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Biochemistry Review Bomb Live Game

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Region in the nucleus that serves as the "site of ribosome assembly".

a)

Nuclear membrane

b)

Chromatin

c)

Nucleolus

d)

Chromosome

2.

An organelle that contains oxidase enzymes which uses oxygen to detoxify the body from harmful substances.

a)

Peroxisome

b)

Lysosomes

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Golgi apparatus

3.

Which of the following groups of amino acids are all alcoholic and maybe phosphorylated when present in proteins?

a)

V, I, and L

b)

R, K, and H

c)

M, C, and D

d)

S, T, and Y

4.

Which is a correct pair of amino acid and R-group?

a)

Phe - phenol

b)

Trp - imidazole ring

c)

Arg - guanidino

d)

Cys - thioether

5.

Imidazole ring is present in which amino acid?

a)

Trp

b)

His

c)

Pro

d)

Tyr

6.

Which organelle is specifically found in plants and is responsible for photosynthesis?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Golgi Apparatus

7.

Cellular particles are often referred by their sedimentation coefficient like 70S or 30S, what does the "S" stand for?

a)

Svedberg

b)

subunit

c)

seconds

d)

AOTA

8.

Which statement is TRUE about prions?

I. Prions are infectious proteins.

II. Prions can lead to spongiform encephalopathy.

III. Prions can infect both humans and animal species.

a)

I only

b)

I and III

c)

II and III

d)

I, II, and III

9.

Which of the following is correct?

I. Guanosine is a nucleotide.

II. Guanine is Pyrimidine base.

III. Guanine + Deoxyribose is a nucleoside.

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

II and III

10.

Which are pyrimidine bases found in DNA?

I. Uracil and Thymine

II. Cytosine and Thymine

III. Adenine and Uracil

IV. Guanine and Cytosine

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III and IV

d)

II and III

11.

DNA and RNA differ which carbon of the sugar moiety?

a)

Carbon 1

b)

Carbon 2

c)

Carbon 3

d)

Carbon 5

12.

The acidic character of nucleic acids is attributed to which group?

a)

Nitrogen bases

b)

Pentose Sugar

c)

Phosphate group

d)

NOTA

13.

Which DNA base pair is connected by 3 hydrogen bonds?

a)

Cytosine-Guanine

b)

Adenine-Thymine

c)

Adenine-Uracil

d)

Cytosine-Adenine

14.

Which of the following is a purine base?

a)

Cytosine

b)

Uracil

c)

Thymine

d)

Guanine

15.

Which terms describes a DNA structure having all adenine binds with thymine and the cytosine binds with guanine?

a)

Antiparallel

b)

Semiconservative

c)

Base pairing

d)

Complementary

16.

DNA helix having the 5' end of one strand to the 3' end of the other strand is best described as what?

a)

Antiparallel

b)

Semiconservative

c)

Base pairing

d)

Complementary

17.

The DNA having 1 strand from the parent DNA chain and producing a new daughter cell is best described as what?

a)

Antiparallel

b)

Semiconservative

c)

Base pairing

d)

Complementary

18.

Which of the following represents the degeneracy of the genetic code?

a)

1 codon = 1 amino acid

b)

1 codon = 6 amino acids

c)

6 codons = 1 amino acid

d)

NOTA

19.

Discontinuous stretches in which lagging strand is initially synthesized during DNA replication.

a)

Enhancer

b)

Okazaki fragments

c)

Operons

d)

RNA Primers

20.

Which DNA polymerase has 5' to 3' polymerase activity and 3' to 5' proofreading exonuclease activity?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

21.

Which DNA polymerase is responsible for repairing the DNA?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

22.

Gln and Asn amino acids are

a)

Acidic

b)

Basic

c)

Neutral

d)

Non-polar

23.

Which of the is not a simple protein?

a)

serum globulin

b)

zein

c)

sturin

d)

casein

24.

When an adenine is replaced by a guanine, what type of mutation is this?

a)

Insertion

b)

Frame-shift

c)

Tranversional

d)

Transitional

25.

