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Immunology

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

CYTOKINES are produced by many cell population (endothelial cells, fibroblasts, epithelial cells, and others), they ARE MAINLY THE PRODUCTS OF:

a)

B cells

b)

Macrophages

c)

B cells and macrophages

d)

T cells and macrophages

2.

It BINDS IRON, an essential nutrient from some microbes:

a)

Defensins

b)

Lactoferrin

c)

Lysozyme

d)

Nitric oxide

3.

It permeabilize some bacterial and some fungal membranes:

a)

Defensins

b)

Lactoferrin

c)

Lysozymes

d)

Nitric oxide

4.

Large granular lymphocyte (LGL) is synonymous with:

a)

B cells

b)

T helper cell

c)

T cytotoxic cell

d)

Natural killer cell

5.

C-reactive protein is synthesized in the:

a)

bone marrow

b)

lymphatics

c)

RES

d)

epithelial cells

6.

This cytokine stimulates the hepatic cells to secrete C-reactive protein (CRP):

a)

interleukin 1

b)

interleukin 6

c)

interleukin 12

d)

tumor necrosis factor

7.

The HLA genes are located on chromosome number:

a)

4

b)

28

c)

6

d)

10

8.

The majority of HLA antibodies are:

a)

lgD

b)

lgE

c)

lgG

d)

lgM

9.

Of the following diseases, which one has the highest relative risk in association with an HLA antigen?

a)

Ankylosing spondylitis

b)

Juvenile diabetes

c)

Narcolepsy

d)

Rheumatoid arthritis

10.

Which class of immunoglobulin can fix 2 homologous basophils and mediate atopic allergies?

a)

lgA

b)

lgD

c)

lgE

d)

lgG

e)

lgM

11.

lgG subclass most efficient at complement fixation but is not capable of binding the Fc portion of the molecule to staphylococcal protein A:

a)

lgG1

b)

lgG2

c)

lgG4

d)

lgG3

12.

Which immunoglobulins can activate the classic pathway of the complement systems?

a)

lgA and lgM

b)

lgG and lgA

c)

lgG1, lgG2, lgG3 and lgM

d)

lgE and lgD

13.

The three complement activation pathways converge at the point of cleavage of complement component ____________________.

a)

C3

b)

C5

c)

C2 solo

d)

C8

14.

Antibody detection and identification:

a)

direct AHG test

b)

indirect AHG test

c)

medj direct AHG test

d)

all of these

15.

Macrophages have specific names according to their tissue location. Macrophages in the liver are:

a)

Alveolar macrophages

b)

Microglial cells

c)

Kupffer cells

d)

Histiocytes

16.

In which are of the lymph node are T cells mainly foound:

a)

Germinal center

b)

Paracortex

c)

Primary follicles

d)

Sinusoids

17.

Antigen given intravenously are mainly trapped in the:

a)

Lungs

b)

Spleen

c)

Lymph node

d)

Tonsils

18.

Nitroblue tetrazolium test is of value in the diagnosis of:

a)

Bruton's agammaglobulinemia

b)

Kahler's disease

c)

Franklin's disease

d)

Chronic granulomatous disease

19.

Variation in variable regions that give individual antibody molecules specificity:

a)

isotype

b)

allotype

c)

idiotype

d)

all of these

20.

The hinge region of an immunoglobulin is flexible because it contains a large amount of which amino acid?

a)

serine

b)

threonine

c)

cystine

d)

proline

21.

Which of the following statements does not apply to lgG?

a)

Appears early in the immune responsse

b)

Can fix complement

c)

Crosses the human placenta

d)

Opsonizes bacteria

22.

The key cells involved in meditating DELAYED hypersensitivity are:

a)

neutrophils

b)

T cells

c)

Mast cells, basophils

d)

B cells

23.

RAST measures:

a)

Antigen concentration

b)

lgE antibodies

c)

lgM antibodies

d)

lgG antibodies

24.

Helper T cells recognize antigen on antigen-presenting cells as antigen:

a)

With MHC class I product

b)

With both class I and class II product

c)

With MHC class II product

d)

With complement

25.

