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Practice Test 1 Entire 150

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 5hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Flecanide 100 mg, po tablet, bid #60. Which statement is false?

a)

The directions state to take one tablet by mouth twice daily

b)

Tambocor is the brand name for Flecanide

c)

Flecanide is an antiarrythmic

d)

Flecanide only comes in a patch dosage form

2.

What drug would be used for convulsive disorders?

a)

Depakote

b)

Coreg

c)

Imitrex 

d)

Digoxin

3.

Actonel and Fosamax are used for which disease state?

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Arthritis

c)

Rhinitis

d)

Overactive bladder

4.

Topamax 25 mg, 1 po qd. Which statement is false?

a)

The directions state to instill one drop into each eye

b)

Topamax is used for epilepsy and migraine headaches

c)

The generic name for Topamax is Topiramate 

d)

Topamax 25 mg comes in a capsule and tablet dosage form

5.

How many 500 mg doses would be contained in 10 gm of amoxicillin?

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15 

d)

20

6.

Which of the following drugs is exempt from the Poision Prevention Act?

a)

Viagra

b)

Levsin

sublingual tablets

c)

Nitrogloycerin sublingual tablets

d)

Tussionex suspension

7.

A patient using Vancomycin should be monitored for ________.

a)

a. Nephrotoxicity

b)

b. Ototoxicity

c)

c. Both a and b 

d)

d. None of the above

8.

Which counseling tip should be given to a patient taking Flagyl (Metronidazole)?

a)

Avoid alcohol while taking this medication

b)

Must take with vitamin B6

c)

Do not take with NSAID's 

d)

All of the above

9.

Rx Carbamide Peroxide 6.5% 

Glycerinad 60 mL 

Sig. Five drops in right ear.

How many grams of carbamide peroxide should be used to prepare this prescription?

a)

3.9 gm

b)

2.3 gm

c)

7 gm

d)

11 gm 

10.

Fluconazole i po stat. Which statement is true?

a)

Fluconazole is an antifungal

b)

Fluconazole is an antibiotic

c)

Fluconazole is an antihelmith 

d)

Fluconazole is an antiviral

11.

PCN 500 mg i po stat, then i po qoh ug. Which statement is false?

a)

Penicillin is in the same family as Augmentin

b)

Penicillin is in the same family as Amoxicillin

c)

Penicillin is in the same family as Biaxin

d)

The directions state to take one tablet now, and then take 1 tablet every 6 hours

until all taken

12.

When dispensing NSAID's, birth control and accutane, how often should a med guide be included?

a)

Just with the original prescription

b)

Only if the patient requests one

c)

Every time the prescription is filled or refilled 

d)

Never, they are generally safe drugs

13.

 Which agency regulates medical devices?

a)

DEA

b)

EPA 

c)

DPS 

d)

FDA

14.

Which drug is not a controlled drug substance?

a)

Acebutolol

b)

Oxycontin

c)

Lorazepam 

d)

Daytrana

15.

Which drug has a major side effect of constipation?

a)

a. Iron

b)

b. Verapamil

c)

c. Morphine 

d)

d. All of the above

16.

Which one of the following drugs does not cause photosensitivity?

a)

Cipro

b)

Septra

c)

Levofloxacin 

d)

Amoxicillin

17.

Which drug is not a benzodiazepine?

a)

Lorazepam

b)

Valium

c)

Ultram

d)

Clonazepam

18.

Accupril is in which drug classification?

a)

Beta blocker

b)

ACE inhibitor

c)

Calcium channel blocker

d)

Angiotensin II receptor antagonist

19.

Rx Keralac 50% 

Compound Benzoin Tincture ad 50 mL 

Sig. Apply to area of dry skin TID.

How many grams of Keralac® should be used to prepare this prescription?

a)

0.25 gm

b)

25 gm

c)

12.5 gm

d)

250 gm

20.

Nasonex, Miacalcin and Flonase are administered by which route of administration?

a)

Oral

b)

Rectal

c)

Nasal 

d)

In the ear

21.