Coding regions in a polypeptide sequence.

a)

Introns

b)

Exons

c)

Repressor

d)

Promoters

26.

An imino group containing amino acid.

a)

Pro

b)

Phe

c)

Thr

d)

Arg

27.

Which of the following amino acids has an ionizable R-group?

a)

Cys

b)

Ala

c)

Ser

d)

Gln

28.

Which of the following is a tripe-tide molecule?

a)

Enkephalins

b)

Glutathione

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Insulin

29.

Which amino acid is capable of forming disulfide bridges?

a)

Methionine

b)

Tyrosine

c)

Serine

d)

Cysteine

30.

End-product of purine catabolism in humans.

a)

Uric acid

b)

Urea

c)

Allantoin

d)

NOTA

31.

This pertains to the sequence of amino acid in a peptide chain.

a)

Primary structure

b)

Secondary structure

c)

Tertiary structure

d)

Quaternary structure

32.

Alpha helix and Beta-pleated sheets. are examples of

a)

Primary structure

b)

Secondary structure

c)

Tertiary structure

d)

Quaternary structure

33.

All of the following are responsible for maintaining tertiary structures together, except;

a)

Hydrogen bonding

b)

Disulfide bonds

c)

Electrostatic interactions

d)

Hydroelectric interaction

34.

All of the following can disrupt H-bonding resulting to violent molecular vibration in the protein structure, except;

a)

Heat

b)

Reducing agents

c)

UV radiation

d)

Shaking

35.

Which of the following is a correct pair?

a)

Peanuts - Legumin

b)

Amadin - Almonds

c)

Zein - Carrots

d)

Gliadin - Corn

36.

Which of the following is a protamine obtained from salmon?

a)

Salmine

b)

Sturine

c)

Chyprine

d)

Scombrine

37.

Which of the following is composed mainly of keratin proteins?

a)

Tendons

b)

Skin

c)

Blood

d)

Horns

38.

Which glycoprotein is found in saliva?

a)

Melanin

b)

Casein

c)

Mucin

d)

Mucoids

39.

It is a phosphoprotein found in milk.

a)

Vitellin

b)

Casein

c)

Globulin

d)

Zein

40.

This is a storage protein found in the spleen that usually stores iron.

a)

Ferritin

b)

Casein

c)

Gliadin

d)

Transportin

41.

This is a thin and moving filaments of the myofibril in skeletal muscles.

a)

Kinesin

b)

Myosin

c)

Actin

d)

Myoglobin

42.

Which immunoglobulin is the only one that can cross the placenta and provides passive immunity to the unborn child?

a)

IgA

b)

IgE

c)

IgD

d)

IgG

43.

This is a disease associated with glycine residues being substituted with large R-groups. This is commonly manifested as brittle bones.

a)

Sickle Cell Anemia

b)

Osteogenesis imperfecta

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Paget disease

44.

Which coenzyme is formed with niacin?

a)

NAD

b)

THF

c)

FAD

d)

CoA

45.

Which general class of enzyme bonding together molecules with the use of ATP?

a)

Transferase

b)

Lyase

c)

Hydrolase

d)

Ligase

46.

Which of the following is responsible for transferring phosphate groups between substrates?

a)

Glucose oxidase

b)

Maltase

c)

Hexokinase

d)

Fumarase

47.

Which of the following can be classified as a hydrolase?

a)

Pyruvate carboxylase

b)

Maltase

c)

Fumarase

d)

Glucose oxidase

48.

Microorganisms that can survive in extremely dry conditions.

a)

Cryophiles

b)

Xerophiles

c)

Halophiles

d)

Piezophiles

49.

Which of the following is an enzyme inhibitor whose action is attributed to the presence of bergamottin?

a)

Statin drugs

b)

ACE drugs

c)

Grapefruit juice

d)

Quinolones

50.

All are fat-soluble vitamin, except;

a)

Vit. A

b)

Vit. B

c)

Vit. D

d)

Vit. K

51.

