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APES Midterm Review

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What type of plate boundary is shown here?

a)

Convergent

b)

Subduction

c)

Divergent

d)

Transform

2.

What type of plate boundary is shown here?

a)

Convergent

b)

Subduction

c)

Divergent

d)

Transform

3.

What type of plate boundary is most likely to cause earthquakes?

a)

Convergent

b)

Subduction

c)

Divergent

d)

Transform

4.

What type of plate boundary is most likely to cause the formation of a new landform?

a)

Convergent

b)

Subduction

c)

Divergent

d)

Transform

5.

Which soil particle is largest in diameter?

a)

Clay

b)

Silt

c)

Sand

d)

Loam

6.

In which layer of the atmosphere does weather take place?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

e)

Exosphere

7.

Which layer of the atmosphere contains the ozone layer?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

e)

Exosphere

8.

What is the ozone layer?

a)

A layer of pollution

b)

A layer of still air with no wind

c)

A zone that absorbs UV radiation from the sun

d)

A zone that absorbs air pollution

9.

Which wind system is closest to the equator?

a)

Doldrums

b)

Westerlies

c)

Polar easterlies

d)

Trade winds

10.

As altitude increases, what happens to temperature?

a)

Temperature increases

b)

Temperature decreases

c)

Temperature does not change with altitude

11.

Which gas is there the most of in the atmosphere?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Water vapor

d)

Carbon dioxide

12.

What is the shortest day of the year?

a)

Summer solstice

b)

Winter solstice

c)

Spring equinox

d)

Fall equinox

13.

Why does the Earth have seasons?

a)

Tilt of the Earth on its axis

b)

Earth's shape

c)

Earth's rotation around the Sun

d)

Earth's rotation on its own axis

14.

What type of population growth is being shown in this population pyramid?

a)

Rapid growth

b)

Stable growth

c)

Declining growth

15.

Which month has the highest precipitation?

a)

July

b)

August

c)

September

d)

June

16.

Which of the following would NOT lead to a decrease in TFR?

a)

Increased access to birth control

b)

Increased women's rights

c)

Increased access to education

d)

Improved drinking water

17.

Which of the following is the largest carbon sink?

a)

Atmosphere

b)

Plants

c)

Animals

d)

Ocean

18.

If a primary consumer contains 1,000 kcal of energy, the secondary consumer gains how much energy when it eats the primary consumer?

a)

1,000 kcal

b)

100 kcal

c)

10 kcal

d)

10,000 kcal

19.
Which of the following BEST defines Gross domestic product?
a)
the total value of everything produced by all the people and companies in the country
b)
a measure of the total output of a country divided it by the number of people in the country.
c)
an increase in a nation's output
20.
An average ecological footprint of an individual in a given country or area is called
a)
Gross domestic product
b)
Net domestic product
c)
per capita ecological footprint
d)
per capita gross GNP
21.
The per capita ecological footprint of U.S. citizen is about ____ times as much as an average citizen of China.
a)
2
b)
4
c)
6
d)
8
22.
Research by social scientists suggests that it takes ____ percent of the population of a community, country, or the world to bring about major social change.
a)
1-2%
b)
5-10%
c)
25-30%
d)
at least 75%
23.
Each trophic level receives about ____% of the energy available to the last trophic level.
a)
1
b)
5
c)
10
d)
20
24.

ability for water and air to flow through soil

a)

Porosity

b)

Permeability

c)

Texture

d)

Salinity

25.

Texture with highest porosity

a)

Sand

b)

Silt

c)

Clay

d)

Boulder

26.

Soil with highest nutrient holding capacity

a)

Sand

b)

Silt

c)

Clay

d)

Snow

27.

horizon made of parent material

a)

O

b)

A

c)

C

d)

E

28.

subsoil horizon

a)

O

b)

B

c)

C

d)

E

29.

The Himalaya Mountains are the result of this

a)

Subduction

b)

Seafloor spreading

c)

Divergent plate boundary

d)

Transform plate boundary

30.

Which of the following characteristics is most closely associated with a country that demonstrates the age structure diagram show above?

a)

There is a low infant mortality rate

b)

A high percentage of the population has access to medical care

c)

There is a low population growth

d)

There is a high total fertility rate

31.

What type of age structure diagram represents a population with negative growth rate?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
32.

Countries undergoing rapid populations growth include which of the following?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

II and III

e)

I, II, and III

33.

