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Phlebotomy Final Exam

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 8hrs 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following should be performed if an evacuated tube contains a clot activator?

a)

Push the posterior needle through the tube stopper before puncturing the vein.

b)

Gently invert the tube five times after drawing it.

c)

Centrifuge the tube immediately after drawing it

d)

Fill the tube only half-full with blood.

2.

The buffy coat consists of

a)

Red blood cells

b)

White blood cells

c)

Plasma

d)

White blood cells and platelets

3.

When collecting a blood specimen using the vacuum tube method of venipuncture, venous reflux is prevented by

a)

Keeping the patient’s arm in a downward position

b)

Inserting the needle at a 15-degree angle to the patient’s arm

c)

Filling the evacuated tube to the exhaustion of the vacuum

d)

Removing the tourniquet before withdrawing the needle from the patient’s arm

4.

The purpose of quality control is to

a)

Prevent accidents in the laboratory

b)

Protect the medical assistant from bloodborne pathogens

c)

Ensure accurate and valid test results

d)

Ensure that the test results fall within the normal range

e)

All answers are correct

5.

Which of the following does NOT contain cholesterol?

a)

Fruit juice

b)

Whole milk

c)

Liver

d)

Egg yolk

6.

The purpose of using transport media is to

a)

Preserve a specimen in its original state until it reaches its destination

b)

Keep the specimen at its optimal growth temperature

c)

Reduce the number of pathogens in the specimen

d)

Provide nutrients for the multiplication of the specimen

e)

All answers are correct

7.

The results of a differential white blood cell count indicate there are no basophils. This is considered

a)

Below normal

b)

Normal

c)

Above normal

8.

Which of the following is NOT a function of an oral glucose tolerance test?

a)

To assist in the diagnosis of pre-diabetes

b)

To assist in the diagnosis of hypoglycemia

c)

To assist in the diagnosis of diabetes

d)

To monitor insulin dosage

9.

A specimen taken for microbiologic examination must not become contaminated with extraneous microorganisms, because the extraneous microorganisms may

a)

Change the pH of the specimen

b)

Alter the morphology of the pathogens

c)

Prevent visualization of the pathogen

d)

Result in the death of any pathogens present

10.

The transfer of pathogens on a fine spray of moisture droplets is known as

a)

Susceptibility

b)

Droplet infection

c)

Indirect transfer

d)

Inoculation

11.

Which of the following is NOT a natural defense mechanism of the body?

a)

Phagocytosis by white blood cells

b)

The skin

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Antibodies

12.

Before meals, it is recommended that the blood glucose level for a diabetic patient fall between

a)

60–80 mg/dL

b)

100–180 mg/dL

c)

80–120 mg/dL

d)

100–140 mg/dL

13.

What color stopper tube is used to collect a blood specimen for a prothrombin time test?

a)

Lavender

b)

Red

c)

Gray

d)

Green

e)

Light blue

14.

Which of the following may cause a control to fail to produce expected results?

a)

Outdated testing reagents

b)

Error in technique

c)

Improper storage of testing components

d)

All answers are correct

15.

Which of the following is a serious side effect of an oral glucose tolerance test?

a)

Profuse perspiration

b)

Fainting

c)

Irrational speech

d)

Headache

e)

All answers are correct

16.

Which of the following veins is most likely to collapse when performing a venipuncture?

a)

Veins that roll

b)

Scarred veins

c)

Sclerosed veins

d)

Small veins

17.

What is the term for glucose that is stored in muscle and liver tissue for later use?

a)

Glucagon

b)

Lipoprotein

c)

Glycogen

d)

Carbohydrate

18.

Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a virus?

a)

Chickenpox

b)

Tetanus

c)

Mumps

d)

Rubella

19.

Which of the following is the proper method for identifying a patient before performing a venipuncture?

a)

State the patient’s full name and DOB and ask the patient to verify this information.

b)

Ask the patient to state his or her full name and DOB.

c)

Ask the patient to state his or her full name and date of last visit.

d)

Ask the patient for two forms of written identification.

20.

Which of the following is NOT a handling and storage requirement for blood glucose reagent test strips?

a)

Remove the desiccant after opening a new test strip container.

b)

Store at room temperature.

c)

Store in a cool, dry area.

d)

Store with the cap tightly closed.

21.

What term is used to describe an abnormally low level of glucose in the blood?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Glycosuria

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Acidosis

22.

What term is used to describe the scientific study of microorganisms and their activities?

a)

Parasitology

b)

Histology

c)

Microbiology

d)

Pathology

23.

Which of the following results in leukopenia?

a)

Appendicitis

b)

Chickenpox

c)

Chemotherapy

d)

Rheumatic fever

24.