 If a patient cannot take an NSAID due to a previous allergic reaction, they should be counseled to take which of the following drugs for mild pain?

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Naproxen

c)

Meloxicam 

d)

Ketoprofen

22.

If a patient is allergic to opioids, they should not take which of the following drugs?

a)

Ultram

b)

Depakote

c)

Morphine

d)

Lisinopril

23.

Morphine is in which controlled drug substance schedule?

a)

CI

b)

CII

c)

CIII

d)

CIV

24.

Cocaine is in which controlled drug substance schedule?

a)

CI

b)

CII

c)

CIII 

d)

CIV

25.

Morphine is a/an _________.

a)

Stimulant

b)

Narcotic

c)

Benzodiazepine 

d)

Barbiturate

26.

Which drug should be kept in its original container?

a)

a. Nitroglycerin

b)

b. Seizure medications

c)

c. Control substances

d)

d. All of the above

27.

What is the maximum amount of Acetaminophen that should be consumed daily?

a)

1000 mg

b)

2000 mg

c)

3000 mg

d)

4000 mg

28.

When the word "sig" is seen on a prescription, what does it mean?

a)

The directions for the patient

b)

To check the patient's allergies

c)

Patient's address 

d)

Doctor's address

29.

How many ml of 90% Dextrose should be mixed with water to make

1 liter of a 30% Dextrose

a)

118 ml of 90% Dextrose

b)

237 ml of 90% Dextrose

c)

333 ml of 90% Dextrose

d)

476 ml of 90% Dextrose

30.

Phenergan 25 mg, 1 po q 4-6 h prn n/v. Which statement is false?

a)

The directions state to take one tablet by mouth every 4 to 6 hours as needed for nausea 

and vomiting

b)

The generic name for Phenergan is Promethazine

c)

The directions state insert one suppository rectally every 4 to 6 hours as needed for 

nausea and vomiting 

d)

Phenergan is used for nausea and vomiting

31.

 31. The term “before meals" would use which Latin abbreviation?

a)

ou

b)

pc

c)

ac

d)

qd

32.

What does the abbreviation “APAP” refer to?

a)

Allergy

b)

Acetaminophen

c)

After meals

d)

Antihistamine

33.

On a prescription that reads “Promethazine 25 mg pr qoh prn n/v”,

which dosage form would be dispensed?

a)

Suppositories

b)

Drops

c)

Tablets

d)

Elixer

34.

What filter size would be considered a sterilizing filter?

a)

0.11 micron

b)

0.22 micron

c)

0.31 micron 

d)

0.42 micron

35.

Which type of drug would be placed under the tongue?

a)

Enteric coated

b)

Buccal

c)

Sublingual 

d)

Delayed release

36.

Where would a buccal tablet be placed?

a)

Rectally

b)

Under the tongue

c)

Swallowed and dissolved in the intestine 

d)

Inside the cheek

37.

Robaxin 750 mg, 1 po tid prn for muscle cramps. Which statement is false?

a)

The generic for Robaxin is Metformin

b)

The directions state to take one tablet by mouth 3 times daily as needed for muscle 

cramps

c)

Robaxin is a muscle relaxant 

d)

Robaxin comes in tablet and injection dosage forms

38.

The highest concentration of alcohol would be contained in

which type of formulation?

a)

Solution

b)

Suspension

c)

Syrup

d)

Tincture

39.

 If an injection contains 1% (w/v) of diphenhydramine, calculate the

number of milligrams of the drug in 50 mL of injection.

a)

100 mg

b)

250 mg

c)

1000 mg 

d)

500 mg

40.

Which of the following drugs would be listed on a DEA 222 form?

a)

Xanax

b)

Soma

c)

Ritalin

d)

Vicodin

41.

Which drug comes in a patch and a tablet dosage form?

a)

Clonidine

b)

Topamax

c)

Accupril 

d)

Benadryl

42.

How many milligrams of Zantac 15 mg/ml would be contained in 350 ml?

a)

3640 mg

b)

5250 mg

c)

23 mg

d)

230 mg

43.

