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Quiz 3 pediatrics GVLTEC

Total questions: 133

Worksheet time: 2hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

s/s of hypercalcemia

a)

polyuria and polydipsia

b)

lethargy

c)

nausea and vomiting

d)

hypotension

2.

if an immobilized patient is going to develop hypercalcemia it's usually (a)   weeks after they've been immobilized

3.

physical effects of immobility include

a)

hypercalcemia

b)

decrease metabolic rate

c)

increased metabolic rate

d)

decrease production of hormones

4.

what are some of the effects of immobility r/t cardiovascular system

a)

diminished vasopressor mechanism

b)

venous stasis

c)

dependent edema

d)

hypertension

5.

damage to soft tissue, subcutaneous tissues, and muscle. This occurs when blood escapes into the tissue and causes ecchymosis

(a)  

6.

when the force of stress on a ligament is sufficient to displace the normal position of the bone ends or bone ends to the socket

(a)  

7.

most vulnerable joint for dislocation

(a)  

8.

the dislocation that occurs frequently in pediatric patients

(a)  

9.

trauma to a joint from a ligament partially or completely torn or stretched by the force

(a)  

10.

stretching or tearing of the muscle or tendon

(a)  

11.

what's the difference between sprain and strain

a)

a sprain is trauma to a joint from a ligament torn or stretched by the force

b)

a strain is trauma to a joint from a ligament torn or stretched by the force

c)

strains are caused by stretching or tearing of the muscle and ligaments

d)

sprains are caused by stretching or tearing of the muscles and ligaments

12.

(a)   happen overtime and are painful

13.

(a)   have a rapid onset with disability

14.

occurs when the resistance between a bone and an applied stress yields to the stress, resulting in a disruption to the integrity of the bone

(a)  

15.

common ways fractures occur

a)

falls

b)

bikes, scooters, etc.

c)

sports

d)

abuse

16.

2 most common fractures

(a)  

17.

fractures heal much faster in pediatric patients becasue (a)   is faster due to a thicker periosteum and good blood supply

18.

the bone is bend no more than 45 degrees without breakage

(a)  

19.

compression of the bone resulting in a bulge or raised area at the fracture site

(a)  

20.

incomplete fracture of the bone

a)

greenstick

b)

buckle

c)

plastic deformation

d)

spiral

21.

break is straight across the bone

a)

transverse

b)

oblique

c)

spiral

d)

stress

22.

the break is diagonal across the bone

(a)  

23.

small fractures/cracks in the bone due to repeated muscle contractions

(a)  

24.

clinical signs of fracture

a)

generalized swelling

b)

bruising

c)

muscle weakness

d)

crepitus

25.

what are some therapeutic management used for fractures

a)

reduction

b)

immobility

c)

Pavlik

d)

pamidronate

26.

typically made of either plaster of Paris or synthetic lighter material (ex. ortho glass)

(a)  

27.

know 6 P's

a)

pain

pulse

b)

pallor

paresthesia

c)

paralysis

poiklothermia

28.

uses a pulling force that is applied by weights

a)

skin traction

b)

skeletal traction

c)

halo traction

29.

Can't be used in patients over (a)   lbs

30.

uses a continuous pulling force that is applied directly to a skeletal structure or specific bone

(a)  

31.

something that should always be available when caring for patients with halo

(a)  

32.

nurses should never remove____ or ____

(a)  

33.

a complex deformity of the ankle and foot; can affect one or both feet, occur as an isolated defect, or in association with other disorders

(a)  

34.

risk factors for developmental dysplasia of the hip

a)

firstborn

b)

female

c)

breech intrauterine position

d)

age between 2-12 y/o

35.

treatment option for club foot

a)

serial casting

b)

heel cord tenotomy

c)

Pavlik harness

d)

harrington rod placement

36.

complication of club foot

a)

skin breakdown

b)

growth and developmental delays

c)

neurovascular alterations

d)

infection

37.

consist of a variety of disorders resulting in abnormal development of the hip structures

(a)  

38.

types of developmental dysplasia of the hip

a)

acetabular dysplasia

b)

subluxation

c)

dislocation

d)

disassoiation

39.

how to diagnose developmental dysplasia of the hip

a)

ultrasound at 2 weeks of age

b)

ultrasound at 4 weeks of age

c)

x-ray: in infants older than 4 months

d)

CT scan

40.

