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Тест 3

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1. In children with bronchospasm which one of the following statements is

true?

a)

Inspiratory phase of breathing is prolonged

b)

Patients feel themselves better in lying position

c)

Wheezing is the most common sign of the bronchospasm

d)

Bronchospasm is extremely rare in children younger 5 years

2.

2. In newborn babies with congenital heart disease which one of the following

statements is correct?

a)

Diffuse cyanosis is the main sign of all congenital heart diseases

b)

Oxygen saturation measurement will detect all congenital heart defects

c)

All heart defects can be diagnosed by ECG

d)

Newborn babies with aorta coarctation have the diffuse cyanosis

3.

3. When assessing a child with vomiting, which of the following statements is

true of vomiting in children.

a)

Vomiting in neonatal period the sign only of GIT disorders

b)

Vomiting can present in infants with urinary tract infections

c)

Children with intracranial hypertension very rare have vomiting

d)

Vomiting in children older than 5 years is unspecific sign of intestinal infections

4.

4. Which of the following is a sign of abnormal gross motor development:

a)

Running at age 2 years

b)

Climbing and descending stairs at age 2 years

c)

Changing from lying to sitting position at age 9–12 months

d)

Start crawling at age 18 months

5.

5. Children should be measured lying down until which age?

a)

6 month

b)

12 month

c)

18 month

d)

24 month

6.

5. Which of the following statements regarding measuring and plotting

children's growth is true?

a)

The measurement should be marked on the growth chart only with a cross

b)

Once a child is 5 years old height does not usually deviate from the centile line

c)

The final (target) height of boys can be calculated as a sum of maternal and

paternal height deduct 13 divided for 2

d)

The final (target) height of girls can be calculated as a sum of maternal and

paternal height deduct 13 divided for 2

7.

6. What signs is not using for newborn condition scale at the labor room:

a)

Skin color

b)

Muscle tone

c)

Ability to suck

d)

Ability to breath

e)

Heart rate

8.

7. Antenatal diagnosis of all following conditions is possible except

a)

Down’s syndrome

b)

Patau syndrome

c)

Anencephaly

d)

Hurler syndrome

9.

8. Normal height with decrease bone age is seen in-

a)

Cushings syndrome

b)

Hypothyroidism

c)

Thanatophoric dwarf

d)

Downs syndrome

10.

9. What is the reflex when doctor holds the baby on one hand and stroke the

lateral border of the spinal muscle from the mid-thoracic area downwards.

This will cause the pelvis to curve to the same side.

a)

Moro response (reflex)

b)

Grasp response

c)

Head control reflex

d)

Galant reflex

11.

10. Newborn baby has the heart rate 140 per minute. This is …

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Normal heart rate

d)

Normal only for crying babies

12.

11. Vital signs do not include

a)

Heart rate

b)

Breath rate

c)

Consciousness level

d)

Capillary refile time

e)

Ability to speak

13.

12. Choose the right statement about physical examination of preschool

children

a)

The initial examination should include speech ability checking

b)

The normal heart rate is 120-160 per minute

c)

Doctor should check the presence of Moro reflex

d)

Doctor should evaluate level of alertness

14.

13. In a breast fed four week old baby the following are all normal except onechoose the abnormal one:

a)

Passing runny yellow stool 6 times a day

b)

Passing green stool once a day

c)

Passing a smooth, soft stool once a 2-3 days

d)

Passing a stool with a little blood on the surface

15.

14. Which one of the following blood group combinations in a mother and baby gives the highest risk of jaundice due to hemolytic disease of the

newborn?

a)

Mother group A Rh+ baby group A Rh−

b)

Mother group AB Rh+ baby group O Rh−

c)

Mother group O Rh+ baby group A Rh+

d)

Mother group O Rh− baby group A Rh+

e)

Mother group A Rh− baby group O Rh+

16.

