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Microbiology

Total questions: 47

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What atmospheric condition is needed to recover Campylobacter spp. from specimens inoculated onto a Campy-selective agar at 35-37oC and 42oC?

a)

5% O2, 10% CO2, and 85% N2

b)

20% O2, 20% CO2, and 60% N2

2.

The bisphasic medium known as the Castaneda bottle is the preferred culture system for the cultivation of:

a)

Brucella suis

b)

Bordetella pertussis

c)

H. ducreyi

3.

In addition to CO2 requirement and biochemical characteristics. Brucella melitensis and Brucella abortus are differentiated by growth on media containing which two dyes?

a)

basic fuchsin and thionine

b)

carbol fuchsin and iodine

c)

methylene blue and crystal violet

d)

safranin and methylene blue

4.

which medium is best for recovery of Legionella pneumophila from clinical specimens?

a)

chocolate agar

b)

new yeast extract agar

c)

bordet-gengou agar

d)

buffered caharcoal yeast extract agar

5.

Which microorganism will grow only on a culture media that has been supplemented with either cysteine or cystine?

a)

B. bacilliformis

b)

K. kingae

c)

F. tularensis

d)

M. caterrhalis

6.

Which of the following is the best rapid, noncultural test to perform when Gardnereila vaginalis is suspected in a patient with vaginosis?

a)

10% H2O2

b)

3% H2O2

c)

30% H2O2

d)

all of these

7.

The appropriate culture media for the recovery of Gardnerella vaginalis is:

a)

BCYE agar

b)

HBT agar

c)

CIN agar

d)

Middlebrook agar

8.

Which of the following species of Bacillus is nonmotile?

a)

B. cereus

b)

B. subtilis

c)

B. anthracis

d)

B. stearothermophilus

9.

Bacillus anthracis and Bacillus cereus can best be differentiated by which tests?

a)

motility and beta-hemolysis on blood agar plate

b)

oxidase and alpha-hemolysis on blood agar plate

c)

lecithinase and glucose

d)

lecithinase and catalase

10.

Spore-forming cells in bamboo pole arrangement of Bacillus anthracis can be found in:

a)

specimen from patient

b)

cultures

11.

Which spore type and location is found on C, tetani?

a)

round, terminal spores

b)

ovoid, subterminal spores

c)

round, subterminal

d)

oval, terminal spores

12.

To confirm a laboratory diagnosis of tetanus, it is essential to:

a)

grow characteristic colonies through anaerobic cultures

b)

demonstrate toxin production

c)

find typical sporulating bacilli in smears

13.

Which of the following is the MOST POTENT EXOTOXIN known?

a)

botulinal toxin

b)

erythrogenic toxin

c)

tetanospasmin

d)

alpha toxin

14.

A positive lipase reaction is demonstrated by:

a)

C. septicum

b)

C. perfringens

c)

C. botulinum

15.

On tellurite medium, the colonies of C. diphtheriae are opaque, raised, convex and:

a)

White

b)

Green

c)

Gun metal in color

16.

Biotypes can be differentiated based on colonial morphology, biochemical reactions, and hemolytic patterns on blood agar. Which biotype of C. diphtheriae cause the most severe form of the disease?

a)

Gravis

b)

Intermedius

c)

Beifanti

d)

Mitis

17.

Which two tests can be used to differentiate C. diphtheriae from other corynebacteria?

a)

halo on tinsdale and nitrate

b)

halo on tinsdale and urea

c)

black on tinsdale and esculin

d)

black on tinsdale and nitrate

18.

Corynebacterium amycolatum is a NORMAL FLORA of the:

a)

Human conjunctive

b)

Skin

c)

Nasopharynx

d)

All of these

19.

Growth in a 48-hour gelatin stab culture that shows lateral filamentous growth resembling a test tube brush is most characteristic of which organism?

a)

S. moniliformis

b)

L. pneumophila

c)

G. vaginalis

d)

E. rhusiopathiae

20.

Acid-fast staining of a smear prepared from a digested sputum shoed slender, slightly curved, beaded red mycobacterial rods. Growth on Middlebrook 7H10 slants produced buff-colored microcolonies with a serpentine pattern after 14days at 37oC. Niacin and nitrate reduction tests were positive. What is the most probable presumptive identification?

a)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

b)

Mycobacterium kansasii

c)

Mycobacterium ulcerans

d)

Mycobacterium avium complex

21.

MPT 64 ANTIGEN detection is for rapid confirmation of:

a)

S. aureus

b)

M. tuberculosis

c)

N. gonorrhoeae

d)

T. pallidum

22.