MHC class II molecules are found on:

a)

Virtually all cells in the body

b)

B cells, dendritic cells and macrophages

c)

Virtually all nucleated cells in the body

d)

Only on virally infected cells

26.

At least one of the functions of CD8 on the surface of lymphocytes interacting with another cell is to:

a)

Bind antigen

b)

Bind to MHC class I molecules

c)

Bind surface immunoglobulin

d)

Bind to MHC class II molecules

27.

Transfer of tissues and organs between genetically identical individuals such as identical twins:

a)

Autograft

b)

Xenograft

c)

Syngraft

d)

Allograft

28.

Fetus can be considered as an:

a)

Autograft

b)

Isograft

c)

Allograft

d)

Xenograft

29.

Which term applies to the most accelerated type of graft rejection?

a)

Acute rejection

b)

Hyperacute rejection

c)

Chronic rejection

d)

Accelerated rejection

30.

Susceptibility to AUTOIMMUNE DISEASE is usually linked to:

a)

HLA Class I alleles

b)

HLA Class II alleles

c)

HLA Class III alleles

31.

Anti-mitochondrial antibodies are demonstrated in:

a)

Myasthenia gravis

b)

Primary biliary cirrhosis

c)

Chronic active hepatitis

32.

Anti-smooth muscle antibodies are demonstrated in:

a)

Myasthenia gravis

b)

Primary biliary cirrhosis

c)

Chronic active hepatitis

33.

Carcinoembryonic antigen is characteristically secreted by tumors of the:

a)

Kidney

b)

Lungs

c)

Bones

d)

Gastrointestinal tract

34.

A hybridoma is a cell formed by fusion of a:

a)

Plasma cell with a plasma cell of another species

b)

T cell with a myeloma cell

c)

Plasma cell with a myeloma cell

d)

T cell with a B cell

35.

The PROZONE phenomenon can:

1. Result from excessive antibody concentration

2. Result in false positive reaction

3. Result in false negative reaction

4. Be overcome by serially diluting the antibody containing serum

a)

1 and 3

b)

2 and 4

c)

1, 2 and 3

d)

1, 3 and 4

36.

Reverse passive agglutination:

1. Antigen is attached to carrier particle

2. Antibody is attached to carrier particle

3. Agglutination occurs if patient antibody is present

4. Agglutination occurs if patient antigen is present

a)

1 and 3

b)

2 and 4

c)

1, 2 and 3

d)

1, 2, 3 and 4

37.

In FLUORESCENCE POLARIZATION IMMUNOASSAY (FPIA), the degree of fluorescence polarization is ______ proportional to concentration of the analyte.

a)

Direct

b)

Inverse

c)

Variable

d)

No effect

38.

the rapid plasma reagin (RPR) for syphilis does not need to be read microscopically because the antigen because the antigen is:

a)

Cardiolipin

b)

Complexed to latex

c)

Complexed to charcoal

d)

Complexed to bacteria

39.

Antibodies to which of the following viral antigens are usually the first to be detected in HIV infection?

a)

gp120

b)

gp160

c)

gp41

d)

p24

40.

The outward expression of genes:

a)

Allele

b)

Genotype

c)

Phenotype

41.

Pink stopper tubes are specifically used for:

a)

Blood banking

b)

Chemistry

c)

Hematology

d)

Microbiology

42.

First time a blood transfusion was recorded in history.

a)

Queen Victoria

b)

Pope Pius

c)

Pope Innocent

43.

WASHING CORD CELLS ______ times should alleviate spontaneous rouleaux due to WHARTON'S JELLY which is a viscous mucopolysaccharide material present on cord cells.

a)

Two to three times

b)

Three to four times

c)

Six to eight times

d)

Eight to ten times

44.

Which blood group system is known for showing dosage?

a)

I

b)

P

c)

Kidd

d)

ABO

45.

Which antibody is enhanced by acidifying the patient's serum?

a)

Anti-D

b)

Anti-Fya

c)

Anti-M

d)

Anti-Jka

46.

which of the following is the most common antibody seen in the blood banks after ABO and RH antibodies?

a)

Anti-Fyb

b)

Anti-k

c)

Anti-Jsa

d)

Anti-K

47.