Phlebotomy includes which of the following?

a)

Skin punctures

b)

Arterial punctures

c)

Venipunctures

d)

All answers are correct

25.

If you think a vein selected for venipuncture may collapse, you should

a)

Insert the needle slowly into the vein

b)

Use an 18-gauge needle to collect the specimen

c)

Use the butterfly method to perform the venipuncture

d)

Fill the tube only one-half full with blood

26.

To view bacteria present on a smear, it must first be

a)

Stained with an appropriate dye

b)

Immersed in alcohol for 15–20 minutes

c)

Incubated for 24 hours

d)

Allowed to air-dry for 10 minutes

27.

How often should a patient on warfarin therapy have a PT/INR test performed?

a)

Once each week

b)

Every 2–4 weeks

c)

Every 2 months

d)

Every 6 months

28.

Which of the following indicates the correct order of draw for the vacuum tube method of venipuncture?

a)

Red, lavender, gray, green

b)

Red, green, lavender, gray

c)

Lavender, red, gray, green

d)

Red, gray, lavender, green

29.

All of the following are correct techniques for applying a tourniquet  except

a)

Placing the tourniquet 3–4 inches above the bend in the elbow

b)

Asking the patient to clench his or her fist

c)

Applying the tourniquet so that it is snug, but not tight

d)

Leaving the tourniquet on for at least 3 minutes before drawing the specimen

30.

During the venipuncture procedure, a sudden swelling occurs in the area around the puncture site. You should

a)

Apply pressure to the area with an antiseptic wipe

b)

Continue with the venipuncture

c)

Immediately remove the tourniquet and then the needle

d)

Call 911

31.

Which of the following is a characteristic of cholesterol?

a)

White, waxy substance

b)

Component of all cell membranes

c)

Used in the production of hormones

d)

Used in the production of bile

e)

All answers are correct

32.

Which of the following is found in the serum of blood?

a)

All answers are correct

b)

Antibodies

c)

Chloride

d)

Hormones

e)

Glucose

33.

Which of the following is true regarding a 2-hour postprandial glucose test?

a)

The patient is required to fast for 2 hours before the test.

b)

A blood specimen is collected 2 hours after the patient consumes 100 g of glucose.

c)

Blood specimens are collected at intervals over 3 hours.

d)

A blood specimen is collected 2 hours after the patient administers his or her insulin injection.

34.

On palpation, a scarred vein feels

a)

Elastic and pliable

b)

Stiff and hard

c)

Soft and pliable

d)

Swollen

35.

Which of the following results in patient discomfort during the venipuncture procedure?

a)

Allowing the alcohol to dry before making the puncture

b)

Using the flange to change from one tube to another

c)

Moving the needle after it has been inserted into the vein

d)

Removing the needle at the same angle as insertion

36.

The buildup of fatty deposits on the walls of arteries is known as

a)

Congestive heart failure

b)

Thrombophlebitis

c)

Atherosclerosis

d)

Pericarditis

37.

When performing a venipuncture, which of the following techniques represents a violation of the OSHA standard?

a)

Applying the tourniquet 1 inch above the bend in the elbow

b)

Using a small-gauge needle to collect the specimen

c)

Not labeling the blood tube

d)

Removing the plastic holder from the needle for reuse

38.

Which of the following gauge needles is used most often to perform a routine venipuncture using the vacuum tube method?

a)

16 G

b)

21 G

c)

18 G

d)

25 G

39.

Hemolysis of a blood specimen results in

a)

Collection of an insufficient quantity of blood

b)

Inaccurate test results

c)

Exposure of the medical assistant to bloodborne pathogens

d)

A contaminated specimen

40.

An individual who collects blood specimens is known as a(n)

a)

Vampire

b)

Venipuncturist

c)

Optometrist

d)

Phlebotomist

41.

On standing, a blood specimen to which an anticoagulant has been added separates into

a)

Plasma, buffy coat, and blood cells

b)

Plasma and blood cells

c)

Serum and blood cells

d)

Serum, buffy coat, and blood cells

42.

Your physician has requested an electrolyte profile on a patient. The laboratory directory indicates this test requires 4 mL of serum. Which of the following tubes should be used to collect the specimen?

a)

A 4-mL SST

b)

A 7-mL SST

c)

A 10-mL SST

d)

A 4-mL lavender-stoppered tube

43.

The function of LDL is to

a)

Carry cholesterol to the cells

b)

Transport fat-soluble vitamins in the blood

c)

Remove cholesterol from the cells

d)

Protect against coronary artery disease

44.

Most of the cholesterol found in the blood comes from

a)

Dietary cholesterol intake

b)

Being manufactured by the liver

c)

Saturated fat

d)

Cellulite

45.