2 diagnostic tests used for developmental dysplasia of the hip

(a)  

41.

in older children what test is used to diagnose developmental dysplasia of the hip

(a)  

42.

infant presents with a shortened limb on the affected side, limited hip abduction. You notice uneven gluteal folds when the infant is prone. What would you suspect?

(a)  

43.

Treatment for DDH for newborns-6 months

(a)  

44.

treatment for DDH 6 months-2 years

(a)  

45.

treatment of DDH for older children

(a)  

46.

aseptic necrosis of the femoral head either unilateral or bilateral

(a)  

47.

stages of legg-calve-perthes disease

a)

synovitis

b)

necrotic

c)

fragmentation

d)

reconstruction

48.

risk factor for Legg-calve-Perthes disease

a)

age (between 2-12 y/o, most common between 4-8 y/o)

b)

trauma

c)

short stature

d)

genetic factor

49.

x-ray of the hip and pelvis and MRI are diagnostic procedure for

(a)  

50.

assessment and evaluation of a patient with Legg-Perthes disease

a)

intermittent painless limp

b)

shortening of the affected leg

c)

limited ROM

d)

muscle weakness

51.

complication of Legg-calve-Perthes disease

a)

joint degeneration

b)

permanent disability

c)

osteoporosis

d)

hearing loss

52.

an inherited connective tissue condition that results in bone fractures and deformity along with restricted growth

(a)  

53.

diagnostic for osteogenesis imperfecta

(a)  

54.

multiple bone fractures, blue sclera, early hearing loss, and small discolored teeth are s/s of

(a)  

55.

treatment for osteogenesis imperfecta that is given IV over at least 2 hours and up to 24 hours.

(a)  

56.

a complication of osteogenesis imperfecta

a)

disuse osteoporosis

b)

hearing loss

c)

permanent deformities

d)

necrosis of affected limb

57.

type of DDH where there's a delay in acetabular development (acetabular roof is shallow and oblique)

(a)  

58.

incomplete dislocation of the hip is what type of DDH

(a)  

59.

type of DDH where the femoral head does not have contact with the acetabulum

(a)  

60.

a complex deformity of the spine that also affects the ribs

(a)  

61.

The 2 most common types of scoliosis

(a)  

62.

bracing is used with a curve of (a)   degrees

63.

post-op infection, spine or nerve damage, small bowel obstruction, and breathing difficulties are complications associated with

(a)  

64.

non-progressive impairment of motor function, especially that of muscle control, coordination, and posture

(a)  

65.

cerebral palsy risk factors

a)

existing brain anomalies

b)

head trauma or interruption of oxygen

c)

maternal drug use or genetic factor

d)

premature and VLBW infants

e)

maternal infection

66.

cerebral palsy can be spastic or non-spastic, what are some s/s associated with spastic

a)

hypertonicity, increased deep tendon reflexes, poor control of motion, balance and posture

b)

wide-based gait and difficulty with coordination

c)

can be present in different extremities

d)

impairment of fine and gross motor skills

e)

Babinski reflex

67.

how can you diagnose for scoliosis

a)

forward bend

b)

X-RAY

c)

CT

d)

MRI

68.

diagnostics for cerebral palsy

a)

neuro assessment

b)

genetic and metabolic testing

c)

MRI

d)

EEG

69.

interprofessional care for CP includes

a)

PT

b)

OT

c)

speech therapy

70.

medication for CP that is a skeletal muscle relaxant. decreases muscle spasms and severe spasticity. Given orally or by a surgically implanted pump.