Vitamin H

a)

Vit. B3

b)

Vit. B5

c)

Vit. B7

d)

Vit. B9

52.

Vitamin G

a)

Vit. B2

b)

Vit. B4

c)

Vit. B6

d)

Vit. B8

53.

Which vitamin is useful in preventing peripheral neuropathy that can be a result from the use of specific drugs like ethambutol?

a)

Vit. B2

b)

Vit. B6

c)

Vit. 9

d)

Vit. B12

54.

Which vitamin is important for methylation reactions?

a)

Vit. B5

b)

Vit. B6

c)

Vit. B9

d)

Vit. B12

55.

Which is the active form of Vitamin B12?

a)

Cyanocobalamin

b)

THF

c)

Methylcobalamin

d)

Biotin

56.

Which is the precursor molecule for Vitamin A?

a)

Retinol

b)

Retinal

c)

Retinoic acid

d)

Beta-carotene

57.

Which vitamin is the antidote for warfarin toxicity?

a)

Vit. B6

b)

Vit. A

c)

Vit. B12

d)

Vit. K

58.

Which test is used to detect the presence of amino acids and free amino group?

a)

Xanthoproteic test

b)

Sakaguchi test

c)

Pauly diazo test

d)

Ninhydrin test

59.

Sakaguchi test detect

a)

Arg

b)

Trp

c)

Tyr

d)

His

60.

Basic lead test detects

a)

Tyr

b)

Cys

c)

Trp

d)

His

61.

Which test is used to detect Trp?

a)

Sakaguchi test

b)

Pauly diazo test

c)

Hopkin's Cole test

d)

Biuret test

62.

Which of the following sugars has the most number of carbons?

a)

Sedoheptulose

b)

Glucose

c)

Ribose

d)

Erythrose

63.

Malt sugar

a)

Maltose

b)

Lactose

c)

Galactose

d)

Fructose

64.

Which of the following is deficient in cases of pellagra?

a)

Tyrosine

b)

Niacin

c)

Riboflavin

d)

Folic acid

65.

Which is the reduction product of glucose to its alcoholic form and accumulates in the lenses of diabetic patient and often causes cataracts?

a)

Mannitol

b)

Sorbitol

c)

Glycerol

d)

Glycerin

66.

Lactose is a disaccharide of

a)

Galactose + Glucose

b)

Glucose + Glucose

c)

Glucose + Fructose

d)

Fructose + Fructose

67.

A toxic oligosaccharide found in potatoes composed of glucose + galactose + rhamnose.

a)

Solanine

b)

Raffinose

c)

Stacyhose

d)

Amylopectin

68.

Which of the following is non-saponifiable lipid?

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Tryglycerides

c)

Sphingoglycolipids

d)

AOTA

69.

These are esters of long-chain fatty acid and long-chain alcohols.

a)

Mineral wax

b)

Bile acids

c)

Biologic Wax

d)

Triglycerides

70.

A saturated fatty acid made of 18 carbons.

a)

Palmitic acid

b)

Lauric acid

c)

Stearic acid

d)

Myristic acid

71.

Bile an emulsifying lipid agent is derived from

a)

Sphingosine

b)

Phosphatidylcholine

c)

Cholesterol

d)

Arachidonic acid

72.

An anti-inflammatory agent derived from a steroidal molecule.

a)

Cortisol

b)

Mifepristone

c)

Aldosterone

d)

Prednisolone

73.

Physiologic form of DNA

a)

A-DNA

b)

B-DNA

c)

Z-DNA

d)

AOTA

74.

Which mRNA is responsible for converting the newly formed RNA to its mature form?

a)

hnRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

snRNA

d)

rRNA

75.

Which RNA is responsible for delivering amino acids into ribosomes for protein synthesis?

a)

snRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

mRNA

d)

rRNA

76.

Which of the following is an enzyme the relieves stress in the DNA double helix ahead of the replication fork?

a)

DNA gyrase

b)

Primase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

DNA ligase

77.

Which factor is associated to the termination of transcription?

a)

Sigma factor

b)

Gamma factor

c)

Delta factor

d)

Rho factor

78.