Which of the following eye drops must be refrigerated?

a)

Tobrex

b)

Floxin

c)

Ocuflox 

d)

Xalatan

44.

Which drug would be the safest choice to reduce fever in a patient

with peptic ulcer disease?

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Naproxen 

d)

Aspirin

45.

Which of the following drugs is an antihistamine that can be used to treat itching?

a)

Hydroxyzine

b)

Diphenhydramine

c)

Loratidine 

d)

All of the above

46.

What would be the best way to dispose of used needles?

a)

Regular trash

b)

Wrap needle up in a plastic bag

c)

Place needle in a sharp's container 

d)

Break off needle and place in regular trash

47.

Omnicef 300 mg, 1 po bid ug. Which statement is false?

a)

Omnicef is an antibiotic

b)

The directions state to take one by mouth twice daily until all taken

c)

Cefdinir is the generic name for Omnicef 

d)

Omnicef is a Penicillin antibiotic

48.

A prescription drug is also known as which of the following?

a)

a. Legend drug

b)

b. OTC drug

c)

C. Orphan drug

d)

d. All of the above

49.

How many ml of 70% ethanol should be mixed with water to make

1 liter of 50% ethanol solution?

a)

714 ml 70%

b)

209 ml 70%

c)

650 ml 70%

d)

625 ml 70%

50.

Which of the following is not part of a syringe?

a)

Barrel

b)

Luer-lock tip

c)

Plunger

d)

All of the above are parts of a syringe

51.

 If a patient is using 33 units of NPH what size syringe should be used?

a)

a. 0.3 cc

b)

b. 0.5 cc

c)

c. 1.0 cc

d)

d. None of the above

52.

If a patient taking coumadin has a high fever, which medication

should they be counseled to take?

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Naproxen

d)

Aspirin

53.

Benzodiazepines are in which controlled drug substance schedule?

a)

CI

b)

CII

c)

CUI 

d)

CIV

54.

Which of the following is incorrect when counseling patients who are taking

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (“statins”)?

a)

Do not become pregnant while taking this medication

b)

May cause rhabdomyolysis

c)

Usually taken at night 

d)

It is not important to monitor LFT's (liver function test)

55.

Niacin is which B vitamin?

a)

B1

b)

B2

c)

B3

d)

B12

56.

How many gallons are contained in 120 pints?

a)

5 gallons

b)

15 gallons

c)

7.5 gallons 

d)

23 gallons

57.

 Acyclovir is classified as which type of drug?

a)

Antibiotic

b)

Antiviral

c)

Antineoplastic 

d)

Hyperlipidemic

58.

Which statement is not true regarding fluoroquinolones?

a)

Should not be given to children due to bone formation problems

b)

Are considered narrow spectrum antibiotics

c)

Should not be taken with iron, antacids or vitamins

d)

May cause photosensitivity

59.

Which drug is not considered a macrolide antibiotic?

a)

Clarithromycin

b)

Clindamycin

c)

Azithromycin 

d)

Erythromycin

60.

Which drug class will have a cross sensitivity type reaction with penicillin?

a)

Macrolides

b)

Fluoroquinolones

c)

Aminoglycosides

d)

Cephalosporins

61.

Medrol dose pack, uad. Which statement is false?

a)

The directions state to take as directed

b)

Methylprednisolone is the generic name for Medrol

c)

Medrol is an antibiotic

d)

Medrol dose pack is usually given as a tapering dose regimen

62.

 Lasix 40 mg 1 po bid. Which statement about Lasix is false?

a)

The generic name of Lasix is Bumetanide

b)

The generic name of Lasix is Furosemide

c)

The directions state to take one tablet by mouth twice daily 

d)

Lasix is a loop diuretic

63.

Which drug is considered a narcotic?

a)

Dextromethorphan

b)

Lorazepam

c)

Benzonatate

d)

Codeine

64.

The physician orders 250 ml of heparin to be infused over 15 hours.

