct order of the process used to manipulate DNA?

a)

enzymes inactivate proteins, buffering compounds break-down cell, alcohol to bring out DNA

b)

gelatinous mass of DNA broken down using buffering compounds, alcohol to remove DNA, enzymes to inactivate proteins

c)

buffering compounds to break-down cell, enzymes to inactivate proteins, alcohol to bring out DNA

d)

none of the choices are correct

131.

The process where an electric current is used to separate nucleic acids based on size and is used in forensics is called

a)

gel electrophoresis

b)

cloning

c)

transgenic manipulation

d)

PCR

132.

The process used to make copies of DNA when not much is available and is often used in forensics is called

a)

gel electrophoresis

b)

cloning

c)

PCR

d)

transgenics

133.

The vector used in genetic engineering is a(n)

a)

bacterium

b)

adenovirus

c)

bacteriophage

d)

transgenic donator

134.

Polymerase Chain Reaction

a)

Is used to make copies of specific regions of DNA

b)

Uses a special form of DNA polymerase and primers to copy DNA

c)

is used in crime scenes and paternity cases to compare DNA samples

d)

All of the choices are correct

e)

some of the choices are correct

135.

The polymerase chain reaction is important because it allows us to

a)

Make many copies of a targeted segment of DNA

b)

Insert eukaryotic genes into prokaryotic plasmids

c)

Incorporate genes into viruses

d)

Make DNA from RNA

136.

A desired DNA segment is inserted into small circular DNA from prokaryotes called a __________ and then is inserted into a bacterial host and the resulting combination is called ____________.

a)

Virus, a eukaryote

b)

Plasmid, a eukaryote

c)

Plasmid, recombinant DNA

d)

Virion, recombinant DNA

137.

Proteins that suppress the transcription of a gene are called

a)

plasmids

b)

vectors

c)

inducers

d)

repressors

138.

The term for when all of the genes needed to synthesize a particular protein are located in the same location on a chromosome.

a)

operon

b)

inducer

c)

vector

d)

repressor

139.

This produces multiple identical copies of a gene for basic research

a)

restriction enzymes

b)

gene cloning

c)

DNA ligase

d)

gel electrophoresis

140.

This seals the sticky ends of restriction fragments to make recombinant DNA

a)

restriction enzymes

b)

gene cloning

c)

DNA ligase

d)

reverse transcriptase

141.

This cuts DNA molecules at specific locations

a)

restriction enzymes

b)

DNA ligase

c)

polymerase

d)

ATP

142.

Which technique would most likely be used by forensic scientists?

a)

gene cloning

b)

gene therapy

c)

DNA fingerprinting

d)

karyotyping

143.

Which is one reason scientists produce transgenic organisms?

a)

to create new species of organisms

b)

to control microorganisms in the soil

c)

to prevent habitats from being destroyed

d)

to treat certain types of diseases

144.

Two people believe they are related. Which would be the best technique to determine if they are related?

a)

testing blood types

b)

comparing DNA

c)

examining karyotypes

d)

testing for genetic disorders

145.

Which is a step in the process of producing transgenic bacteria?

a)

A plasmid is used to replace a faulty gene in a human cell.

b)

A chain of bacterial amino acids is inserted into human DNA.

c)

A human gene is inserted into a bacterial plasmid.

d)

A mutation is produced in a bacterial cell.

146.

The process of removing DNA from cells is called

a)

DNA fingerprinting

b)

DNA extraction

c)

Recombinant DNA

d)

Transgenics

147.

What is the function of gel electrophoresis?

a)

to separate DNA fragments according to size and charge

b)

to cut DNA

c)

to recombine DNA

d)

to extract DNA

148.

During transformation,

a)

a prokaryote is changed into a eukaryote.

b)

a cell takes in DNA from outside the cell.

c)

plasmids are inserted into a human cell.

d)

a cell is mutated.

149.

DNA produced by combining DNA from two different organisms is known as

a)

a mutant.

b)

a hybrid.

c)

a polyploidy.

d)

Recombinant DNA.

150.

Which of the following is an example of uses for bacterial transformation technique?

a)

to produce pure human insulin for use by people with diabetes

b)

to identify a suspect based on evidence from a crime scene

c)

to determine the nucleotide sequence of desired gene

d)

to identify a genetic disorder in preparation for potential treatment

151.