Which one of the following cannot be cultivated on artificial cell-free media?

a)

F. tularensis

b)

H. pylori

c)

M. leprae

d)

V. cholerae

23.

Associated with patients with AIDS is most characteristic of:

a)

M. marinum

b)

M. avium-intracellulare

24.

The ability to grow in MacConkey is a characteristic of which species of mycobacteria?

a)

M. avium complex

b)

M. fortuitum

c)

M. tuberculosis

25.

A gram-positive branching filamentous organism recovered form a sputum specimen was fount to be positive with modified acid-fast stain method. What is the most likely presumptive identification?

a)

corynebacterium spp.

b)

Nocardia spp.

26.

Which of the following would be negative using acid-fast stain?

a)

Cryptosporidium sp.

b)

Actinomyces israelii

c)

Isospora belli

d)

Nocardia asteroides

27.

TWAR strains of Chlamydia are associated with which type of infection?

a)

Subacute bacterial endocarditis

b)

Acute respiratory syndrome, pneumonia

c)

Nongococcal urethritis

28.

For ABSCESS, lesion, wound, pustule, and ulcer AEROBIC SWAB moistened with:

a)

Stuart's medium

b)

Amie's medium

c)

Both of these

d)

none of these

29.

Common pH indicators used for O-F tests, and the color changes they undergo with acidic conditions, include:

a)

Bromcresol purple, which changes from purple to yellow

b)

Andrade's acid fuchsin indicator, which changes form pale yellow to pink

c)

Phenol red, which changes from red to yellow

d)

Bromthymol blue, which changes from green to yellow

e)

all of these

30.

Which of the following produces macroconidia that are large, multicellular, and club-shaped with smooth walls?

a)

fonsecaea pedrosoi

b)

epidermophyton floccosum

c)

microsporum audouinii

31.

It is characterized by MIXED SPORULATION (cladosporium, acrotheca, phialophora, with one usually predominant):

a)

Fonsecaea

b)

Phialophora

c)

Cladosporium

32.

Viruses contain:

a)

both DNA and RNA

b)

neither DNA or RNA

c)

either DNA or RNA

d)

polysaccharide shell

33.

Persons can be infected by HTLV via:

a)

sexual contact

b)

breast milk

c)

both of these

34.

The fecal specimen is best collected in:

a)

plastic container with tight-fitting lid

b)

waxed cardboard

c)

both of these

d)

none of these

35.

Concentration technique useful in the recovery of both helminth eggs and protozoan cysts:

a)

Acid ether concentration technique (AECT)

b)

Formalin ether concentration technique (FECT)

c)

Sheather's sugar flotation

d)

all of these

36.

Smears are used in the demonstration of microfilaria and rapid diagnosis of malarial infection.

a)

Thick smears

b)

Thin smears

37.

Smears are most useful in species IDENTIFICATION of malarial parasited.

a)

Thick smears

b)

Thin smears

38.

Which of the following does NOT ordinarily produce egg in feces:

a)

A. duodenale

b)

a. lumbricoides

c)

S. stercoralis

d)

N. americanus

39.

The usual method of infection for hookworms and Strongyloides stercoralis:

a)

ingestion

b)

penetration through skin

c)

vector

d)

infected meat

40.

The adult Spirometra sp. (sparganosis) are usually mistaken for adult:

a)

Diphyllobothrium latum

b)

Hymenolepis nana

c)

Taenia saginata

41.

Injection of ___ through the genital pore of Taenia sp. will help one make an accurate count of the lateral branches of the uterus.

a)

Methylene blue

b)

India ink

c)

Iodine

42.

Which of the following would have a double-walled, wrinkled cyst form?

a)

Naegleria fowleri

b)

Enramoeba hartmanni

c)

Acanthamoeba castellanii

43.

Leishmaniasis is transmitted by the bite of infected female phlebotomine sandflies. The sandflies inject the infective stage during blood meals:

a)

Amastigote

b)

Promastigote

c)

Epimastigote

d)

Trypomastigote

44.

For Plasmodium malariae, the period between attacks is:

a)

24 hours

b)

48 hours

c)

72 hours

45.

NOT ALL STAGE of the parasite occur in peripheral blood in infections with:

a)

P. malariae

b)

P. vivax

c)

P. falciparum

d)

P. ovale

46.

It is produced by both sexual and asexual stages and can distinguish between P. falciparum and non- P. falciparum but not between the non-P. falciparum species:

a)

plasmodium LDH

b)

histidine rich protein II (HRP II)

47.

AUTOFLUORESCENCE is characteristic of this organism:

a)

Entamoeba histolytica

b)

trichomonas vaginalis

c)

Cyclospora cayetanensis

d)

Cryptosporidium parvum