How many ml/hr should the IV pump be programmed for?

a)

3.5 ml/hr

b)

22.3 ml/hr

c)

12.25 ml/hr 

d)

16.7 ml/hr

65.

Which insulin was the first with a inhalation dosage form?

It was later withdrawn from the market - poor sales.

a)

Humulin R

(insulin regular)

b)

Exubera

(insulin human)

c)

Humulin N (insulin isophane NPH) 

d)

Byetta (Exenatide)

66.

Subcutaneously (SC) refers to which type of injection?

a)

Directly under the skin

b)

Deep muscle injection

c)

Into the vein 

d)

Into the heart

67.

The correct statement concerning drug recalls is:

a)

There are 3 classifications of drug recalls 1 being the least serious and 3 being the most serious.

b)

There are 4 classifications of drug recalls 1 being the most serious and 4 being the least serious.

c)

There are 3 classifications of drug recalls 1 being the most serious and 3 being the least serious.

d)

There are 5 classifications of drug recalls 1 being the least serious and 5 being the most serious. 

68.

What is the medication list that a practitioner may

prescribe from in a hospital setting called?

a)

Formulary

b)

Drug listing

c)

DEA 106 list 

d)

JACHO drug listing

69.

 It is legal for an optometrist to prescribe drugs for

an upper respiratory tract infection.

a)

True 

b)

False

70.

Levaquin 750 mg, 1 po qd. Which statement is false?

a)

The directions state to take one tablet by mouth every day

b)

Levaquin is a broad spectrum antibiotic

c)

Levaquin can cause photosensitivity and should not be taken with iron, antacids and 

vitamins

d)

The generic name for Levaquin is Ciprofloxacin

71.

What is 20% of 200?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

30

d)

40

72.

USPDI volume I contains: 

a)

Drug information written for the health care provider

b)

Drug information written for patients

c)

Therapeutic equivalency information 

d)

Pharmacy law

73.

A drug monograph gives information on which of the following?

a)

Chemical structures

b)

Drug information

c)

Drugs that are soon to be released 

d)

A drug's cost and AWP

74.

Controlled drug substances schedule I drugs:

a)

Are rarely dispensed due to their highly addictive properties

b)

Are the least addictive of all the control substances

c)

Require a special prescription from a doctor

d)

Have no accepted medicinal use

75.

Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA):

a)

a. Limits the purchase of pseudoephedrine.

b)

b. Allows the patient to purchase 3.6 gm of pseudoephedrine per day

c)

c. Allows the patient to purchase 9 gm of pseudoephedrine per 30 days 

d)

d. All of the above

76.

A patient may receive a refill for which of the following drugs? 

a)

Valium

b)

Oxycontin

c)

Ritalin 

d)

Concerta

77.

The discontinuation of Bextra would be classified as a _________.

a)

Voluntary discontinuation

b)

Class I recall

c)

Class II recall 

d)

Class III recall

78.

One of the purposes of a state board of pharmacy is to

protect which of the following?

a)

a. The doctor

b)

b. The pharmacist

c)

C. The public

d)

d. All of the above

79.

 Which size beaker should be used when measuring 8 ml of liquid?

a)

3 ml

b)

5 ml

c)

10 ml 

d)

20 ml

80.

In what proportion should 30% zinc oxide ointment be mixed with an ointment base to produce a 5% zinc oxide ointment?

a)

1:5

b)

1:10

c)

1:50

d)

1:100

81.

A patient that has received and overdose of warfarin should receive which vitamin to increase blood clotting factors?

a)

Vitamin B

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin K

d)

Vitamin A

82.

What federal agency would lost or stolen control drug substances be reported to?

a)

DEA

b)

DPS

c)

OSHA 

d)

JACHO

83.

Who would have the authorization to change the drug formulary?

a)

Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee

(P&T Committee)

b)

Administration counsel

c)

Board of directors

d)

None of the above

84.

Which drug recall goes to the customer level (pharmacist contacts customer)?

a)

Recall I

b)

Recall II

c)

Recall III 

d)

All recalls go to the customer level

85.

