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Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 3610secs

Name
Class
Date
1.
What does the Reichstag mean?
a)
German Coin
b)
German State
c)
German Parliament
d)
German currency
2.
The wall street exchange crashed in year…..
a)
1932
b)
1940
c)
1929
d)
1928
3.
The crisis of Germany after the world named as
a)
Dawes
b)
Holocaust
c)
Hyperinflation
d)
None of these
4.
In Nazi Germany 10 years old boy had to enter
a)
Ghettos
b)
Gestapo
c)
Jungvolk
d)
Chambers
5.
Which of the following was the secret state police in Nazi Germany ?
a)
Dawes
b)
Gestapo
c)
Loda
d)
Holocaust
6.
Who was Hjalmark Schacht?
a)
Economist
b)
Chancellor
c)
German Soldier
d)
None of these
7.
What was the name given to mass killings of the Jews under Hitler's regime?
a)
Holocaust
b)
Special Treatment
c)
November Criminal
d)
Gastepo
8.
Germany fought the 'First World War' against…
a)
England
b)
France
c)
Russia
d)
All of these
9.
Who offered the chancellorship to Hitler on 30 January 1933?
a)
Soviet Army
b)
King Kaiser William II
c)
President Hindenburg
d)
Hjalmar Schacht
10.
Who were considered as inferiors and undesirable by Nazi Germany?
a)
Jews
b)
Gypsies
c)
Ryssuians & Poles
d)
All of these
11.
Which Treaty was signed by Germany after its defeat in World War I
a)
Treaty of Constantinopole
b)
Treaty of Versailles
c)
Treaty of Spain
d)
None of these
12.
Who wrote the book Mein Kamph?
a)
Charlotte Beradt
b)
Helmuth
c)
Hinderburg
d)
Adolf Hitler
13.
Name the most infamous film about the jews.
a)
The Eternal Jew
b)
The Inferior Jew
c)
The Dangerous Jew
d)
None of these
14.
Who was the propaganda minister of Hitler?
a)
Adolf Hitler
b)
Maternich
c)
Helmuth
d)
Goebbels
15.
Name the party founded by Adolf Hitlre?
a)
National Socialist German Workers Party
b)
National State Workers Party
c)
National Communist Party of Germany
d)
None of these
16.
Where was the International War Tribunal Setup?
a)
Versailles
b)
Paris
c)
Nuremberg
d)
Rhineland
17.
Which of the following medals awarded to a mother who born 8 or above child?
a)
Gold Medal
b)
Silver Medal
c)
Bronze Medal
d)
All of these
18.
Taking people to the gas chamber was named as
a)
Final Solution
b)
Selection
c)
Evacuation
d)
Disinfections
19.
Who were termed as November Criminals?
a)
Socialists
b)
Communists
c)
Democrats
d)
All of these
20.
A part of the city, where the Jews lived eg. Lodz and Warsaw. It became site of extreme misery and poverty.
a)
Gestapo
b)
Chambers
c)
Ghetto
d)
Dawes
21.

Which of the following is not a feature of Election system in India?

a)

Universal Adult Franchise

b)

Secret Voting

c)

Reservation of seats in the legislature for the members of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

d)

Communal Electorate

22.

Elections in India for Parliament and State Legislatures are conducted by

a)

President

b)

Prime Minister

c)

Governor

d)

Election Commission of India

23.

Members of Election Commission are appointed by

a)

President of India

b)

Prime Minister of India

c)

Elected by the people

d)

Chief Justice of India

24.

By-Election is the election which is held

a)

directly

b)

indirectly

c)

to fill up a vacancy in the legislature

d)

when a legislature is dissolved before the expiry of its normal term.

25.

In Democracy Elections are important because

a)

The formation of government becomes easy

b)

They help in the formation of opposition party

c)

They are a check on the working of the government

d)

All of the above

26.

Following is a weakness (challenge to) Indian election system:

a)

Secret Ballot

b)

Use of Electronic Voting Machines

c)

Misuse of Official Machinery

d)

Universal Adult Franchise(UAE)

27.

How many Lok Sabha constituencies are there in India?

a)

263

b)

548

c)

316

d)

543

28.

How many seats did Lok Dal and it's partners won?

a)

63

b)

76

c)

90

d)

60

29.

The slogan Save Democracy was given by which party?

a)

Congress

b)

Telugu Desam Party

c)

Lok Dal

d)

Janta Party

30.

When was the slogan Garibi Hatao was given by Congress?

a)

Lok Sabha Elections of 1785.

b)

State assembly elections of 1783.

c)

Lok Sabha Elections of 1971.

d)

Lok Sabha Elections of 2015.