A common antibody found in many normal persons as well as in those with acquired hemolytic anemia of the COLD antibody type:

a)

Anti-I1

b)

Anti-I

c)

Anti-P

d)

Anti-P1

48.

In 1956, Weiner and coworkers, gave a name to one such agglutinin. The ANTIBODY REACTED WOTH MOST BLOOD SPECIMENS TETSED.

a)

Anti-P

b)

Anti-I

c)

Anti-Rh

d)

Anti-M

49.

Mutation in the carrier molecule for this blood group system may result in charges of red blood cell shape in the forms of elliptocytosis, acanthocytosis and ovalocytosis?

a)

DI

b)

CO

c)

PJ

50.

If a simple must be taken from an IV line:

a)

Not acceptable

b)

sample can be obtained anytime

c)

The line should be disconnected for 5 to 10 minutes, the first 10 mL of blood drawn should be discharged, and then the sample should be obtained

51.

A woman begins to breathe rapidly while donating blood. Choose the correct course of action.

a)

continue the donation; rapid breathing is not a reason to discontinue a donation

b)

withdraw the needle, raise her feet, and administer ammonia

c)

Discontinue the donation and provide a paper bag

d)

Tell her to sit upright and apply a cold compress to her forehead

52.

Immunization for RUBELLA would result in a temporary deferral for:

a)

2 weeks

b)

4 weeks

c)

8 weeks

53.

Cardiopulmonary bypass is an essential system for open heart surgery. Which of the following prevents coagulation during CPB?

a)

ACP

b)

CPD

c)

CPDA-1

d)

Heparin

54.

Blood can be stored in CPDA-1 at 1 to 6oC for how many days?

a)

21 days

b)

42 days

c)

35 days

d)

7 days

55.

Additive solution are approved for blood storage for how many days?

a)

21 days

b)

42 days

c)

35 days

d)

7 days

56.

ALL BUT ONE of these factors will influence platelet metabolism and function in a closed system?

a)

Total platelet count

b)

Duration of storage

c)

Temperature of storage

d)

Fibrinogen concentration

57.

When platelet concentrate are stored at 22oC, continuous gentle agitation must be used to:

a)

Prevent platelet aggregation

b)

Facilitate gas exchange

58.

The minimum interval allowed between plateletpheresis component collection procedures is:

a)

24 hours

b)

48 hours

c)

7 days

d)

8 weeks

59.

Each unit of cryoprecipitate, prepared from WB, should contain approximately how many units of AHF activity?

a)

40 IU

b)

80 IU

c)

120 IU

d)

160 IU

60.

Blood donor and recipient samples used in crossmatching must be stored for a minimum of how many days following transfusion?

a)

2

b)

5

c)

7

d)

10

61.

When a suspected hemolytic reactions occurs the first thing to do is:

a)

Slow the transfusion rate and call the physician

b)

Administer medication to stop reaction

c)

Stop the transfusion, but keep the intravenous line open with saline

d)

First inform the laboratory to begin the investigation

62.

Which listed transfusion reaction is most associated with transfused patients lacking lgA immunoglobulin?

a)

Anaphylactic

b)

Hemolytic

c)

Febrile

d)

TACO

63.

Hemolytic disease of the newborn is characterized by:

a)

lgM antibody

b)

Nearly always anti-D

c)

different RBC antigens between mother and father

d)

Antibody titer less than 32

64.

The advantages of cordocentesis include all of the following, Except:

a)

Allows measurement of fetal hemoglobin and hematocrit levels

b)

Allows antigen typing of fetal blood

c)

Allows direct transfusion of fetal circulation

d)

Decrease risk of trauma to the placenta

65.

PCR technology can be used to:

a)

Amplify small amounts of DNA

b)

Clone fragments of RNA

c)

Digest genomic DNA into small fragments

d)

Repair broken pieces of DNA

66.

A connection between two blood vessels, either direct or through connecting channels:

a)

Anastomosis

b)

Network

c)

Matrix

d)

Reticulum