85. Which drug would not be considered a controlled drug substance schedule CI?

a)

LSD

b)

Cocaine

c)

Peyote

d)

Marijuana 86.

86.

Which DEA form is proof of receipt of controlled drug substance schedule CII's?

a)

DEA 41

b)

DEA 106

c)

DEA 222

d)

DEA 224

87.

Which drug does not require refrigeration?

a)

Xalatan

b)

Insulin

c)

Miacalcin

d)

Tobrex

88.

How any milliliters of 70% alcohol should be mixed with a 10% alcohol solution to make 4500 ml of a 30% alcohol solution?

a)

500 ml

b)

1000 ml

c)

1500 ml 

d)

2500 ml

89.

Which doctor DEA number is correct?

a)

AS5485481

b)

BS6322684

c)

AB8236547

d)

BS2546987

90.

Which doctor DEA number is correct?

a)

BJ1564987

b)

AJ2154872

c)

BJ3889156

d)

AJ2145877

91.

91. Which of the following drugs is a generic name?

a)

Keflex

b)

Voltaren

c)

Cefprozil 

d)

Dilantin

92.

Milk or diary products should not be taken with which of the following antibiotics?

a)

Amoxicillin

b)

Tetracycline

c)

Cefaclor

d)

Bactrim

93.

A pharmacy technician may perform which of the following duties?

a)

Counsel patients on drug-to-drug interactions

b)

Receive and input a CII prescription

c)

Advise a patient on what drug would be best used for a ring worm infection 

d)

Counsel a patient on what drugs can be used during pregnancy

94.

When using a 150 mg/ml solution, what volume would be

needed to give a dose of 0.0750 gm?

a)

0.5 ml

b)

1 ml

c)

25 ml 

d)

2 ml

95.

Which of the following drugs is a COX-2 inhibitor that is used to treat osteoarthritis?

a)

Zolpidem

b)

Megestrol Acetate

c)

Celecoxib 

d)

Lindane

96.

 Label instructions for Furosemide call for the addition of 9 mL of water to make 10 mL of reconstituted liquid such that each 5 mL contains 100 mg of Furosemide.

How much volume is occupied by the dry powder?

a)

1 ml

b)

5 ml

c)

14 ml 

d)

100 ml

97.

From the previous question (each 5 mL contains 100 mg of Furosemide.),

what is the total amount of Furosemide in the 10 mL product?

a)

2 mg

b)

200 mg

c)

100 mg 

d)

5 mg

98.

Using the answer from the previous question, if a doctor orders a furosemide concentration of 75 mg/5 mL (rather than 100 mg/5 mL), how many milliliters of water should be added to the dry powder?

a)

2 ml

b)

5 ml

c)

7.4 ml 

d)

12.33 ml

99.

Loperamide is a/an

a)

Laxative

b)

Antitussive

c)

Antidiarrheal agent 

d)

Antihistamine

100.

How much would 54 tablets of Ferrous Sulfate 325mg cost

if a 1000 tablets cost $15.30?

a)

$1.16

b)

$2.54

c)

$8.36

d)

$0.83

101.

Ferrous Sulfate 325 mg is equivalent to how many grains:

a)

2 grains

b)

5 grains

c)

7 grains 

d)

10 grains

102.

How is Byetta stored?

a)

In the refrigerator

b)

Locked up with the CII drugs

c)

With the liquids 

d)

At room temperature

103.

Grinding a substance into a very fine powder is a process called

a)

levigation

b)

trituration

c)

emulsion 

d)

effervescent

104.

Vicodin is in which controlled drug substance schedule?

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III 

d)

Schedule IV

105.

Oxycontin is in which controlled drug substance schedule?

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III 

d)

Schedule IV

106.

 Heroin is in which controlled drug substance schedule?

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III

d)

Schedule IV

107.

Turnover rate refers to:

a)

The amount of inventory being replaced in a specific amount of time

b)

How quickly medication is going out-of-date

c)

On average how much time it will take medication to go out-of-date 

d)

None of the above

108.