31.

How many seats are reserved for the SCs and STs?

a)

74 for SCs and 86 for STs.

b)

56 for SCs and 62 for STs.

c)

89 for SCs and 78 for STs.

d)

84 for SCs and 47 for STs.

32.

What is the minimum age to contest the elections in India?

a)

18

b)

22

c)

25

d)

29

33.

The slogan Land to the tiller was given by which party and when?

a)

Congress in 1971

b)

The Left Front in 1977

c)

Janta Party in 1987

d)

Telugu Desam Party in 1983.

34.

The number of Lok Sabha constituencies in Uttar Pradesh is

a)

80

b)

82

c)

84

d)

90

35.

The number of Lok Sabha constituencies in Delhi is

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

7

36.
The President of India is the 
a)
head of the state
b)
head of the government
37.
The Mandal Commission was appointed to identify the 
a)
scheduled castes and tribes
b)
other backward classes
38.
The Prime Minister who implemented the Mandal Commission was
a)
Mr. V. P Singh
b)
Mr. P.V. Narasimha Rao
39.
The institution that implements decisions and policies of the land is the 
a)
Legislature
b)
Executive
40.
The outcome of the Indira Sawhney and others Vs the Government of India case was the
a)
withdrawal of the Mandal Commission
b)
Supreme Court's support given to the Mandal Commission.
41.
A national assembly of elected representatives is called the
a)
Legislature
b)
Executive
42.
The Rajya Sabha can delay the money bill by ________ days or suggest changes in it.
a)
30
b)
14
43.
This house is a permanent house and thus can never get dissolved.
a)
Rajya Sabha
b)
Lok Sabha
44.
The government is also referred to as the 
a)
Prime Minister
b)
Executive
45.
The permanent executive is less powerful than the political executive 
a)
False
b)
True
46.
The Council of Ministers includes the cabinet ministers
a)
False, they are an exclusive bunch of ministers.
b)
True, they are a part of the Council of Ministers.
47.
The President can appoint a PM when no party or coalition gets a majority in the Lok Sabha.
a)
True
b)
False
48.
The highest court of appeal in India is the 
a)
Supreme Court
b)
High Court
49.
An impeachment motion involves the removal of 
a)
judges only
b)
judges as well the President of the country
50.

Judicial Review involves the

a)

declaration of any law of the legislature as invalid.

b)

protection of the poeple as guardians of the Constitution.

51.

What is the government formed by an alliance of two or more political parties called?

a)

Cooperation Government

b)

Coalition Government

c)

Consensus Government

d)

Cooperative Government

52.

What percentage of reservations were given to SEBC?

a)

30%

b)

29%

c)

28%

d)

27%

53.

What is a Public Interest Litigation?

a)

Filing a case in the court in the interest of the public

b)

Reviewing of Supreme Court judgements

c)

Procedure of removal of a judge

d)

None of the above

54.

Who was the head of Mandal Commission?

a)

V.P. Mandal

b)

V.P. Singh

c)

B.P. Mandal

d)

Indira Sawhany

55.

Who exercises more powers in money matters?

a)

Lok Sabha

b)

Rajya Sabha

c)

President

d)