15. What is the presumable diagnosis of this baby

a)

Neonatal hemolytic disease

b)

Neonatal hemorrhagic disease

c)

Neonatal sepsis

d)

Prematurity

17.

16. Which one of the following conditions causes growth to fall off across

centile lines in patients younger 2 years

a)

Hypothyroidism

b)

Constitutional short stature

c)

Delayed puberty

d)

Growth hormone deficiency

e)

Somatotropinoma

18.

17. Vitamin K deficiency occurs in the following, except

a)

Breast milk feeding

b)

Formula feeding

c)

Bile tract obstruction

d)

Severe malabsorption

19.

18. Choose the biomarker of neonatal bacterial sepsis

a)

Troponin-1

b)

CRP and Procalcitonin

c)

Urine nitric esterase

d)

Thyrocalcitonin

20.

19. 5 years old boy with hepatomegaly and neurological signs. He has this type

of cornea. What are the treatment option of this disease

a)

Penicillamine

b)

Riboflavin

c)

Pegylated interferons

d)

Gluten free diet

21.

20. Most commonly used index for nutritional status is-

a)

Height for age

b)

Waist circumference

c)

Weight for age

d)

BMI

22.

21. The 6 days old boy with tachypnea and absence of pulse on feet. What is

the most probable diagnosis?

a)

Tetralogy of Fallot

b)

Pulmonary valve atresia

c)

PDA

d)

Coarctation of aorta

23.

22. Mother asked you for how long she can store the sucked breast milk in the

room temperature. What will you recommend?

a)

Not more than one hour

b)

Two-three hours

c)

Eight hours

d)

It cannot be stored without refrigerator

e)

It can be stored only in temperature less than (-18°C)

24.

23. What is the earliest sign of ricket (hypovitaminosis D)?

a)

Harrison’s groove

b)

Craniotabes

c)

Bone fractures

d)

Teeth deformities

25.

24. Choose the right statement about hypovitaminosis D in children

a)

Premature infants (especially if on parenteral nutrition) have low risk of

hypovitaminosis D

b)

Exclusive breast feeding is the best hypovitaminosis D prevention

c)

Vegetarian diet is the predictor of hypovitaminosis D

d)

Hypovitaminosis D is most common in formula fed children

26.

25. 18-month-old girl with complains to gait problems and low limbs

deformation has this X-ray results. What is the most probable diagnosis?

a)

Rickets

b)

Osteoporosis

c)

Juvenile arthritis

d)

No pathological signs in this X-ray

27.

26. Blood pressure in the newborn infant is best measured by:

a)

Standard sphygmomanometry

b)

Automated machine

c)

Doppler ultrasonic

d)

Swan–Ganz catheter

e)

Palpatory method

28.

27. The newborn boy at the 1st minute after the birth demonstrate peripheral

cyanosis, irregular breathing movements, heart rate 80 per minute, weak

facial muscle reaction, and no muscle tone. What will be Apgar score for this child?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

8

d)

10

e)

2

29.

28. The newborn has the heart rate 105 per minute. How can you evaluate this

result?

a)

Normal

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Depends of hour of life

e)

Normal for preterm

30.

29. 14-month-old boy with diarrhea have been examined in Casualty. Doctor

evaluated consciousness level, heart rate, breath rate, skin turgor, capillary

refill time, ability to drink, MUAC. What signs is not classified as a vital sign?

a)

Heart rate

b)

Breath rate

c)

Consciousness level

d)

Capillary refill time

e)

Skin turgor

31.

30. Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy severity criteria (Modified Sarnat

Criteria) includes:

a)

Level of consciousness

b)

Spontaneous activity

c)

Suck reflex

d)

Moro reflex

e)

Breath rate

32.

31. 2 hours old newborn term boy with severe hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy.

What signs are confirming this diagnosis?

a)

Focal muscle hypotonia

b)

Brisk tendon reflexes

c)

Transient behavioral abnormalities

d)

Normal pattern of breathing

e)

Nystagmus

33.