Which of the following are characteristics of the brachial artery (located in the antecubital space)?

a)

Pulsates when palpated

b)

Has a more elastic and thicker wall than a vein

c)

If punctured, blood is bright red in color

d)

If punctured, patient feels more than usual amount of pain

e)

All answers are correct

46.

According to the American Diabetes Association, what is the normal range for a fasting blood glucose level (in mg/dL)?

a)

20–80

b)

70–99

c)

100–125

d)

140–160

47.

Escherichia coli normally reside in the

a)

Vagina

b)

Urinary tract

c)

Large intestine

d)

Stomach

48.

What name is given to the interval of time between the invasion by a pathogen and the appearance of the first symptoms of the disease?

a)

Prodromal period

b)

Infectious period

c)

Inoculation

d)

Incubation period

49.

Cholesterol is transported in the blood as a complex molecule known as a

a)

Trans fat

b)

Glycogen complex

c)

Lipid

d)

Lipoprotein

50.

Syphilis is caused by a

a)

Spirochete

b)

Bacillus

c)

Streptococcus

d)

Diplococcus

51.

Mr. Johnson has a hematocrit reading of 60. This is considered to be

a)

Increased

b)

Decreased

c)

Normal

d)

Invalid

52.

What is the function of warfarin?

a)

To inhibit the formation of blood clots

b)

To prevent atrial fibrillation

c)

To encourage blood clotting

d)

To speed up production of red blood cells

53.

What is the name of the microorganism that causes infectious mononucleosis?

a)

Varicella

b)

Treponema pallidum

c)

Epstein-Barr

d)

HIV

54.

Whole blood is obtained by

a)

Using a tube containing an anticoagulant

b)

Centrifuging a clotted blood specimen

c)

Using a red-stoppered tube

d)

Using a tube that does not contain an anticoagulant

55.

Infectious mononucleosis is transmitted through

a)

Coughing and sneezing

b)

Contaminated food

c)

Sexual intercourse

d)

Saliva by direct oral contact

e)

All of the above

56.

Which of the following techniques can be used to prevent a vein from rolling?

a)

Applying firm pressure below and to the side of the vein

b)

Applying the tourniquet tightly

c)

Inserting the needle at a 10-degree angle

d)

Inserting the needle 1/2 inch below the puncture site

57.

Microorganisms that reside in the body but that do not cause disease are known as

a)

Transient flora

b)

Normal flora

c)

Extraneous microorganisms

d)

Staphylococci

58.

Which of the following CANNOT result in elevated blood triglyceride levels?

a)

Obesity

b)

Hyperthyroidism

c)

Type 2 diabetes

d)

Smoking

59.

Which of the following is NOT used to identify a pathogen?

a)

Sensitivity testing

b)

Microbial culture

c)

Biochemical tests

d)

Microcopy

60.

What may occur if a finger puncture is made that is deeper than 3.1 mm?

a)

Damage to nerves in the finger

b)

Penetration of the bone

c)

Inaccurate test results

d)

Excessive bleeding

61.

Which of the following is considered a risk factor for coronary artery disease?

a)

LDL cholesterol level of 90 mg/dL

b)

HDL cholesterol level of 25 mg/dL

c)

Triglyceride level of 140 mg/dL

d)

Low blood pressure

62.

The purpose of applying a tourniquet when performing venipuncture is to

a)

Make the patient’s veins more visible and easier to palpate

b)

Prevent hemolysis of the blood specimen

c)

Make the procedure more comfortable for the patient

d)

Make it easier to insert the needle

63.

How many blood smears are required for a differential white blood cell count?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

3

64.

When performing a capillary puncture, the finger should NOT be squeezed, to avoid

a)

Diluting the blood sample with tissue fluid

b)

Exposure of the medical assistant to bloodborne pathogens

c)

Excessive bleeding around the puncture site

d)

Bruising of the patient’s finger

65.

What is the term for a substance that is being identified or measured in a laboratory test?

a)

Standard

b)

Analyte

c)

Calibration

d)

Control

66.

When using a microhematocrit centrifuge, the hematocrit test results should be read at the

a)

Top of the red cell column

b)

Bottom of the red cell column

c)

Top of the buffy coat

d)

Top of the plasma column

67.

Which of the following tests is NOT included in a CBC?

a)

Differential white blood cell count

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Hematocrit

d)

Prothrombin time

e)

Red and white blood cell counts

68.

Which of the following is a sequela to streptococcal sore throat?

a)

Diphtheria

b)

Pertussis

c)

Rheumatic fever

d)

Viral pneumonia

69.

Which of the following may result in hemolysis of the blood specimen?

a)

Storing evacuated tubes at room temperature

b)

Using a needle with a small lumen to collect the specimen

c)

Allowing the evacuated tube to fill to the exhaustion of the vacuum

d)

Removing the needle before removing the tourniquet

e)

All answers are correct

70.