Represents the maximum number of individuals that can be supported by a particular ecosystem on a long-term basis

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

34.

Which of the following is a true statement about the total fertility of a society?

a)

The total fertility of a society is the difference between the crude birth rate and the crude death rate.

b)

The total fertility of a society is the number of children necessary for a couple to replace themselves in the next generation.

c)

The total fertility of a society is positively correlated with the average education of women.

d)

The total fertility of a society is negatively correlated with the number of women of child-bearing age.

e)

The total fertility of a society decreases as the society progresses through the demographic transition.

35.

Which of the following is most typically associated with the transition from a rural to an urbanized society?

a)

Reduced birth rates

b)

Reduced need for sewage-treatment facilities

c)

Increased rates of population growth

d)

Increased air quality in urban areas

e)

Increased stabilization of microclimate in urban areas

36.

The current global human population is about 6.1 billion and is growing at an annual rate of 1.35 percent. If world population were to grow at this rate for the next year, approximately how many people would be added?

a)

8 × 105

b)

8 × 106

c)

8 × 107

d)

8 × 108

e)

8 × 109

37.

If a country has a crude birth rate of 24 per 1,000 and a crude death rate of 8 per 1,000, the natural annual percent increase of its population is

a)

0.6%

b)

1.6%

c)

3%

d)

16%

e)

32%

38.

The total fertility rate in country A was 6.8 in 1980. Which of the following statements best supports the change in the total fertility rate in country A between 1980 and 2015?

a)

The total fertility rate increased as a result of improved health care and better nutrition.

b)

The total fertility rate remained constant even though there was improved access to clean water.

c)

The total fertility rate decreased as a result of a delay in age of first marriage and increased contraceptive use.

d)

The total fertility rate decreased as a result of increased infant mortality rate.

39.

Members of an r-selected species characteristically

a)

grow slowly

b)

produce few offspring

c)

reach sexual maturity quickly

d)

have long life spans

e)

are very protective of their offspring

40.

Which of the following characteristics in the table best supports the claim that:

Country A is a more developed country and that Country

B is a less developed country?

a)

population size

b)

land area

c)

infant mortality rate

d)

net migration rate

41.

The crude growth rate, r , of a population is calculated by

a)

multiplying the existing population size by life expectancy

b)

dividing the crude birth rate by 2

c)

dividing the doubling time by 70

d)

adding the crude birth rate to the crude death rate

e)

subtracting the crude death rate from the crude birth rate

42.

Cycads are gymnosperms that were diverse and abundant during the Mesozoic era. Extant species of cycads share many traits with those from the Mesozoic era. Cycads bear cones, are long-lived with slow growth rates, show late reproductive maturity, and have very few offspring. Based on this description, the cycads are

a)

K-strategists with a Type I survivorship curve.

b)

r-strategists with a Type III survivorship curve.

c)

K-strategists with a Type III survivorship curve.

d)

r-strategists with a Type II survivorship curve.

43.

In a certain country, the birth rate is high, the death rate is high, and there are many children that are part of the workforce. The country is most likely in which of the following stages of the demographic transition?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

44.

During which stage of the demographic transition shown above does a population begin to experience an explosive increase in growth?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

e)

After Stage 4

45.

In a human population undergoing the demographic transition, which of the following generally decreases first?

a)

Birth rate

b)

Death rate

c)

Average family size

d)

Life expectancy

e)

Level of education

46.

If the population of a country grows at a rate of approximately 5 percent per year, the number of years required for the population to double is closest to

a)

5 years

b)

10 years

c)

15 years

d)

25 years

e)

35 years

47.

What is a primary producer?

a)

autotrophs (plants, algae, phytoplankton)

b)

heterotrophs

c)

carnivores

d)

herbivores

48.

What is an omnivore?

a)

animals that eats plants

b)

animal that eat meat

c)

animal that eats both plants and meat

49.

What is a generalist species?

a)

Species with a broad range of tolerance

b)

Species with a narrow range of tolerance

50.

Which of the following is an example of a keystone species?

a)

Beavers

b)

Elephants

c)

Kudzu vine

d)

Sea otters

51.

Which of the following is not an example of an invasive species?

a)

Kudzu vine

b)

Carp

c)

Elephants

d)

Fire ants

52.

Which of these is an aquatic indicator species?

a)

Shrimp

b)

Coral

c)

Plankton

d)

Sea Anemone

53.

Which of the following is not a terrestrial indicator species?

a)

Birds

b)

Crocodile

c)

Insects

d)

Amphibians

54.

