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procedures test 2022 review

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A geriatric patient comes to radiology for a lumbar spine series. She has severe kyphosis of the thoracolumbar spine. Which one of the following modifications should be applied to this patient?

a)

Perform all positions erect

b)

Perform all positions recumbent, include flexion and extension projections.

c)

Include the entire spine for all projections regardless of what was ordered by the physician.

d)

Use high (90 kV) for all projections.

2.

Which of the following is best demonstrated in the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the CR directed 30 degrees caudad to the orbitomeatal line (OML) and exiting at the foramen magnum?

a)

Occipital bone

b)

Frontal bone

c)

Facial bones

d)

Basal foramina

3.

A radiograph of a left posterior oblique (LPO) projection of the lumbar spine reveals that the downside pedicle is projected too far posterior on the vertebral body. What specific positioning error is present on this radiograph?

a)

Excessive rotation of the spine

b)

Insufficient rotation of the spine

c)

Tilt of the spine

d)

Incorrect CR placement

4.

A radiograph of an AP axial sacrum reveals that it is foreshortened and the sacral foramina are not clearly seen. The patient was in an AP supine position, and the technologist angled the CR 10° cephalad. What specific positioning error is present on this radiograph?

a)

Excessive CR angulation

b)

Rotation of the sacrum

c)

Insufficient CR angulation

d)

Wrong direction of the CR angle

5.

A young female patient comes to radiology for a scoliosis study. The patient has had this series performed frequently. How much will the breast dose be decreased if a PA rather than an AP projection is taken?

a)

15%

b)

90%

c)

35%

d)

It will not make a significant difference with good collimation.

6.

The structure located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic symphysis is the 

a)

dome of the acetabulum

b)

femoral neck

c)

greater trochanter

d)

iliac crest

7.

The proximal radius and all the are seen free of superimposition in which of the following projections? 

a)

AP elbow 

b)

Lateral elbow 

c)

Medial oblique elbow 

d)

Lateral oblique elbow 

8.

The RPO position (Judet method) of the right acetabulum will demonstrate the 

a)

Anterior rim of the right acetabulum 

b)

Anterior iliopubic column 

c)

Left iliac wing 

d)

Posterior rim of the right acetabulum 

9.

In which of the following positions can small amounts of free air in the peritoneal cavity be demonstrated?

a)

Left lateral decubitus 

b)

Right lateral decubitus

c)

AP Trendelenburg

d)

AP supine

10.

The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the

a)

costal margin 

b)

Umbilicus 

c)

xiphoid tip 

d)

Fourth lumbar vertebra 

11.

In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the 

1) fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia

2) patellofemoral joint should be visualized

3) femoral condyles should be superimposed

a)

1 only 

b)

2 only

c)

1 and 3 only

d)

1, 2, and 3 

12.

Which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially?

a)

AP 

b)

External rotation 

c)

Internal rotation 

d)

Neutral position 

13.

Which of the following is/are associated with a Colles fracture? 

1) Transverse fracture of the radial head 

2) Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid 

3) Posterior or backward displacement 

a)

1 only 

b)

1 and 3 only 

c)

2 and 3 only 

d)

1, 2, and 3

14.

A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate 

1) A fracture 

2) A foreign body

3) Soft tissue 

a)

1 only 

b)

2 only 

c)

2 and 3 only 

d)

1 and 3 only 

15.

Which of the following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of the shoulder is/are true?

1) The midsagittal plane should be about 60° to the IR 

2) The scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft

3) An oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained

a)

1 only 

b)

1 and 2 only 

c)

2 and 3 only 

d)

1, 2 and 3 

16.

During IV urography, the prone position is generally recommended to demonstrate

1) ureteral filling

2) the renal pelvis

3) superior calyces 

a)

1 only 

b)

1 and 2 only 

c)

1 and 3 only 

d)

1, 2, 3 

17.

The act of expiration will cause the 

1) Diaphragm to move inferiorly 

2) Sternum and ribs to move inferiorly 

3) Diaphragm to move superiorly

a)

1 only 

b)

1 and 2 only

c)

2 and 3 only 

d)

1, 2, and 3 

18.

The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles? 

1) Interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR

2) MSP perpendicular to the IR

3) Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) parallel to the transverse axis of the IR

a)

1 only 

b)

1 and 2 only 

c)

1 and 3 only 

d)

1, 2, and 3 

19.

When evaluating a PA axial projection of the skull with a 15 degree caudal angle, which of the following should be demonstrated? 

1.  Petrous pyramids in the lower third of the orbits 

2.  Equal distance from the lateral border the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally 

3.  Symmetrical petrous pyramids

a)

1 and 2 only 

b)

1 and 3 only 

c)

2 and 3 only 

d)

1, 2, and 3 

20.

