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Med Surg-GI disorders

Total questions: 36

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the best way to verify placement of a NG tube prior to administering a tube feeding?

a)

check pH

b)

listen for bowel sounds

c)

check for a residual

d)

no need to verify placement

2.

You are giving your high risk patient the Hepatitis A vaccine. Which of the following is true?

a)

1 dose

b)

2 doses 1 month apart

c)

2 doses 6 months apart

d)

3 doses

3.

Considered the most common blood borne infection in the US

a)

Hepatitis A

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Hepatitis C

d)

HIV

4.

Ulcerative colitis is usually found in the

a)

Rectosigmoid colon

b)

Anywhere in the colon

c)

Never in the rectum

d)

Transverse colon

5.

Fistulas and accesses are common with?

a)

Ulcerative colitis

b)

Crohn's disease

c)

Neither

d)

Both

6.
Which of these assigned clients does the nurse assess first after receiving the change-of-shift report?
a)
Young adult admitted the previous day with abdominal pain who is scheduled for a computed tomography (CT) scan in 30 minutes
b)
Adult with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) who is describing epigastric pain at a level of 6 (0-to-10 pain scale)
c)
 Middle-aged adult with an esophagogastrectomy done 2 days earlier who has bright-red drainage from the nasogastric (NG) tube
d)
Older adult admitted with an ileus who has absent bowel sounds and a prescription for metoclopramide (Reglan) on an as-needed (PRN) basis
7.
An older female client is diagnosed with gastric cancer. Which statement made by the client’s family demonstrates a correct understanding of the disorder?
a)
“This may be related to her recurring ulcer disease.” 
b)
“This is probably curable with surgery.”
c)
“Gastric cancer has a strong genetic component.”
d)
 “Thank goodness she won’t have to undergo surgery.”
8.
The nurse case manager is discussing community resources with a client who has colorectal cancer and is scheduled for a colostomy. Which referral is of greatest value to this client initially?
a)
Certified Wound, Ostomy, and Continence Nurse (CWOCN) 
b)
Home health nursing agency
c)
Hospice
d)
Hospital chaplain
9.
The home health nurse is teaching a client about the care of a new colostomy. Which client statement demonstrates a correct understanding of the instructions?
a)
 “A dark or purplish-looking stoma is normal and should not concern me.”
b)
 “If the skin around the stoma is red or scratched, it will heal soon.”
c)
 “I need to check for leakage underneath my colostomy.” 
d)
“I should strive for a very tight fit when applying the barrier around the stoma.”
10.
A client asks the nurse, “Can you tell me some foods to include in my diet so that I can reduce my chances of getting colorectal cancer?” Which dietary selection does the nurse suggest?
a)
Steak with pasta
b)
Spaghetti with tomato sauce
c)
Steamed broccoli with turkey
d)
Tuna salad with wheat crackers
11.
A male client’s sister was recently diagnosed with colorectal cancer (CRC), and his brother died of CRC 5 years ago. He asks the nurse whether he will inherit the disease too. How does the nurse respond?
a)
“Have you asked your health care provider what he or she thinks your chances are?”
b)
“It is hard to know what can predispose a person to develop a certain disease.”
c)
 “No. Just because they both had CRC doesn’t mean that you will have it, too.”
d)
 “The only way to know whether you are predisposed to CRC is by genetic testing.”
12.
A client has vague symptoms that indicate an acute inflammatory bowel disorder. Which symptom is most indicative of Crohn’s disease (CD)?
a)
Abdominal pain relieved by bending the knees
b)
Chronic diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever
c)
Epigastric cramping
d)
Hypotension with vomiting
13.
A client demonstrates the manifestations of diverticulitis with a suspected complication of peritonitis. What is the priority nursing intervention?
a)
Assessing the client for changes in vital signs
b)
Medicating the client for pain
c)
Monitoring for changes in the client’s mentation
d)
Preparing the client for emergency surgery 
14.
Which is a correct statement differentiating Crohn’s disease (CD) from ulcerative colitis (UC)?
a)
 Clients with CD experience about 20 loose, bloody stools daily
b)
 Clients with UC may experience hemorrhage.
c)
 The peak incidence of UC is between 15 and 40 years of age.
d)
 Very few complications are associated with CD.
15.
Which diagnostic results lead the nurse to suspect that a client may have gallbladder disease?
a)
Increased white blood cell (WBC) count, visualization of calcified gallstones, edema of the gallbladder wall
b)
 Decreased WBC count, visualization of calcified gallstones, increased alkaline phosphatase
c)
Increased WBC count, visualization of noncalcified gallstones, edema of the gallbladder wal
d)
Decreased WBC count, visualization of noncalcified gallstones, increased alkaline phosphatase
16.