Prime Minister

56.
Which one of the following is not considered as a social indicator of poverty?
a)
Illiteracy level
b)
Lack of access of health care
c)
Inadequate safe drinking water
d)
Ample job opportunities
57.
Which two states considered as the poorest states of India ?
a)
Bihar & Orissa
b)
Punjab & Haryana
c)
Gujrat & M.P.
d)
U.P. & Bihar
58.
Which one of the following is a minimum necessity of a human being ?
a)
Luxury ornaments
b)
Supper Utility Vehicle
c)
Food & Safe drinking water
d)
Internet
59.
NFWP is stand for:
a)
National Federation for Work and Progress
b)
National Forest for Wildlife Protection
c)
National Food and Wheat Processing
d)
National Food for Work Programme
60.
Which organization carries out survey for determining the poverty line?
a)
CSO
b)
NSSO
c)
Planning Commission
d)
None of these
61.
What is the main cause of poverty in India?
a)
High income inequalities
b)
Less job opportunities
c)
High growth in population
d)
All of these
62.
Nutritional level of food energy is expressed in the form of
a)
Wheat consumption
b)
Rice consumption per day
c)
Calories per day
d)
none of the above
63.
Who advocated that India would be truly independent only when the poorest of its people become free of human suffering ?
a)
Mahatma Gandhi
b)
Indira Gandhi
c)
Jawahar lal Nehru
d)
Subhash Chandra Bose
64.
Which of the following programmes was launched in the year 2000?
a)
National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
b)
Prime Minister Rojgar Yojana
c)
Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojna
d)
Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana
65.
Which scheme was started in 1993 to create self-employment opportunities for educated unemployed youth in rural areas and small towns?
a)
Prime Minister Rojgar Yojana
b)
National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
c)
Rural Employment Generation Programme
d)
Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana
66.
What are accepted average calories required in India in urban areas?
a)
2400
b)
2100
c)
2200
d)
2300
67.
For how many days MNREGA provides employment?
a)
70
b)
80
c)
90
d)
100
68.
The calorie requirement is higher in the rural areas because:
a)
they do not enjoy as much as people in the urban areas.
b)
food items are expensive.
c)
they are engaged in mental work.
d)
people are engaged in physical labour.
69.
Which of the following is an indicator of poverty in India?
a)
Income level
b)
Illiteracy level
c)
Employment level
d)
All of these
70.
What is the full form of MNREGA?
a)
Mhatma Gandhi New Role in Government for All
b)
Mahatma Gandhi Employment Rural Generation Act
c)
Mahatma Gandhi Rural Employment Guarantee Act
d)
Mahatma Gandhi Reduction Employment Guarantee Act
71.
Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana was launched in
a)
1995
b)
1999
c)
2000
d)
2001
72.
Which program was launched with the aim to create self-employment opportunities in rural areas and small towns.
a)
Pradhan Mantri Rozgar Yojana
b)
Pradham Mantri Gramodaya Yojana
c)
Rural Employment Generation Programme
d)
Antyodaya Anna Yojana
73.
Which one of the following is a cause of extreme poverty in India?
a)
Population
b)
Lack of Industrial Growth
c)
Impacts Colonial Policies
d)
All of these
74.
The current anti-poverty strategy of the government is based on …..
a)
A. Promotion of Economic Growth
b)
B. Anti Poverty Programme
c)
Both A and B
d)
None of these
75.
Who is considered as poorest among the poor?
a)
Women
b)
Elderrly people
c)
Female infants
d)
All of these
76.

________has the largest number of vegetation species in the world.

a)

India

b)

Brazil

c)

Pakistan

77.

The evergreen forests in Brazil are known as______

a)

Lungs of the world

b)

Nose of the world

c)

Hands of the world

78.

True/ False

A greater diversity in wildlife is found in India than any other country in the world

a)

True

b)

False

79.

The Wildlife Protection was in

a)

1972

b)

1978

c)

1989

d)

1971

80.

Identify the animal

a)

Duck

b)

Hen

c)

Dodo

d)

None of the above

81.

Various awareness programs for conservation of Natural Vegetation

a)

Van Mahotsav

b)

Wild life week

c)

Social Forestry

d)

All of the above

82.

A large areas where vegetation, wildlife and environment are conserved to preserve the biological diversity

a)

Wildlife sanctuary

b)

Biosphere Reserve

c)

National Park

d)

All of the above

83.

The place where both natural vegetation and wildlife both are preserved

a)

Wildlife sanctuary

b)

National Park

c)

Biosphere reserve Park

d)

Bird Sanctuary

84.

Ranthambore Tiger Reserve is in

a)

Harayana

b)

Tamil Nadu

c)

Assam

d)

Rajasthan

85.

Which of the following types of vegetation does rubber belong to ?

a)

Tundra

b)

Tidal

c)

Himalayan

d)

Tropical Rain forests

86.

Trees in a Thorn Forest are..

a)

Tall

b)

Dense

c)

Scattered

d)

None of these

87.

Which of the following terms is used to denote animal species of a particular region or period?

a)

Ferm

b)

Flora

c)

Fauna

d)

None of these

88.

Thorny shrubs and scrubs grow in area of

a)

Heavy rainfall

b)

Low rainfall

c)

Moderate rainfall

d)

None of the above

89.

Tropical deciduous forest is also known as ___________.

a)

coniferous

b)

equatorial forest

c)

temperate

d)

monsoon forest

90.

Trees of the Tropical Deciduous Forests shed their leaves in:

a)

Winter

b)

Summer

c)

Monsoon

d)

Autumn

91.
Alpine and Tundra vegetation is found at the height of:
a)
6000 metres
b)
9000 metres
c)
4500 metres
d)
4000 metres
92.
Ebony, mahogany and rosewood trees are grown in which type of the forests?
a)
Coniferous forest
b)
Tropical rainforest
c)
Tropical thorn forest
d)
None of these
93.