Which of the following barium-filled atomic structures is best demonstrated in the LPO position?

a)

Hepatic/right colic flexure 

b)

Splenic / left colic flexure

c)

Sigmoid colon

d)

Ileocecal valve

21.

During a double contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the ascending colon? 

a)

AP or PA erect 

b)

Right lateral decubitus 

c)

Left lateral decubitus

d)

Ventral decubitus

22.

During chest radiography, the act of inspiration 

1. Elevates the diaphragm 

2. Raises the ribs 

3. Depresses the abdominal  viscera 

a)

1 only 

b)

1 and 2 only 

c)

2 and 3 only 

d)

1, 2, and 3 

23.

All of the following are palpable bony landmarks that can be used in radiography of the pelvis, except 

a)

The femoral neck 

b)

The pubic symphysis

c)

The greater trochanter 

d)

The iliac crest

24.

With which of the following does the trapezium articulate? 

a)

Fifth metacarpal 

b)

First metacarpal 

c)

Distal radius 

d)

Distal ulna

25.

In the lateral projection of the foot, the 

1.  Plantar surface should be perpendicular to the IR 

2. Metatarsals are superimposed 

3. Talofibular joint should be visualized

a)

1 only 

b)

1 and 2 only 

c)

2 and 3 only 

d)

1, 2, and 3 

26.

All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position? 

a)

AP 

b)

Lateral 

c)

Acute flexion 

d)

AP partial flexion 

27.

In the AP projection of the ankle, the 

1. Plantar surface of the foot is vertical

2. Fibula projects more distally than the tibia

3. Calcaneus is well visualized

a)

1 only 

b)

1 and 2 only 

c)

2 and 3 only 

d)

1, 2, and 3 

28.

In the axiolateral projection of the hip,  the CR should be 

a)

2 inches medial to the ASIS 

b)

Parallel to the IR 

c)

Perpendicular to the femoral neck

d)

Parallel to the femoral neck 

29.

The AP projection of the sacrum requires that the CR should be directed 

1. 15 degrees cephalad

2. two inches superior to the pubic symphysis

3. 10 degrees caudad

a)

1 only 

b)

2 only 

c)

1 and 2 only 

d)

1 and 3 only 

30.

With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow resting on table and flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?

a)

Radial head

b)

Ulnar head

c)

Coronoid process

d)

Olecranon process

31.

A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient's waist for a lateral projection of the Lumbosacral spine to 

1. make the vertebral column parallel with the IR

2. place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendicular to the IR

3. decrease the amount of scatter radiation (SR) reaching the IR

a)

1 only 

b)

1 and 2 only 

c)

2 and 3 only 

d)

1, 2, and 3 

32.

Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition?

a)

Radial flexion /deviation 

b)

Ulnar flexion /deviation 

c)

AP (medial) oblique

d)

AP (lateral) oblique

33.

The term that refers to parts away from the source or beginning is 

a)

cephalad

b)

proximal

c)

distal

d)

lateral

34.

Which of the following positions of the abdomen is obtained with the patient lying supine on the radiographic table and the CR directed horizontally to the iliac crest? 

a)

AP abdomen 

b)

PA abdomen 

c)

Ventral decubitus position 

d)

Dorsal decubitus position 

35.

For the AP projection of the scapula, the 

1. patient's arm is abducted at right angles to the body

2. patient's elbow is flexed with the hand supinated

3. exposure is or (can be) made during quiet breathing (to obliterate pulmonary vascular markings)

a)

1 and 2 only 

b)

1 and 3 only 

c)

3 only 

d)

1, 2, and 3 

36.

How should an AP projection be obtained when examining the patient whose elbow is in partial flexion?

1. With humerus parallel to IR, CR perpendicular

2. With forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular

3. Through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular

a)

1 only

b)

1 and 2 only

c)

2 and 3 only

d)

1, 2, and 3

37.

What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra upon the vertebra below it?

a)

Spondylitis

b)

Spondylolysis

c)

Spondylolisthesis

d)

Spondylosis

38.

Which of the following is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children? 

a)

Appendicitus 

b)

Intussuception

c)

Regional enteritis

d)

Ulcerative colitis

39.

The most significant risk factor for breast cancer is 

a)

Age

b)

Gender 

c)

Family history 

d)

Personal history 

40.

The term caudad refers to which of the following? 

a)

Towards the feet 

b)

Towards the head end 

c)

Towards the ventral surface 

d)

Towards the apex 

41.

What term is used to describe a part of the structure that is nearest to the origin or source?

a)

Proximal 

b)

Medial 

c)

Cephalad 

d)

Distal 

42.

