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Review Cardiovascular anesthesia block

Total questions: 25

Worksheet time: 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The mechanisms of depression of cardiac contractility by volatile anesthetics include all the following, except

a)

They decrease the entry of calcium into cells during depolarization

b)

They alter kinetics of calcium release

c)

They decrease the sensitivity of contractile proteins to calcium

d)

They affect only L-type calcium channels

2.

The mechanism of “ x ” descent (descent between C and V waves) in the following right atrial tracing is

a)

Downward movement of the atrioventricular (AV) valve cusps after ventricular

contraction

b)

Relaxation of atrium after atrial systole

c)

Decline in atrial pressure as the AV valves open

d)

Pulling down of the atrium by ventricular contraction

3.

The MOST important pathophysiologic difference between pericardial

effusion and cardiac tamponade is

a)

Type of fluid (e.g., transudate, e xudate, blood)

b)

Pressure

c)

Inflammation

d)

Quantity of fluid

4.

Each of the following is a characteristic of cardiac and skeletal muscle fibers EXCEPT:

a)

Mitochondria are highly abundant in both types of fibers.

b)

Both sarcolemma contain Na

+

channels

c)

Actin and myosin are the contractile proteins.

d)

Impulses reach the myocytes through “T transverse tubules.”

5.

When is the use of spironolactone possibly contraindicated?

a)

In hypernatremic patients

b)

In patients with refractory congestive heart failure

c)

When also prescribing furosemide

d)

In hyperkalemic patients

6.

What is the primary mechanism of action and result of the Class III Antiarrhythmic

drugs (e.g. sotalol, amiodarone)?

a)

Block potassium channels: prolong repolarization phase

b)

Block fast Na channels: slows generation of action potential

c)

Beta adrenergic receptor agonists: slow conduction through the heart

d)

Calcium channel antagonists: vasodilation and increased heart rate

7.

Significant intravenous absorption/inadvertent intravenous injection of bupivacaine can cause profound bradycardia and sinus node arrest. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of cardiac toxicity of bupivacaine?

a)

Bupivacaine binds activated fast sodium channels and dissociates from them

slowly

b)

Bupivacaine binds inactivated slow sodium channels and dissociates from them

slowly

c)

Bupivacaine binds activated slow sodium channels and dissociates from them

slowly

d)

Bupivacaine binds inactivated fast sodium channels and dissociates from them

slowly

8.

Administration of protamine to a patient who has not received heparin can

result in

a)

Profound bradycardia

b)

Anticoagulation

c)

Hypertension

d)

Hypercoagulation

9.

 

A 54- year-old patient is undergoing a three- vessel coronary artery bypass

graft (CABG) under general anesthesia. After induction, the pulmonary

capillary wedge pressure is 15 mmHg and PA pressures are 26/13 mmHg.

Suddenly, new 30-mmHg V waves appear on the monitor screen. Systemic

blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg, heart rate is 75 beats/min, and PA pressure

is 50/35 mmHg. Which of the following drugs should be administered to the patient ?

a)

Esmolol

b)

Dobutamine

c)

Nitroglycerin

d)

Nitroprusside

10.

When performing the oscillometric method to measure blood pressure, for example, when you do not have a stethoscope or automated blood pressure cuff, it is important to remember that you will not be able to measure the

a)

Mean arterial pressure

b)

Systolic blood pressure

c)

Diastolic or mean arterial blood pressure

d)

Diastolic blood pressure

11.

The O2 sensor location is on which part of the anesthesia circuit?

a)

Fail-safe valve

b)

Expiratory limb

c)

Second-stage O2

pressure regulator

d)

Inspiratory limb

12.

The correct formula for determination of mean arterial pressure (MAP) based on systolic pressure (SP) and diastolic pressure (DP) is:

a)

DP + 1/3(SP −DP)

b)

DP −1/2(SP −DP)

c)

(SP + DP)/3

d)

SP −1/3(SP −DP)

13.

Which of the following monitors is the most accurate indicator of left ventricular preload?

a)

Mixed venous saturation

b)

Central venous pressure (CVP) trends

c)

Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP)

d)

Urine output

14.

 

In a preoperative patient with tetralogy of Fallot, the best indicator of the magnitude of the average, chronic R->L shunt is the

a)

arterial pO2.

b)

hematocrit. 

c)

loudness and length of the systolic murmur.

d)

pulmonary blood flow at catheterization.

15.

ASD occurs in the basal portion of the interventricular septum in which of the following ?  

a)

Ostium secundum ASD

b)

Sinus venosus ASD

c)

Patent foramen ovale

d)

Ostium primum ASD

16.

Which of the following is a consequence of chronic hypoxemia in cyanotic CHD ? 

a)

Hyperviscosity

b)

Secondary erythrocytosis

c)

Abnormal hemostasis

d)

All the above

17.

The most common cyanotic congenital heart disease is

a)

Tricuspid atresia

b)

Transposition of the great arteries

c)

Tetralogy of Fallot

d)

Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection

18.

A newborn infant is cyanotic at birth. You suspect transposition of the great arteries. A mixing lesion is necessary for life. Which of the following lesions would allow better mixing?

a)

VSD

b)

ASD

c)

PDA

d)

None of the above

19.

Most neurologic deficits after carotid endarterectomy are thought to result from:

a)

Prolonged carotid artery cross-clamp in the absence of shunt use

b)

Perioperative vasospasm

c)

Inadequate intraoperative carotid artery perfusion pressure

d)

Thromboembolism

20.

The most important factor shown to be of clinical importance in preserving renal function during aortic cross-clamping is:

a)

Fenoldopam

b)

Intravascular volume status

c)

Mannitol

d)

Dopamine

21.

Potential advantages of a regional anesthetic technique over general anesthesia for lower extremity vascular bypass procedures include all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Reduced incidence of postoperative respiratory complications

b)

Avoidance of hyperdynamic responses to tracheal intubation and extubation

c)

A reduction in perioperative cardiac complications

d)

Reduced postoperative hypercoagulability

22.

The area of the myocardium most vulnerable to ischemia is the:

a)

Right ventricle

b)

Interventricular septum

c)

Subendocardial region of the left ventricle

d)

Apex of the left ventricle

23.

Which of the following conditions best describes a physiologic change associated with mitral stenosis?

a)

Left ventricular dysfunction resulting from chronic volume overload

b)

Increased left atrial pressure and concomitant right ventricular hypertrophy

c)

Decreased right ventricular pressure

d)

Left ventricular outflow obstruction

24.

The most common cause of persistent bleeding after heparin reversal in cardiac surgical patients is:

a)

Reduced platelet count or function

b)

Heparin rebound

c)

Hypothermia

d)

Diminished capillary integrity

25.

Anesthetic considerations in a patient with mitral regurgitation include all the

following, except

a)

Avoid sudden decreases in heart rate

b)

Minimize drug-induced myocardial depression

c)

Avoid sudden decreases in systemic vascular resistance (SVR)

d)

Monitor the magnitude of the C wave of CVP as a reflection of mitral regurgitant flow