What bmi value indicates anorexia?

a)

BMI = 18.5

b)

BMI < 17.5

c)

BMI < 16.5

17.

ANOREXIA NERVOSA is characterized by:

a)

Fear of gainig weight

b)

Very low weight

c)

Distorted view of body

d)

All the answers are correct

18.
A person is considered obese with a BMI of:
a)
BMI of 35 or higher
b)
BMI of 25 or higher
c)
BMI of 40 or higher
d)
BMI of 30 or higher
19.

what is the calculation to determine a parsons BMI?

4 lines
20.

Where is your liver located?

a)

In your stomach

b)

under your ribs on the right side

c)

above your heart

d)

on your left side

21.

Name a job that the liver does

a)

makes and stores food

b)

cleans your blood

c)

makes bile

d)

all of the above

22.
Which is not a symptom of Cirrhosis?
a)
Liver enlargement
b)
Edema in legs and feet
c)
Jaundice 
d)
Hypotension
23.
What is one of the signs of Pancreatitis?
a)
Edema
b)
Fatigue
c)
Severe abdominal pain that radiates to the back
d)
Myalgia
24.

What is a diet that is recommended for an individual that has chronic diarrhea?

a)

BRAT

b)

high fiber

c)

low fat

d)

liquid diet

25.

What is a risk factor for developing IBS?

a)

smoking

b)

increased alcohol use

c)

nervous gut

d)

being under alot of stress

26.

How long is formula for tube feeds good after being opened?

a)

12 hours

b)

24 hours

c)

1-2 hours

d)

it doesn't go bad

27.

What is the max hang time for a canned feeding that is poured into the feeding bag?

a)

6hrs

b)

8 hrs

c)

2 hrs

d)

12hrs

28.

How often is a residual checked on a feeding tube?

a)

never

b)

every other day

c)

prior to daily feed

d)

at the end of the feed

29.

When should a feeding tube be flushed?

a)

before and after meds

b)

before and after feeds

c)

once daily

d)

never

30.

Where is the appendix located?

a)

RUQ

b)

LLQ

c)

LUQ

d)

RLQ

31.

What are s/s of appendicitis?

a)

severe abdominal pain

b)

RLQ pain

c)

fever

d)

rebound tendersness

32.

If a patient has an open cholecystectomy and has a t tube placed it is important to monitor the amount of drainage that is noted. Which amount of fluid is considered to be something to notifiy a pcp?

a)

a significant reduction of fluid

b)

250ml of fluid in 24 hr

c)

500ml in 24 hr

d)

100ml in 24 hr

33.

colicystitis is an inflammation of the gallbladder

a)

true

b)

false

34.

this type of hepatitis is spread in food

a)

hepatitis b

b)

hepatitis a

c)

hepatitis c

d)

hepatitis g

35.

portal hypertension is a complication of cirrhosis and patients may experience which of the following as a result?

a)

gi bleeding

b)

encephalopathy

c)

increased platelets

d)

ascites

36.

what is a normal bilirubin level

a)

3mg/dl

b)

less than 0.2 mg/dl

c)

0.2-1.3mg/dl

d)

2-5mg/dl

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