(a)  

71.

complications of cerebral palsy

a)

aspiration

b)

falls

c)

none

72.

a chronic autoimmune inflammatory disease affecting joints and other tissues

(a)  

73.

risk factors for juvenile idiopathic arthritis

a)

immunogenic susceptibility

b)

environmental triggers

c)

genetic predisposition

d)

multiple births

74.

C-reactive protein, ESR, antinuclear antibodies, x-rays, and eye exams and diagnostic exams for

a)

juvenile idiopathic arthritis

b)

scoliosis

c)

muscular dystrophy

d)

cerebral palsy

75.

expected finding of juvenile idiopathic arthritis

a)

joint swelling

b)

fever/rash

c)

limp

d)

delayed growth

76.

medication used for pain and inflammation for a patient with JIA

a)

non-steroidal anti-inflammatory

b)

ibuprofen

c)

naproxen

d)

indomethacin

77.

a cytotoxic disease modifying antirheumatic drug that slows joint degeneration and progression of rheumatic arthritis when NSAIDs do not work alone

(a)  

78.

a corticosteroid that provides relief of inflammation and pain. They are reserved for life-threatening complications, severe arthritis, pericarditis, and uveitis

(a)  

79.

complications of JIA

(a)  

80.

a group of inherited disorders with progressive degeneration of symmetric skeletal muscle groups, causing progressive muscle weakness and wasting that leads to disability and deformity

(a)  

81.

risk factors of muscular dystrophy

(a)  

82.

diagnostic test for muscular dystrophy

a)

labs to check for gene mutation

b)

blood creatinine kinase level

c)

muscle biopsy

d)

C-reactive protein

83.

signs and symptoms of muscular dystrophy

a)

gower's sign

b)

muscle weakness

c)

progressive difficulty walking

d)

unsteady gait

84.

complications of muscular dystrophy

a)

obesity

b)

contractures

c)

scoliosis

d)

cardiac difficulties

85.

normal pediatric urine output

(a)  

86.

less than 1 mL/kg/hr

a)

oliguria

b)

polyuria

c)

normal urine output

87.

polyuria is how many mL/kg/hr

(a)  

88.

normal BUN

(a)  

89.

normal creatnine

(a)  

90.

normal pH of urine

(a)  

91.

uncontrolled or unintentional urination past the age of bladder control

(a)  

92.

a child has never been free of bed-wetting for an extended period of time

(a)  

93.

a child who started bed-wetting after the development of urinary control

(a)  

94.

treatments for enuresis

a)

conditioning therapy

b)

kegel/pelvic control exercise

c)

retention control measures

d)

medications

95.

placing an alarm sensor on the bed that goes off when the child voids to awaken the child to get up and use the bathroom

(a)  

96.

treatment for enuresis where they have the child consumes a large amount of water to stretch the bladder

(a)  

97.

type of medications for enuresis

a)

desmopressin acetate

b)

imipramine hydrochloride

c)

oxybutynin chloride

d)

antibiotics

98.

most commonly used medication for enuresis

(a)  

99.

inflammation of the bladder

(a)  

100.

inflammation of the urethra

(a)  

101.

inflammation of the upper urinary tract and kidneys

(a)  

102.

risk factors for UTI

a)

urinary reflux

b)

constipation

c)

potty training

d)

age 6-12 y/o

103.

s/s in infants with UTI

a)

increased irritability

b)

abdominal, flank, or back pain

c)

poor feeding

d)

foul smelling urine

104.

s/s of UTI in children

a)

abdominal, flank, or back pain

b)

pain with urination

c)

increased irritability

d)

stong smelling urine

105.

the most accurate method for obtaining urine for urinalysis and culture in children less than 2 years of age

a)

sterile catheterization

b)

suprapubic aspiration

c)

clean-catch urine

106.

complications of UTI include

a)

progressive kidney injury

b)

pyelonephritis

c)

urosepsis

d)

hydrocele

107.

s/s of urosepsis

a)

tachycardia and tachypnea

b)

febrile and weak pulses

c)

change in mental status

d)

hypertension

108.

ventral curvature of the penis

(a)  

109.

surgical release of the fibrous band is a treatment for

(a)  

110.

narrowing of the preputial opening of the foreskin. inability to retract the foreskin of the penis. usually resolves as the child gets older.