Mountain forests are also called ----------------- forests.

a)

Mangrove

b)

thorny forests

c)

Evergreen

d)

Montane

94.

Tropical Deciduous Forests shed their leaves for —

a)

9 — 10 weeks

b)

7 – 8 weeks

c)

6 – 8 weeks

d)

2 – 4 weeks

95.

One important variety of coniferous forests is:

a)

Rosewood

b)

Pine

c)

Teak

d)

Neem

96.

Climate change is defined as a change in the average temperature over a period of at least

a)

300 years

b)

300,000 years

c)

3 decades

d)

3 millions years

97.

Global warming can be misleading because

a)

There is no proof that it is actually happening.

b)

All areas of the Earth are not getting warmer every year.

c)

It isn't Carbon Dioxide that is causing the temperature increase.

d)

It isn't the greenhouse gases that are causing the heat to be trapped.

98.

What are the main greenhouse gases?

a)

carbon dioxide, oxygen, water vapor, nitrous oxide, methane

b)

carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, water vapor, sulfur dioxide

c)

methane, water vapor, carbon dioxide, oxygen

d)

methane, water vapor, carbon dioxide, nitrous oxide

99.

The oceans take in carbon from the atmosphere and over time it

a)

will become stored deep in sediments building reservoirs of carbon

b)

will all get taken in by phytoplankton and destroy the aquatic food chains

c)

will settle at the top of the ocean

d)

will form water vapor

100.

Choose which answer(s) are possible effects of rapid atmosphere warming:

a)

Increased hurricanes and typhoons

b)

Increased diseases

c)

Disastrous forest fires

d)

Starvation of the poorest populations

101.

What is the main reason sea levels are rising rapidly?

a)

melting sea ice

b)

increase of water vapor in atmosphere

c)

melting land ice

d)

increase in floods

102.

What are the biggest source(s) of atmospheric methane?

a)

deforestation

b)

burning fossil fuels

c)

melting permafrost

d)

livestock

103.

Gases in the Earth's troposphere retaining the infrared radiation and warming the Earth is referred to as:

a)

Climate Change

b)

Permafrost Melt

c)

Ozone Depletion

d)

Greenhouse Effect

104.

Where does most nitrous oxide emissions come from?

a)

fertilizers

b)

permafrost

c)

livestock

d)

vehicles

105.

What is the function of the Ozone Layer?

a)

It protects the surface of the Earth from the ultraviolet radiation

b)

It protects the Earth's surface from the infrared radiation

c)

It decreases greenhouse emissions

d)

It builds reservoirs of carbon

106.

Which gas(es) caused the thinning of the Ozone?

a)

CO2

b)

CFC

c)

CH4

d)

CO

107.

What did consumers primarily use this gas for that caused the thinning of the Ozone? Choose all that apply.

a)

gasoline

b)

coolants

c)

aerosols

d)

refrigerants

108.

What are possible effect(s) of the thinning of the Ozone?

a)

cataracts

b)

skin cancer

c)

increased sunburns

d)

destroys phytoplankton

109.

As the troposphere gets warmer, what does this do to the stratosphere? Check all that apply.

a)

Warms the stratosphere

b)

Cools the stratosphere

c)

speeds the ozone repair

d)

slows the ozone repair

110.

If all of the chemicals causing ozone depletion are completely stopped being emitted into the atmosphere, how long will it take for the ozone to recover?

a)

6 years

b)

60 years

c)

600 years

d)

6000 years

111.

Choose the elements that the gas CFC is composed of ? Click all that apply.

a)

carbon

b)

chlorine

c)

fluorine

d)

hydrogen

112.

We have made progress with the depletion of the ozone by not using CFC's according to the Montreal Protocol. What are we doing that is slowing the progress of the ozone depletion down?

a)

growing our populations

b)

increasing our CFC use

c)

human caused climate change

d)

technology use

113.

Choose the following choices that are true regarding Cap and Trade Policies.

a)

There is some proof of success.

b)

There are limits on emissions.

c)

It doesn't have an expensive cost.

d)

It is easy for emitters to cheat.

114.

What are some ways to reduce global emissions?

a)

Use wind turbines

b)

Increase water vapor instead of carbon dioxide.

c)

Use natural gas instead

d)

Solar energy

115.

Choose the three correct climate tipping points:

a)

carbon dioxide levels reach 450 ppm

b)

melting of Arctic sea ice

c)

collapse of Amazon rainforest into Savannah biome

d)

massive release of CO2 from thawing permafrost

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