Which document would be used as proof of receipt of a CIII controlled substance?

a)

 Blue copy of a 222 form

b)

Green copy of a 222 form

c)

Commercial invoice 

d)

Control inventory report

109.

 In a situation where state and federal law conflict, which

law should take precedence?

a)

Shortest time period for record retention

b)

Longest time period for record retention

c)

Follow state law

d)

Follow federal law

110.

A patient that is allergic to both Amoxicillin and Cephalexin would

be said to have what type of reaction?

a)

Allergic reaction

b)

This is the side effects of the medications

c)

Hypersensitivity reaction 

d)

Cross-sensitivity reaction

111.

What is the filter size of a filter needle?

a)

5 micron

b)

2 micron

c)

1 micron

d)

7 micron

112.

Which of the following is not true regarding a doctors DEA number?

a)

Needed on all prescriptions

b)

Is coded to prevent forgery

c)

Is needed for controlled substances

d)

Is specific for each doctor

113.

To what governmental agency should adverse drug reactions

and outcomes be reported to?

a)

DEA

b)

FDA

c)

DPS 

d)

AMA

114.

Maintaining patient's profiles is extremely important and is usually done by:

a)

Secondary agency

b)

Insurance agencies

c)

Filing system 

d)

Daily back-up tape

115.

 Restoril is used for:

a)

Leg cramps

b)

Itching

c)

Fever 

d)

Insomnia

116.

Restoril is classified as a:

a)

OTC medication

b)

Non-controlled drug substance

c)

Drug that requires a package insert

d)

Controlled drug substance schedule IV

117.

A prescription is written for Robitussin-AC, 1 teaspoonful

by mouth every 6 hours with a quantity of  240 ml.

How many days will this medication last if taken as directed?

a)

6 days

b)

10 days

c)

12 days

d)

14 days

118.

Which of the following are fat soluble vitamins?

a)

A, D, E and K

b)

A, B, E and K

c)

B, C, D and E 

d)

A, C, D and E

119.

How is a buccal tablet given?

a)

Under the tongue

b)

Rectally

c)

Between the cheek and gum

d)

Vaginally

120.

Which of the following is not a B vitamin?

a)

Riboflavin

b)

Niacin

c)

Tocopherol 

d)

Cyanocobalamin

121.

Which route of administration can nitroglycerin be given?

a)

Sublingual (under the tongue)

b)

Transdermal patch

c)

Orally 

d)

All of the above

122.

 Which of the following two drugs are classified in the same family?

a)

Claritin and Pseudoephedrine

b)

Atenolol and Tramadol

c)

Lovastatin and Zocor

d)

Amoxicillin and Levaquin

123.

What is the maximum number of refills that can be given for control drug substance schedules CIII - CV by federal law?

a)

One

b)

Five

c)

Six

d)

One year

124.

 How often should Fosamax 70 mg be given?

a)

Every 4 hours

b)

Once daily

c)

Once weekly 

d)

Once monthly

125.

The term PO on a prescription refers to?

a)

How often the medication is to be taken

b)

The route of administration

c)

The time the medication should be taken 

d)

The quantity to be dispensed

126.

A drug that reduces the viscosity of mucus in the lungs and reduces chest congestion is referred to as?

a)

Expectorant

b)

Antihistamine

c)

Antitussive

d)

Antipyretic

127.

Dextromethorphan relieves which symptoms?

a)

Runny nose

b)

Chest congestion

c)

Cough

d)

Headache

128.

Antipyretic is a term that refers to which condition?

a)

Headache

b)

Fever

c)

Sore throat

d)

Nausea and vomiting

129.

Which of the following drugs must be purchased using a DEA 222 form?

a)

Methadone

b)

Percodan

c)

Methylin

d)

All of the above

130.

A drug given directly into the bloodstream is given by which route of administration?

a)

Subcutaneously

b)

Intravenous

c)

Intramuscularly

d)

None of the above

131.

How many numbers are in an NDC number?

a)

5 to 6

b)

7 to 8

c)

9 to 10

d)

10 to 11

132.