32. 4 hours old newborn term boy with severe hypoxic-ischemic

encephalopathy. What parameters should be monitoring?

a)

Blood gases, electrolytes

b)

Blood gases, electrolytes, glucose

c)

Blood gases, electrolytes, glucose, lactate

d)

Blood gases, electrolytes, glucose, lactate, coagulation

e)

Blood gases, electrolytes, glucose, lactate, coagulation, brain MRI

34.

33. 4 hours old newborn term boy with severe hypoxic-ischemic

encephalopathy. What treatment needs this patient?

a)

Hypothermia

b)

40% dextrose IV

c)

Blood transfusion

d)

Iron supplements

35.

34. 2-days old baby delivered by Cesarian section due to poor uterine

contraction strength after 34 hours period of ruptured membranes has mild

fever and poor feeding. What diseases should be excluded in this patient?

a)

Early-onset sepsis

b)

Late-onset sepsis

c)

Neonatal hemolytic disease

d)

Fallot tetrad

e)

Congenital hypothyroidism

36.

35. 10 days old preterm baby on the mechanical ventilation has hypothermia,

lethargy, poor appetite, neutrophilia, elevated CRP and procalcitonin. What

is the less probable causative agent of this condition?

a)

E.coli

b)

Proteus mirabilis

c)

Klebsiella pneumonia

d)

Staphylococcus Aureus

e)

Group B Streptococcus

37.

36. 2 weeks old baby with sepsis. What initial treatment needs this patient?

a)

Combined intravenous aminoglycoside and amoxycillin

b)

Combined intravenous aminoglycoside and amoxicillin orally

c)

Intravenous vancomycin

d)

Intravenous ciprofloxacin

e)

Third generation cephalosporines orally

38.

37. Which one of the following is the most important cause of jaundice

presenting in the first 24 hours of life to exclude?

a)

Hemolysis

b)

Breastfeeding

c)

Physiological jaundice

d)

Excessive carotin intake

39.

38. Previously healthy 4 days old female infant from healthy mother was

referred to hospital because petechial rash, but is otherwise well. A cranial

ultrasound reveals a right-sided grade 1 intraventricular haemorrhage but no

other abnormality. A full blood count reveals the thrombocytopenia. Which

one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Early-onset neonatal sepsis

b)

Late-onset neonatal sepsis

c)

Neonatal hemorrhagic disease

d)

Congenital CMV infection

e)

Congenital toxoplasmosis

40.

39. A mother has an O-negative blood group. All but which one of the

following blood groups in her baby could lead to the development of maternal

red cell antibodies?

a)

O -positive

b)

A-negative

c)

0-negative

d)

B-positive

e)

AB-negative

41.

40. Which one of the following is NOT a reported benefit of breastfeeding?

a)

Promotes mother-infant bonding

b)

Prevents of future obesity

c)

Reduced risk of asthma and atopic eczema

d)

Reduced risk of autoimmune diseases

e)

Reduced risk of hypovitaminosis D

42.

41. Which one of the following statements is FALSE with regard to the

composition of human milk versus cows' milk?

a)

Human milk contains immune response elements

b)

The casein amount high in breast milk

c)

Human milk contains more lactoferrin

d)

Human milk rich in lactalbumin

e)

Human milk contains more oligosaccharides

43.

42. Which of the following is true of the newborn skin?

a)

Pustular rashes are always abnormal in the first week of life

b)

Pustular rashes occurring in the first 72 hours of life should always be treated

with aciclovir

c)

Blueberry muffin -like rash is the sing of intrauterine infection

d)

A congenital melanocytic naevus >3 mm always needs removal as there is a risk

of malignant change

e)

Skin flaking in the most common sign of Vitamin A deficiency

44.