Which site of the ribosome holds the growing tRNA containing the elongating peptide?

a)

P site

b)

A site

c)

E site

d)

T site

79.

Starting codon

a)

AUG

b)

UAG

c)

UGA

d)

UAA

80.

Which is the prokaryotic initiation site for translation?

a)

Kozak sequence

b)

CAAT box

c)

Shine-Dalgarno sequence

d)

Goldberg-Hogness box

81.

Which is a process of targets a protein degradation?

a)

Phosphorylation

b)

Methylation

c)

Glycosylation

d)

Ubiquitination

82.

Which of the following is an example of a proteopathic condition?

a)

Cystic fibrosis

b)

Parkinson's disease

c)

Huntington's diseases

d)

AOTA

83.

Which of the following is a possible topoisomerase inhibitor?

a)

Ofloxacin

b)

Rifampin

c)

Streptomycin

d)

Tetracycline

84.

Which of the following is most likely to cause frameshift mutation?

a)

Nitrosamine

b)

Benzopyrene

c)

Heavy metals

d)

Ozone

85.

A mutation where the mutant codon still codes for the same amino acid.

a)

Silent mutation

b)

Missense mutation

c)

Nonsense mutation

d)

Common sense mutation

86.

Metabolic process that occurs in the cytosol.

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Beta-oxidation

c)

Citric acid cycle

d)

Electron Transport Chain

87.

Which of the following is a substrate level phosphorylation?

I. Conversion of 1,3-BPG to 3-PG

II. Conversion of PEP to Pyruvate

III. Conversion of F6P to FBP

IV. Conversion of Glucose to G6P

a)

I and III

b)

I and II

c)

III and IV

d)

II and IV

88.

Ketogenic amino acid

I. Trp

II. Leu

III. Arg

IV. Lys

a)

I only

b)

I, II and III

c)

II and IV

d)

III only

89.

Glycogen storage disease (GSD) Type 3

a)

Von Gierke's disease

b)

Tauri's disease

c)

Andersen's disease

d)

Cori's disease

90.

Which of the following statement is true?

I. Insulin decreases glycolysis.

II. Beta-oxidation is increased with insulin intake.

III. Glucagon during fasted state increases glycogenolysis.

a)

I only

b)

I and II

c)

III only

d)

II and III

91.

Central hub of metabolism

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Pentose-Phosphate Pathway

c)

Kreb's cycle

d)

Beta-oxidation

92.

What is the main reaction that occurs in ETC leading to ATP production?

a)

Substrate-level phosphorylation

b)

Oxidative phosphorylation

c)

Beta-oxidation

d)

Oxidative decarboxylation

93.

How many electrons are produced with 1 mole of glucose from glycolysis to TCA, provided that it uses the malate aspartate shuttle?

a)

36 ATP

b)

32 ATP

c)

30 ATP

d)

28 ATP

94.

A state of increased ketones in blood.

a)

Ketogenesis

b)

Ketonuria

c)

Ketonemia

d)

Ketoacidosis

95.

A state where body shifting dependence from glucose to ketone bodies as a source of energy.

a)

Ketosis

b)

Ketonuria

c)

Ketonemia

d)

Ketoacidosis

96.

Which is/are precursor for pyrimidine nucleotides?

a)

Aspartate

b)

Glutamine

c)

Bicarbonate

d)

AOTA

97.

Which amino acid is used to synthesize phenylpropanoids?

a)

Phenylalanine

b)

Serine

c)

Tyrosine

d)

Cysteine

98.

Product of heme metabolism

a)

Porphyrins

b)

Urea

c)

Bile

d)

Bilirubin

99.

Manifestion includes retardation and ketonuria resulting from deficient branched keto-acid dehydrogenase.

a)

Albinism

b)

Alkaptonuria

c)

Maple Syrup Urine disease

d)

Phenylketonuria

100.

Albinism as characterized by a very light complexation and photophobia is a form of aminoacidopathy targeting which amino acid?

a)

Y

b)

S

c)

W

d)

E