Which of these human actions impacts multiple nutrient cycles?

a)

Deforestation

b)

Driving gasoline cars

c)

Burning sulfur- containing coal

d)

Making fertilizers

55.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Biodiversity decreases with increased sunlight

b)

Biodiversity decreases as you move away from the equator

c)

Biodiversity decreases as you decrease in altitude

d)

Biodiversity increases as you go further down in the oceans

56.

What is true about endemic species?

a)

They are more vulnerable to extinction

b)

They are less vulnerable to extinction

57.

The continent with the most amount of biodiversity in the world is

a)

Asia

b)

North America

c)

South America

d)

Europe

58.

Why are sea otters so crucial to an ecosystem?

a)

They aren't.

b)

They build dams and help rivers flow

c)

They provide us with nutrients

d)

They feed on sea urchins which are harmful to kelp forests

59.

Pioneer species like moss and lichen are most likely to show up after

a)

primary succession

b)

secondary succession

60.

Which of the following is true about island biodiversity?

a)

Small islands are more likely to have more immigrated species

b)

Small islands have more biodiversity

c)

Small islands have more species

d)

Small islands have less resources

61.

A role played by an organism in an ecosystem is known at its

a)

Niche

b)

Job

c)

Role

d)

Duty

62.

What is the difference between primary and secondary succcession?

a)

Primary succession already has soil

b)

Lichen and moss come in for secondary succession

c)

Secondary succession already has soil

d)

Climax community is achieved quickly in primary succession

63.

What prediction is correct about island biogeography?

a)

Smaller islands have more resources, and will have more biodiversity

b)

Larger islands have more space for resources, but will have less biodiversity due to competition

c)

Animals Islands closer to mainland will migrate successfully and there will be more diversity

d)

Animals will fly to far away mainland and there will be more diversity

64.

Which of the following has a negative impact on biodiversity?

a)

Accidental introduction of invasive species

b)

Burning fossil fuels

c)

Burning the Amazon forest

d)

Population growth

e)

Overconsumption

65.

What is the best way to reduce stress on the ecosystem's provisioning services?

a)

Use electric cars

b)

Slow down population growth

c)

Limiting human access to national parks

d)

Recycling

66.

Jay has 3 green marbles, 4 red skittles, and 5 twix. What is the species richness?

a)

3

b)

12

c)

1.5

d)

0.50

67.

Jay has 3 green marbles, 4 red skittles, and 5 twix. What is the species diversity index

a)

0.28

b)

0.71

c)

-0.28

d)

0.63

68.

True or False: Mass extinctions are common.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

The study of environmental science primarily considers

a)

interactions among human systems and those found in Earth

b)

the effect of human systems

c)

abiotic factors that influence the state of our environment

d)

factors that affect global climate change

70.

An ecosystem is a location on Earth that includes

a)

only biotic components

b)

only abiotic components

c)

interacting biotic and abiotic components

d)

positive and negative feedback loops

71.

Living in a sustainable way refers to

a)

recycling all paper, plastic, and metals

b)

using resources in a way that does not deprive future generations

c)

using Earth's resources efficiently

d)

eating locally whenever possible

72.

Which of the following is a qualitative observation?

a)

15 inches

b)

a liquid

c)

a green solution

d)

6 feet 1 inches

73.

Place the ecology levels of organization in proper order (smallest to largest)

a)

organism > population > community > ecosystem > biosphere

b)

community > organism > ecosystem > biosphere > population

c)

organism > community > biosphere > population > ecosystem

d)

population > biosphere > ecosystem > community > organism

74.

A tapeworm lives in the small intestines where it feeds and grows, robbing the human of essential nutrients. This is a _____ type of relationship.

a)

Commensalism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Symbiotic

d)

Mutualism

75.

The cattle egret follows herds of cattle and eat the insects that the cattle stir up as they move through the grassland. The cattle appear to be unaffected by the egrets. This is a _____ type of relationship.

a)

Commensalism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Symbiotic

d)

Mutualism

76.

Which is a biotic factor?

a)

producers

b)

pH

c)

energy

d)

humidity

77.

Which best describes the concept of net primary production?

a)

total amount of energy available from the Sun

b)

total amount of cellular respiration conducted within an ecosystem

c)

energy captured minus energy lost

d)

total amount of energy available from the producer

78.