How much amoxicillin suspension 200 mg/5 ml is required for a dose of 250 mg?

a)

5ml

b)

6.25ml

c)

10ml

d)

3.125ml

133.

A Prescription is written for Synthroid 50mcg #30, SIG: 1qd. The pharmacy has 0.025 mg tablets in stock. The number of tablets dispensed would be:

a)

30

b)

15

c)

6

d)

60

134.

Which of the following actions should be taken if a technician takes a call from a patient whose child has accidently swallowed a pill found on the floor:

a)

Recommend the child be given a lot of water to flush out the drug

b)

Recommend calling the poison control center

c)

Immediately refer the call to the pharmacist 

d)

Recommend the patient go to the emergency room

135.

Phenobarbital has a recommended storage temperature of_____.

a)

 -20 degrees C to -10 degrees C

(-4 degrees F to

14 degrees F)

b)

15 degrees C to

30 degrees C

(59 degrees F to 86 degrees F)

c)

30 degrees C to

40 degrees C

(86 degrees F to 104 degrees F)

d)

8 degrees C to

15 degrees C

(46 degrees F to 59 degrees F)

136.

If an insurance company will pay for a 30 day supply

and the prescription reads“ j-ji q 6-8 h,"

what is the maximum number of units that can be dispensed?

a)

240

b)

120

c)

30

d)

360

137.

An IV infusion order is received for Vancomycin 1000 mg in 1000 mL of NS,

to be infused over 90 minutes. What will the flow rate be in mL/min?

a)

2.2 ml/min

b)

5.4 ml/min

c)

11.11 ml/min 

d)

13.25 ml/min

138.

A prescription calls for amoxicillin capsules to be administered 1 q 6h.

The first dose was taken at 10:00 AM.

The patient should take the next two doses at?

a)

2.00 PM and

7.00 PM

b)

5.00 PM and

11.00 PM

c)

4.00 PM and

10.00 PM

d)

10.00 PM and

4.00 AM

139.

Omeprazole is the generic name for:

a)

Demerol

b)

Prilosec

c)

Lopid

d)

Valtrex

140.

Which of the following drugs must be stored in the refrigerator?

a)

Tegretol

b)

Desyrel

c)

Zyprexa 

d)

Xalatan

141.

An administration set that delivers 15 gtt/mL infuses 500 mL D5W over a 12 hour period. What flow rate will be required to deliver the 500 mL?

a)

10.4 gtt/min

b)

5.5 gtt/min

c)

7.8 gtt/min

d)

10.5 gtt/min

142.

How many 500 mg doses are contained in a 100 ml bottle of

250 mg/ 5 mL Amoxicillin suspension?

a)

3

b)

6

c)

10

d)

7

143.

What is the error percentage rate if 15 errors are detected

in the preparation of 250 prescriptions?

a)

2%

b)

10%

c)

6%

d)

25%

144.

Which of the following drugs is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance?

a)

Haldol

b)

Soma

c)

Xanax

d)

Daytrana

145.

 A patient with a sulfa allergy will most likely react to which of the following drugs?

a)

Vicodin

b)

Diflucan

c)

Bactrim

d)

Paxil

146.

Which of the following drugs should be protected from light?

a)

Tambacor

b)

Oxaprozin

c)

Lunesta 

d)

Macrobid

147.

If the recommended dose of a medication is 90 mg/kg/day in two divided doses, what dose would be given to a 40 lb child?

a)

250 mg bid

b)

375 mg bid

c)

875 mg bid

d)

818 mg bid

148.

An otic preparation would be placed in the:

a)

Ear

b)

Eyes

c)

Mouth

d)

Nose

149.

The last two digits of an NDC number represent which of the following?

a)

Manufacturer

b)

Unit package size

c)

Product strength

d)

Dosage form

150.

How many grams would be administered when a drug order

calls for 10 ml of a 20% solution?

a)

200 gm

b)

2 gm

c)

0.2 gm

d)

2 mg

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