The Human Genome Project is an attempt to

a)

make a DNA fingerprint of every person's DNA.

b)

identify, sequence and catalog all human DNA.

c)

create human-like creatures.

d)

identify alleles in human DNA that are recessive.

152.

The purpose gene therapy in treating disorders , such as cystic fibrosis and SCIDS, is to

a)

replace faulty genes with normal ones

b)

determine the sequence of genes

c)

remove mutations from genes

d)

change dominant alleles to recessive alleles

153.

Which of the following is a concern about the use of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) as food?

a)

they may taste better than normal food

b)

they may cause death if eaten

c)

they can cause allergies, toxins, new diseases and nutritional problems

d)

they are perfectly healthy

154.

What is the function of a restriction enzyme?

a)

to keep DNA from replicating

b)

to cut DNA into smaller fragments

c)

to restrict enzymes from working

d)

to speed up the reaction of DNA polymerase

155.

The restriction enzyme, ECORI, cuts DNA between which two nitrogenous bases?

a)

between guanine (G) and cytosine (C)

b)

between adenine (A) and thymine (T)

c)

between guanine (G) and adenine (A)

d)

between thymine (T) and cytosine (C)

156.

What are DNA fingerprints used for?

a)

to identify the patterns in a person's fingerprint

b)

to show evolutionary relationships

c)

to sequence the DNA bases

d)

crime scene investigations and to determine paternity/maternity

157.

Which DNA technology would best help endangered species?

a)

sequencing

b)

cloning

c)

electrophoresis

d)

antibody production

158.

What type of cells contain plasmids?

a)

eukaryotes

b)

animal cells

c)

prokaryotes

d)

plant cells

159.
Which of the following is a fossil?
a)
a plant that has recently died
b)
a group of organisms that can reproduce
c)
a structure or organ that no longer functions
d)
a trace of an organisms that existed in the past
160.
In natural selection, the selective agent is the
a)
humans
b)
mutations
c)
breeders
d)
environment
161.
Mutations are important because they bring about
a)
death of the organism in which they develop
b)
genetic variation needed for a population to evolve
c)
benefits for the individual, not for the population
d)
Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a population
162.

What is the term for a feature that allows an organism to survive better in its environemtn?

a)

variation

b)

adaptation

c)

homologous structure

d)

vestigial structure

163.
What is the process in which humans breed organisms for certain traits?
a)
natural selection
b)
inheritance
c)
artificial selection
d)
descent withOUT modification
164.
Natural selection results in change over time by acting on traits that are
a)
heritable
b)
new
c)
mutated 
d)
better than the best
165.
Some organisms that share a common ancestor have features that have different functions, but similar structures.  These are known as
a)
vestigial structures
b)
analogous structures
c)
homologous structures
d)
fossil structures
166.
What increases genetic variation when animals move from one population to another
a)
genetic drift
b)
sexual selection
c)
bottleneck effect
d)
gene flow
167.
This mechanism of evolution occurs when populations migrate.
a)
Extinction
b)
Gene flow
c)
Genetic drift
d)
Natural Selection
168.
Who is the father of evolution?
a)
Darwin
b)
Mendel
c)
Newton
d)
Einstein
169.
What is another name for natural selection?
a)
survival of the smartest
b)
survival of the fastest
c)
survival of the biggest
d)
survival of the fittest
170.
What is the study of organisms at the early stages of development?
a)
DNA studies
b)
embryology 
c)
extinction
d)
fossil record
171.
All of the different populations that live in a specific area.
a)
ecosystem
b)
habitat
c)
ecology
d)
community
172.
An abiotic part of an ecosystem; required by plants to perform photosynthesis.
a)
water
b)
soil
c)
sunlight
d)
oxygen
173.
The place where an organism lives that provides it with shelter, food and water.
a)
ecosystem
b)
population
c)
community
d)
habitat
174.
These are organisms that creates their own food such as plants and trees.
a)
Population
b)
Community
c)
Producers
d)
Consumers
175.
When a plant is eaten by a caterpillar and the caterpillar is eaten by a frog, and the frog is eaten by a snake, the snake belongs to
a)
Producer
b)
Primary consumer
c)
Secondary consumer
d)
Tertiary consumer
176.
Which of the following can feed on snakes?
a)
frog
b)
chicken
c)
eagle
d)
cow
177.
Which of the following can feed on planktons in the sea?
a)
mussels
b)
dolphins
c)
sharks
d)
None of the choices
178.