In which biome would you expect to find an area with an average temperature of 10oC and 200 cm of precipitation annually?

a)

Temperate seasonal forest

b)

Temperate rainforest

c)

Woodland/shrubland

d)

Tropical seasonal forest

79.

In which biome would you expect to find an area with an average temperature of 4oC and 50 cm of precipitation annually?

a)

Tundra

b)

Boreal forest

c)

Temperate grassland/cold desert

d)

Woodland/shrubland

80.

What factors are used to classify a biome?

a)

average temperature

b)

average precipitation

c)

distinctive plants adapted to area

d)

all of these are correct

81.

Which biome is characterized by the presence of permafrost?

a)

temperate seasonal forest

b)

woodland/shrubland

c)

tundra

d)

boreal forest

82.

Terrestrial biomes are defined by ____ and ____ variables.

a)

temperature; precipitation

b)

temperature; animals

c)

precipitation; plants

d)

animals; plants

83.

Which of the following are examples of wetlands?

a)

swamps

b)

marshes

c)

bogs

d)

all of these are correct

84.

The direction of an arrow in a food chain represents

a)

the flow of energy from organism B to A

b)

the movement of organisms

c)

the directionality of the sun

d)

the flow of energy from organism A to B

85.

When two species attempt to use the same resource and one outcompetes the other

a)

competitive exclusion

b)

demographic transition

c)

directional selection

d)

resource partitioning

86.

Five species of warblers coexist in the same fir tree by occupying different areas of the tree. This demonstrates

a)

adaptive radiation

b)

competitive exclusion

c)

natural selection

d)

resource partitioning

87.

Why do biomes near the equator have greater biodiversity than those near the poles?

a)

due to ecological succession

b)

due to the invasion of exotic species

c)

the temperature & precipitation is greater near the equator

d)

the temperature & precipitation is greater near the poles

88.

Why are phytoplankton more abundant near the surface of oceans?

a)

to be more accessible to other organisms

b)

sunlight cannot penetrate great depths

c)

they are ba-ba-ba benthic organisms

d)

because they feed on zooplankton that live there

89.

What two major processes are involved in the carbon cycle?

a)

erosion and deposition

b)

evaporation and transpiration

c)

fixation and denitrification

d)

photosynthesis and respiration

90.

What is a primary source of nitrates & phosphates?

a)

burning of coal

b)

changes in environmental temperature

c)

fertilizers and sewage

d)

nitrogen fixation and lightning

91.

Why is the main reason phosphorus is a limiting factor?

a)

it cannot be readily taken up by plants

b)

is cycles too quickly through the biosphere

c)

it is insoluble in water and forms sediments like rock

d)

there is too much of it in nature typically that it is toxic

92.

Which element does NOT have a gas phase?

a)

carbon

b)

nitrogen

c)

phosphorus

d)

sulfur

93.

Stage of the hydrologic cycle where plants lose water from their pores

a)

condensation

b)

evaporation

c)

precipitation

d)

transpiration

94.

What is the NPP if the GPP is 5.8 kg C/m2/year and respiration is 2.4 kg C/m2/year?

a)

2.4 kg C/m2/year

b)

3.4 kg C/m2/year

c)

5.8 kg C/m2/year

d)

8.2 kg C/m2/year

95.

Which of the following have the LOWEST net primary productivity?

a)

agricultural land with crops

b)

estuary

c)

open ocean

d)

temperate deciduous forest

96.

Why are decomposers a significant part of ecosystems?

a)

the neutralize acid deposition

b)

they produce more oxygen than they consume

c)

they recycle nutrients

d)

they remove heavy metals from the air

97.

What type of organism would be found at the lowest trophic level?

a)

bear

b)

grass

c)

kangaroo

d)

python snake

98.

If producers capture 15,000 Joules of energy from the sun, how much energy would a secondary consumer receive?

a)

15 Joules

b)

150 Joules

c)

1,500 Joules

d)

15,000 Joules

99.

What type of ecosystem is more resilient or likely to recover after a disturbance?

a)

an ecosystem with low biodiversity

b)

an ecosystem with high biodiversity

c)

the level of biodiversity does not influence resilience of an ecosystem

d)

a small population with specialized niches

100.

Which type of species is most vulnerable and less able to adapt to changes in the environment?

a)

species with a large population size

b)

niche generalists

c)

niche specialists

d)

species with high genetic variation

101.

Which of the following would DECREASE island biodiversity?

a)

increased amount of edge habitat

b)

increased island size

c)

increased proximity to the mainland

d)

less competition