43. Newborn was delivered by forceps assisted vaginal delivery following a

prolonged second stage. At the newborn examination a few hours later, the

baby demonstrate type of crying (see the picture). What is the cause of this

situation?

a)

Congenital infection

b)

Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy

c)

Facial nerve palsy

d)

Bacterial meningitis

e)

Viral encephalitis

45.

44. A full-term baby is born by forceps delivery. At the newborn examination

a few hours later, the baby is noted to have an asymmetrical cry. Which one

of the following actions should NOT be undertaken?

a)

Let the baby attempt breastfeeding

b)

Inform the obstetrician so that a risk management review can take place

c)

Arrange an urgent MRI scan to check for intracerebral bleeding or unilateral

infarction

d)

Prescribe artificial tears to be administered to the baby's eye

e)

Consider the diagnosis of asymmetric crying facies syndrome if there is no

evidence of bruising

46.

45. Due to routine examination on a term baby on day 4 of life doctor notice a

different shape of the head (see picture). The baby had been delivered by a

Ventouse extraction and has been well since birth. The swelling does not cross

the suture lines, it is soft and fluctuant. Which one of the following statements

is true?

a)

This is most like a subaponeurotic hemorrhage (also known as a subgaleal

hemorrhage) and the baby should immediately be admitted to the nursery for

observation

b)

This is a Chignon and it will spontaneously resolve in a few days

c)

This is a cephalhematoma as it does not cross the suture lines

d)

This swelling may be associated with an underlying skull fracture and the baby

should have a CT of the head performed before discharge

e)

The baby has caput succedaneum

47.

46. Predisposing factors for early-onset neonatal sepsis are:

a)

Maternal age younger than 17

b)

Prolonged rupture of membrane

c)

Maternal chronic heart diseases

d)

Previous Cesarian section

e)

In vitro fertilization

48.

47. Newborn baby with hydrocephalus, seizures, hepatosplenomegaly and

brain calcinates. What additional examination need this patient to confirm the

diagnosis?

a)

Liver biopsy

b)

Fundoscopy

c)

Electroencephalography

d)

Brain ultrasound

e)

Low limbs X-ray

49.

48. Newborn baby with hepatosplenomegaly, maculopapular rash on soles

and palms, snuffles, lymphadenopathy, and pneumonitis. What tests will you

recommend to make the diagnosis?

a)

PCR

b)

VDRL

c)

PCR and VDRL

d)

VDRL, RPR

e)

VDRL, RPR and blood culture

50.

49. Newborn baby with low birth weight, microcephaly, hepatosplenomegaly,

thrombocytopenic purpura, combined hearth defect, cataract, sensorineural

deafness. Mother had a rubella infection during the pregnancy. What signs

are the components of classical congenital rubella triad?

a)

Low birth weight, microcephaly, hepatosplenomegaly

b)

Hepatosplenomegaly, thrombocytopenic purpura, low birth weight

c)

Thrombocytopenic purpura, combined hearth defect, microcephaly

d)

Combined hearth defect, cataract, sensorineural deafness

e)

Thrombocytopenic purpura, combined hearth defect, cataract

51.

50. Choose the right statements of food allergy.

a)

Food allergy always appears from an early age, the development of food allergy

in adults is not possible

b)

Food allergy in young children manifests itself only in the form of atopic

eczema

c)

The most common food allergen in adults is cow's milk proteins

d)

Non IgE mediated food allergy appear as a proctocolitis, esophagitis,

enterocolitis

e)

Cow’s milk protein allergy in infancy it is indication for the goat milk based

formula prescribing

52.

51. 5-month-old boy with itching skin rash. What do you need to do to find

proper treatment?

a)

1. Access severity of disease using clinical scales (SCORAD, EASI)

b)

2. Access severity of disease using clinical scales (SCORAD, EASI), check IgE

c)

3. Access severity of disease using clinical scales (SCORAD, EASI), check IgE,

skin filaggrin

d)

4. Access severity of disease using clinical scales (SCORAD, EASI), check IgE,

skin filaggrin, do the prick test

e)

5. Check IgE, skin filaggrin, do the prick test

53.