Why do living things need nitrogen?

a)

To get energy

b)

To make amino acids

c)

To make proteins

d)

To make proteins AND amino acids

179.
Where is carbon stored in the environment?
a)
Fossil fuels
b)
Wood of trees
c)
Calcium carbonate (shells and bones)
d)
All of the above
180.
These gases, such as carbon dioxide, trap heat in the Earth's atmosphere causing global warming
a)
Global warming gases
b)
Hot House gases
c)
Green House gases
d)
Thermal pollution
181.
A particular golf course is using large amounts of nitrogen fertilizer. What process could move this nitrogen into a local stream?
a)
volatilization
b)
nitrogen fixation
c)
runoff
d)
ammonification
182.
What converts nitrogen into a useable form for plants and animals?
a)
bacteria
b)
fungi
c)
rain
183.
This is released by the weathering of rocks.
a)
Carbon
b)
Oxygen
c)
Phosphorus
d)
Nitrogen
184.

What is the largest reservoir for water?

a)

the ocean

b)

rocks and minerals

c)

the atmosphere

d)

glaciers

185.

What is the largest reservoir for nitrogen?

a)

the ocean

b)

rocks and minerals

c)

the atmosphere

d)

bacteria

186.
During which phase of the nitrogen cycle do decomposers break down nitrates into ammonium?
a)
Ammonification
b)
Nitrification
c)
Denitrification
d)
Assimilation
187.
Which of the following organisms plays a major role in all phases of the nitrogen cycle?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Fungi
c)
Plants
d)
Animals
188.
During which phase of the nitrogen cycle do bacteria and lightning strikes convert  atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form?
a)
Ammonification
b)
Assimilation
c)
Nitrogen Fixation
d)
Nitrification
189.
During which phase of the nitrogen cycle is ammonia converted into nitrates?
a)
Ammonification
b)
Nitrification
c)
Nitrogen fixation
d)
Denitrification
190.
During which phase of the nitrogen cycle is nitrogen gas returned to the atmosphere?
a)
Ammonification
b)
Nitrogen fixation
c)
Nitrification
d)
Denitrification
191.
During which phase of the nitrogen cycle are nitrates taken up into plant roots?
a)
Ammonification
b)
Assimilation
c)
Nitrificaiton
d)
Denitrification
192.
Which of the following events removes water from the atmosphere?
a)
Precipitation
b)
Evaporation
c)
Infiltration
d)
Run off
193.
Which of the following is a result of chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) usage?
a)
Increased runoff of pesticides into lakes and rivers
b)
Increase levels of atmospheric nitrogen
c)
Depletion of the ozone layer resulting in higher levels of UV radiation
d)
Decreased levels of atmospheric oxygen
194.
Which of the following causes harmful algal blooms that result in dead zones in the ocean?
a)
Runoff of nitrogen and phosphorus-rich fertilizers
b)
Burning of fossil fuels
c)
Increased amounts of acidic precipitation
d)
Increased levels of greenhouse gases 
195.

Plants and animals in the tundra must be able to adapt to the extremely ___________ weather

a)

small

b)

cold

c)

perennials

d)

shallow

196.

Many of the animals in the desert are ______________ to avoid the extreme heat during the day.

a)

cacti

b)

chia

c)

water

d)

nocturnal

197.

The two main abiotic factors that determine where organisms live are

a)

temperature and latitude

b)

altitude and precipitation

c)

temperature and precipitation

d)

soil type and precipitation

198.
As altitude or latitude increase, temperature ______
a)
stays the same
b)
rises
c)
drops
d)
drops, then rises
199.
Which two biomes have the least precipitation?
a)
tropical rain forest and temperate grasslan
b)
savanna and tropical dry forest
c)
tundra and desert
d)
boreal forest and temperate woodland
200.
This biome is found around the equator and is home to a large amount of biodiversity.
a)
Deserts
b)
Tropical Rain Forests
c)
Savannas
d)
Chaparral 

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