If the pathogen were sensitive to an antibiotic, what would be observed when using the disc diffusion method of sensitivity testing?

a)

Bacterial growth around the disc

b)

Overgrowth of the disc with bacteria

c)

A change in color of the disc

d)

A clear zone without bacterial growth around the disc

71.

A microbiologic specimen may be obtained from the

a)

Vagina

b)

Nose

c)

Wounds

d)

All answers are correct

e)

Throat

72.

What name is given to round bacteria growing in pairs?

a)

Bacilli

b)

Diplococci

c)

Staphylococci

d)

Streptococci

73.

Patient preparation instructions for a triglyceride test include which of the following?

a)

Follow a normal diet for 7 days before the test.

b)

Do not consume alcohol for 24 hours before the test.

c)

Do not eat or drink (except for water) for 12 hours before the test.

d)

Do not consume lipid-lowering medications before the test.

e)

All of the above

74.

Which of the following instructions should be relayed to the patient regarding a fasting blood glucose test?

a)

Consume a low-carbohydrate evening meal.

b)

Refrain from smoking for 12 hours before the test.

c)

Minimize activity for 24 hours before the test.

d)

Do not consume food or fluid (except water) for 12 hours before the test.

e)

All answers are correct

75.

What is the term for a substance that is capable of combining with an antigen?

a)

Antibody

b)

Antitoxin

c)

Vaccine

d)

Antigen

76.

Mr. Peterson has a hemoglobin reading of 16. This is considered to be

a)

Within the reference range

b)

Above the reference range

c)

Below the reference range

d)

An invalid result

77.

The purpose of sensitivity testing is to

a)

Identify the type of microorganism present

b)

Produce a pure culture

c)

Determine the best antibiotic to use to treat the condition

d)

Determine the effectiveness of drug therapy

78.

Conditions caused by Staphylococcus aureus include

a)

Abscesses

b)

Food poisoning

c)

All answers are correct

d)

Wound infections

e)

Boils

79.

An evacuated tube with a lavender stopper contains

a)

Heparin

b)

EDTA

c)

Nothing

d)

Potassium oxalate

80.

Which of the following is an example of an antigen?

a)

Viruses

b)

Allergens

c)

Bacterial toxins

d)

Blood antigens

e)

All answers are correct

81.

Which of the following represents an error in technique when obtaining a capillary blood specimen?

a)

Warming the patient’s finger by massaging it

b)

Allowing the antiseptic to dry before making the puncture

c)

Making the puncture perpendicular to the lines of the fingerprint

d)

Using the first drop of blood for the test

82.

The size of the evacuated tube you choose to obtain a venous blood specimen depends on the

a)

Size of the patient’s veins

b)

Patient’s clinical diagnosis

c)

Color of the evacuated tube stopper

d)

Amount of specimen required for the test

83.

Which of the following antecubital veins is considered the best vein to use for a venipuncture?

a)

Basilic vein

b)

Cephalic vein

c)

Brachial vein

d)

Median cubital vein

84.

LEUK/O

a)

White

b)

Against

c)

Blue

d)

Cell

85.

Cyt/o

a)

abnormal reduction in number

b)

against

c)

cell

d)

clotting

86.

-penia

a)

study of

b)

blood condition

c)

abnormal condition

d)

abnormal reduction in number

87.

Anti-

a)

against

b)

clotting

c)

stuy of

d)

before

88.

-coagulant

a)

clotting

b)

study of

c)

blood condition

d)

cell

89.

-ology

a)

blood condition

b)

cell

c)

against

d)

study of

90.

-emia

a)

blood condition

b)

abnormal condition

c)

against

d)

many

91.

-osis

a)

blood condition

b)

abnormal condition

c)

inflammation

d)

many

92.

poly-

a)

many

b)

study of

c)

abnormal reduction

d)

against

93.

-itis

a)

vein

b)

against

c)

condition of

d)

inflammation

94.

phleb/o

a)

vein

b)

bone marrow

c)

cartilage

d)

bone

95.

myel/o

a)

cartilage

b)

bone

c)

against

d)

bone marrow

96.

stasis

a)

against

b)

vein

c)

control/stop

d)

bone

97.

chondr/o

a)

bone

b)

bone marrow

c)

cartilage

d)

vein

98.

oste/o

a)

bone marrow

b)

vein

c)

cartilage

d)

bone

99.

ante-

a)

before

b)

against

c)

control/stop

d)

inflammation

100.

hemat/o

a)

vein

b)

artery

c)

clotting

d)

blood

101.

-lysis

a)

breakdown

b)

blood

c)

bone

d)

condition of