52. 4 month-old formula-fed infant has pruritic rash. What treatment needs

this patient?

a)

Only emollients topically, because it is not severe condition

b)

Changing formula to full-hydrolyzed will be enough

c)

This child needs to exclude contact with water, use wet wipes for the hygiene

d)

Full-hydrolyzed formula, emollients and topical steroids

e)

Exclude contact with water, hypoallergenic formula, emollients

54.

53. Mother of 5-month-old child complains to the child’s poor appetite,

weakness and weight loss after severe infection 2 month before.

His BMI z-score is =-3,9. What is the diagnosis?

a)

Moderate acute malnutrition

b)

Moderate chronic malnutrition

c)

Severe acute malnutrition, marasmus

d)

Severe chronic malnutrition

e)

Severe acute malnutrition, stinting

55.

53. Mother of 5-month-old child complains to the child’s poor appetite,

weakness and weight loss after severe infection 2 month before.

His BMI z-score is =-3,9. What doctor should do?

a)

Measure MUAC

b)

Measure height

c)

Measure the body temperature

d)

Measure blood pressure

e)

Measure head circumference

56.

53. Mother of 5-month-old child complains to the child’s poor appetite,

weakness and weight loss after severe infection 2 month before.

His BMI z-score is =-3,9. What lab/test should be done for this patient?

a)

CBC

b)

CBC, blood sugar

c)

CBC, blood sugar, serum electrolytes

d)

CBC, blood sugar, serum electrolytes

e)

Measure head circumference

57.

54. A 12-year-old afebrile boy with coughing and wheezing. He has history of

allergies for 2 years; both parents have allergic rhinitis. Auscultation revealed

diffuse wheezing. There is no opacification or hyperinflation on the chest Xray. Which of the following should be used as on-demand therapy?

a)

Inhaled β-adrenergic agonist

b)

Inhaled corticosteroids

c)

Inhaled cromolyn sodium

d)

Oral β-adrenergic agonist

e)

Oral theophylline

58.

55. A 15-year-old girl was admitted to the emergency room with episode of

sudden breathing difficulties after bee sting. The body temperature is 38 °C, pulse 115 / min, respiratory rate 60 / min, blood pressure 80/40 mm Hg,

respiratory distress, diffuse urticarial rash on the body and extremities.

Auscultation of the lungs revealed bilateral expiratory wheezing. Choose the

most appropriate initial treatment.

a)

Oral diphenhydramine

b)

Subcutaneous fluticasone

c)

Subcutaneous epinephrine

d)

Inhaled methylprednisolone

e)

Intravenous diphenhydramine

59.

56. Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by:

a)

Decreased plasma iron, decreased saturation, increased total iron-binding

capacity

b)

Decreased plasma iron, decreased plasma ferritin, normal RBC porphyrin

c)

Decreased plasma iron, decreased saturation, decreased increased total ironbinding capacity

d)

Decreased plasma iron, increased saturation, decreased increased total ironbinding capacity

60.

57. In patients with juvenile idiopathic arthritis the arthritis signs all

following except

a)

Swelling

b)

Warm

c)

Erythema

d)

Limitation of movement

e)

Pain on movement

61.

59. An infant with a marked cyanotic congenital heart defect with decreased

pulmonary vascularity should be treated with:

a)

Digoxin

b)

Indomethacin

c)

Prostaglandin E1

d)

Epinephrine

62.

58. 2-month-old boy has a continuous machinery heart murmur. What is the

most probable diagnosis

a)

Coarctation of aorta

b)

VSD

c)

TGA

d)

TOF

e)

PDA

63.

60. Patients with Grave’s disease have all signs listed below except

a)

Poor appetite

b)

Weight loss

c)

Palpitation

d)

Elevated blood pressure

e)

Sweating

64.