(a)  

111.

the urethral opening is located just below the glans penis, behind the glans penis, or on the ventral (underside) surface of the penile shaft. The meatus opening is below the glans penis, along the ventral surface of the penis, scrotum, or perineum

(a)  

112.

fluid in the scrotum, enlarged scrotal sac

(a)  

113.

occurs when an opening is present in the abdominal wall through which a sac protrudes and part of the abdominal content, such as intestines, can be pushed through this opening

(a)  

114.

a twisting of the testicles. when the testicle rotates it twist the cord supplying blood to the scrotum. This may occur after vigorous activity, a minor injury to the testicle, or sleep.

(a)  

115.

the swelling of one or both kidneys, this occurs when the urine cannot be drained from the kidneys and instead builds up in the kidneys

(a)  

116.

there are 4 grades to this (grade 4 is the worst); s/s include pain in the flank, pain with urination, fever, n/v. Treatment includes resolving the underlying problem or nephrostomy tube

(a)  

117.

abnormal flow of urine from the bladder back up the ureters and into the kidneys

(a)  

118.

children are BORN with a defect in the valve that prevents backflow to the kidneys; Most common type of VUR

(a)  

119.

abnormal high pressure sends urine back to kidneys (i.e., neurogenic bladder)

(a)  

120.

risk factors for VUR

a)

female

b)

genetic

c)

family history

d)

male

121.

symptoms of VUR

a)

febrile UTI at young age

b)

flank pain

c)

nausea and vomiting

d)

asymptomatic

122.

diagnostic procedure for VUR

a)

abdominal US if abnormal VCUG

b)

2 step procedure

c)

VCUG: a small catheter is placed to fill the bladder with IV contrast dye. Images are taken before , during and after the child urinates

123.

treatment for VUR

a)

depends on severity

b)

mild; no treatment may outgrow the disorder

c)

moderate; prophylactic antibiotic

d)

severe (grade 5+) surgical repair

124.

complications of VUR

a)

Kidney scarring

b)

kidney damage

c)

pyelonephritis

125.

usually occurs when a part of the kidney is blocked, usually occurs at the renal pelvis, which is where the kidneys attach to the ureters. This blocks or stops urine flow which can then lead to hydronephrosis

a)

ureteropelvic junction

b)

vesicoureteral reflux

c)

hydronephrosis

d)

testicular torsion

126.

diagnostic test for ureteropelvic junction obstruction is usually dependent on where the obstruction is and may include:

a)

fetal ultrasound

b)

IV pyelogram

c)

CT/MRI

d)

fibrin

127.

abdominal mass, febrile UTI, flank pain, kidney stones, bloody urine, vomiting, and failure to thrive are s/s associated with

a)

ureteropelvic junction

b)

acute renal failure

c)

hemolytic uremic syndrome

d)

nephrotic syndrome

128.

s/s of ureteropelvic obstruction

a)

abdominal mass

b)

NON-febrile UTI

c)

flank pain

d)

bloody urine and kidney stones

129.

treatment for ureteropelvic obstruction

a)

resolve the blockage

b)

pyeloplasty surgery

c)

oxybutynin

d)

it will resolve it self in most cases

130.

alteration in the glomerular membrane allow protein to pass into the urine

(a)  

131.

the decrease blood osmotic pressure in nephrotic syndrome leads to

a)

proteinuria

b)

hyperlipemia

c)

edema (face)

d)

febrile UTI

132.

minimal, secondary, and congenital are all types of

(a)  

133.

frothy urine, facial and periorbital edema, normal BP, and weight gain are s/s of

(a)