Which of the following is the largest bone in the upper extremity? 

a)

Radius 

b)

Ulna

c)

Humerus

d)

Clavicle 

43.

The acromion is located on which of following bones? 

a)

Radius 

b)

Ulna

c)

Clavicle 

d)

Scapula 

44.

How many pairs of ribs are there in a normal human skeleton?

a)

7

b)

12

c)

14

d)

24

45.

Which position has the patient standing erect and leaning backward to rest his/her shoulders against the image receptor?

a)

Posterior oblique

b)

Apical lordotic

c)

Intrathoracic

d)

Mediastinal tilt

46.

For a lateral L5-S1 projection, the CR must be parallel to the:

a)

midsagittal plane.

b)

midcoronal plane

c)

interiliac line

d)

transverse plane

47.

How much obliquity of the body is required for posterior oblique positions for the sacroiliac joints?

a)

45°

b)

10° to 15°

c)

60° to 70°

d)

25° to 30°

48.

The "nose" of the Scottie dog represents the spinous process of a lumbar vertebra

a)

True

b)

False

49.

The anterior oblique (RAO and LAO) positions of the lumbar spine will demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints closest to the image receptor.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

The intervertebral foramina of the lumbar spine are located at an angle of _____ in relation to the midsagittal plane.

a)

45°

b)

30° to 35°

c)

70° to 75°

d)

90°

51.

What CR angle should be used for a lateral sacrum/coccyx projection?

a)

15° cephalad

b)

30° cephalad

c)

None. CR is perpendicular to the image receptor.

d)

10° cephalad

52.

What CR angulation should be used for an AP axial projection of the L5-S1 joint space on a male patient?

a)

20° cephalad

b)

30° cephalad

c)

35° caudad

d)

40° to 45° cephalad

53.

What type of CR angulation is required for an AP axial projection of the coccyx?

a)

10° caudad

b)

15° cephalad

c)

10° cephalad

d)

Perpendicular to the cassette

54.

A high and transverse stomach would be found in a(n) ____ patient.

a)

hyposthenic

b)

asthenic

c)

sthenic

d)

hypersthenic

55.

A PA radiograph taken on a hypersthenic patient during an upper GI series reveals that the pylorus and duodenal bulb are superimposed. Which of the following modifications will best eliminate the superimposition between these structures?

a)

Roll the patient into a slight RAO position.

b)

Angle the CR 35° to 45° cephalad.

c)

Place a rolled towel or a filled compression paddle under the patient's abdomen before exposure.

d)

Increase the kV.

56.

A patient comes to radiology for an upper GI series. The patient has a clinical history of hiatal hernia. Which of the following positions may be helpful in demonstrating this condition?

a)

AP Trendelenburg position

b)

Left lateral decubitus, AP projection

c)

Dorsal decubitus, lateral projection

d)

LAO with compression technique

57.

At what level should the CR and image receptor be centered for the RAO or PA upper GI projection and/or position on a sthenic-body type of patient?

a)

Lower costal margin

b)

L2

c)

L3-4

d)

Iliac crest

58.

How much obliquity is required for the RAO position for the esophagus?

a)

10° to 15°

b)

20° to 30°

c)

35° to 40°

d)

45° to 60°

59.

One radiograph of an upper GI series needs repeating. The technologist is unsure which projection and/or position is seen on this radiograph. The fundus is filled with barium, and the pylorus and duodenal bulb are profiled and air filled. The patient was recumbent for all projections. Which projection and/or position needs to be repeated?

a)

PA

b)

LPO

c)

RAO

d)

Right lateral

60.

Patient preparation for an esophagram includes NPO _____ before the procedure.

a)

4 to 6 hours

b)

30 minutes to 1 hour

c)

4 to 6 hours and no gum chewing or smoking

d)

None of the above; patient preparation is not needed as long as an upper GI series is not scheduled to follow.

61.

The esophagus is located ____ to the larynx.

a)

anterior

b)

posterior

c)

inferior

d)

proximal

62.

Which aspect of the stomach is attached to the duodenum?

a)

Fundus

b)

Body

c)

Pylorus

d)

Cardiac

63.

Which of the following upper GI projections and/or positions will best demonstrate the pylorus and duodenal bulb in profile during a double-contrast study?

a)

AP

b)

LAO

c)

PA

d)

LPO

64.

How much rotation and which oblique position are required to best demonstrate the left sternoclavicular joints?

a)

10° to 15° LAO

b)

35° to 45° LAO

c)

10° to 15° RAO

d)

5° to 10° RAO

65.

The degree of rotation for the right anterior oblique (RAO) projection of the sternum is dependent on the size of the thoracic cavity.

a)

True

b)

False