61. 6 years old boy with excessive irritability, weight loss and goiter. What test

will you recommend to confirm your diagnosis?

a)

TSH

b)

CBC

c)

Thyroid peroxidase antibodies

d)

T4,T3

e)

Receptors TSH antibodies

65.

62. A child with diarrhea, abdominal pain , miosis , bradycardia , and

dyspnea most likely has:

a)

Iron poisoning

b)

Organophosphate poisoning

c)

Kerosene poisoning

d)

Acetaminophen poisoning

e)

Salicylate poisoning

66.

63. Acute poisoning is most common in:

a)

Infants

b)

Schoolchildren

c)

Teenagers

d)

Newborn

e)

Toddlers

67.

64. 12 years old afebrile boy with pain and swelling of his left ankle. You

found hyperemia, swelling, and decreased movements in the left ankle. What

lab.test is not necessary for this patient?

a)

C-reactive protein

b)

CBC

c)

Procalcitonin test

d)

Antinuclear test

e)

Rheumatoid factor

68.

65. The standard method for determining a type of acute leukemia in children

is:

a)

Genome-wide association studies

b)

Immunophenotyping

c)

CBC

d)

Serum biochemical test

e)

Direct microscopy

69.

66. A 12-year-old girl with juvenile idiopathic arthritis and methotrexate with

folic acid treatment presents with anemia and melena. Physical examination

demonstrates tenderness to palpation of the upper abdomen and a left knee

effusion. What test needs this patient?

a)

Liver ultrasound

b)

Upper endoscopy

c)

Proctosigmoidoscopy

d)

Fecal culture

70.

67. 10 years old boy has obesity. How can you find the severity of obesity?

a)

Find the height to age z-score

b)

Find the BMI z-score

c)

Find the weight to age z-score

d)

Find the MUAC

e)

Find the weight to age percentile

71.

68. Choose the right statements about growth hormone deficiency

a)

Growth hormone secretion depends of somatostatin stimulation

b)

Growth hormone deficiency is the hereditary disease

c)

Twice recorded decrease in morning growth hormone is sufficient to confirm the

diagnosis of growth hormone deficiency

d)

It is impossible to find the growth hormone deficiency in newborns clinically

e)

Pituitary extract is not used to treat growth hormone deficiency

72.

71. 3 years old patient with high grade fever, photophobia and maculopapular rash. What is the most probable diagnosis?

a)

Chicken pox

b)

Rubella

c)

Measles

d)

Scarlet fever

e)

Foot-hand-mouth disease

73.

72. 5 years old patient with high grade fever, palpitation, sore throat and

rush. What is the long term complication of this disease?

a)

Encephalitis

b)

Pyelonephritis

c)

Infertility

d)

Glomerulonephritis

e)

Intestinal bleeding

74.

73. Doctor examined 3 years old patient with mild fever, skin rash and

occipital lymph nodes enlargement. What information should sort doctor to

make the right diagnosis?

a)

Skin rash in mother during the pregnancy

b)

Presents of spots on the buccal mucosa

c)

Herpes simplex infection history in mother

d)

MMR vaccination

75.

74. 5 years old patient with fever and rash. What is the specific sign of this

disease?

a)

False polymorphic rash

b)

Skin hyperemia

c)

«Strawberry» tongue

d)

Kolpik spots

e)

Absents of rash elements on the scalp

76.

75. 10 years old patient with high grade fever, photophobia, runny nose and

sore throat. What is the most probable diagnosis?

a)

Influenza

b)

Adenovirus infection

c)

Measles

d)

Chicken pox

e)

Rubella

77.

76. 13 years old patient with cardiomyopathy, dysmorphic face features, short

neck and joints deformities. What is the most probable diagnosis?

a)

Mucopolysaccharidosis

b)

Glycogen storage disease

c)

Down syndrome

d)

Wilson disease

e)

Alagille syndrome