WorksheetsExam 2- P1 Spring
Total questions: 58
Worksheet time: 2hrs 56mins
After administration of a drug, four pharmacokinetic properties (absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion) determine
the speed of onset of drug action
design treatment regimens
the intensity of the drug’s effect
Side effects of the drugs
duration of action
Characteristics of drugs that affect their movement and availability at sites of action (SATA)
Molecular size
structural features
degree of ionization
Relative lipid solubility of its ionized and nonionized form
Binding to plasma and tissue proteins (including fat)
Which of the followings are the basic mechanisms involved in drug transport across plasma membranes? SATA
Passive diffusion
Facilitated diffusion
active transport
Endocytosis
Phagocytosis
Which of the followings are True about Passive diffusion? SATA
Diffusion occurs down an electrochemical or concentration gradient of the drug
Lipid-soluble drugs penetrate the cell membrane through aqueous channels or pores
Water-soluble drugs move across due to their solubility in the membrane lipid bilayers
Dominates transmembrane movement of most drugs
Need energy
Which of the followings are TRUE about facilitated diffusion? SATA
Use transmembrane carrier proteins
allowing the passage of drugs into the cell based on their concentration or electrochemical gradient
require energy
can be saturated
Which of the followings are true about active transport? SATA
use transmembrane carrier proteins that require input of energy derived from the hydrolysis of ATP
against their electrochemical or concentration gradients
can be saturated
non-selective and may be competitively inhibited by other co-transported substances
An example of active transport mechanism is Na+/K+-ATPase, a target of digoxin for the treatment of heart failure
Which of the followings are true about membrane transporters? SATA
Transporters are membrane proteins
always require energy
usually focus on transporters from two major superfamilies, ABC (ATP binding cassette) and SLC (solute carrier) transporters.
control the influx of essential nutrients and ions, and the efflux of cellular waste, environmental toxins and drugs
Which of the followings are true about ABC transporters?
Rely on ATP hydrolysis to pump their substrates across membranes; function as efflux transporters
Cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator (CFTR): found in the liver, kidney, GIT and blood-brain barrier (BBB); involved in the uptake and efflux of drugs
P-glycoprotein (Pgp, also termed MDR1): involved in the regulation of salt and water on several membranes such as those found on lungs
ABC transporters are expressed on the apical side of intestinal epithelia where they can pump out orally administered drugs
ABC transporters are expressed in polarized tissues: kidney and liver
Which of the followings are False about SLC transporters? SATA
Involved in the uptake of bigs molecules into cells
Best recognized SLC transporters include the serotonin transporter (SERT) and the dopamine transporter (DAT)
Transporters in the SLC superfamily transport diverse ionic and nonionic endogenous compounds and drugs
mostly active transporters
play physiological roles: intestines and kidney: transport neurostransmitters across plasma membranes
Which of the followings are true about drug resistance? SATA
Decreased uptake of drugs is mediated by reduced expression of influx transporters required for entry of drug into cells
Enhanced efflux of hydrophobic drugs can be mediated by increased expression of efflux transporters (e.g., overexpression of P-glycoprotein in tumor cells after exposure to anticancer agents can lead to the pumping out of the drug and development of resistance)
Transporters play critical roles in the development of resistance to anticancer, antiviral and anticonvulsant drugs
Increase in plasma concentrations of a drug based on a decrease in the uptake and/or secretion in clearance organs (e.g., liver and kidney)
Which of the followings are true about mechanisms adverse drug reaction? SATA
Decreased uptake of drugs is mediated by reduced expression of influx transporters required for entry of drug into cells
Increase in plasma concentrations of a drug based on a decrease in the uptake and/or secretion in clearance organs (e.g., liver and kidney)
Increase in plasma concentrations of a drug in toxicological target organs (liver, kidney, brain, etc) due to increased uptake or reduced efflux
Increase in plasma concentrations of an endogenous compound in the target organ due to drug-inhibited efflux of the endogenous compound
T/F: The route of administration is based on the physicochemical properties of drugs (e.g., water or lipid solubility)
TRUE
FALSE
T/F: The route of administration is based on the therapeutic objectives (e.g., desirability of a rapid onset of action or restriction of delivery to a local site)
TRUE
FALSE
Which of the followings are true about enteral route of administration? SATA
include oral and sublingually
advantages: Safest, most common, convenient and economical route
disadvantages: patient compliance, food may affect absorption, always undergo first pass metabolism
advantage of the sublingual route: rapid absorption, bypass GI environment and avoid first pass metabolism by liver
Which of the followings are true about parenteral routes? SATA
include subcutaneous, intramuscular, intravenous and intrathecal.
most common route of administration
Used for drugs that are poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and for treatment of the unconscious patient
advantages: rapid, do not undergo first pass hepatic, high bioavailability, control of delivered dose of drug, decrease risk of infection
disadvantages: irreversible, may be painful
T/F. The rate of absorption of drugs from the SC site is constant and slow to provide a sustained
True
false
Which of the following is true about intramuscular? SATA
Absorption can be modulated to some extent by local heating, massage or exercise
the rate of absorption from the deltoid muscle is faster than the gluteus maximus
slow, constant absorption from IM sites results if the drug is in an water-based solution
example: haloperidol and medroxyprogesterone
T/F. involves the injection of drugs into the spinal subarachnoid space. This route of administration bypasses the blood-brain barrier
true
false
Which of the followings are true about mucus membrane route of administration? SATA
also referred to as topical administration
membranes site include ocular, pulmornary, nasal, rectal and vagina
avoid first pass metabolism by liver
slow absorption
Which of the followings are true about transdermal route of administration? SATA
The skin is a viable route of administration for highly hydrophilic drugs
Absorption of drugs is dependent upon the surface area
Absorption can be enhanced by suspending drug in an oily vehicle and rubbing the preparation into the skin
bypasses first-pass hepatic metabolism
The route is often used for sustained delivery of drugs in patches such as nicotine, scopolamine and estrogen
Which of the followings are true? SATA
absorption:The process of transfer of a drug from its site of administration to the blood stream
For solid dosage forms, it requires the dissolution of the tablet or capsule leading to the release of the drug before absorption
Bioavailability = Quantity of drug reaching systemic circulation/Quantity of drug excretion
bioavailability for drugs administered by the IV route is 100%.
the bioavailability of orally administered drugs is also 100%
Which of the followings are factors influencing absorption of drugs? SATA
pH
blood flow to site of absorption
total surface area available for absorption
contact time at the absorption site
temperature of absorption site
Drug distribution depends on: SATA
cardiac output and regional blood flow
capillary permeability
tissue volume
the degree of binding of drug to plasma and tissue proteins, and fat
the relative hydrophobicity of the drugs
which of the followings are true about drug excretion? SATA
Most drugs and drug metabolites are eliminated from the body through renal and biliary excretion. Some drugs are excreted through the lungs, breast milk and skin
Drugs are eliminated from the body either unchanged or as metabolites
nonpolar compounds are more efficiently eliminated than those with low lipid solubility
Excretion of drugs in breast milk is important because excreted drugs may affect the nursing infant
Excretion from lungs is important mainly for the elimination of anesthetic gases
Which of the followings are true? SATA
Renal excretion of unchanged drug constitutes the major route of elimination for 25-30% of drugs administered to humans
Excretion of drugs and metabolites in the urine involves three distinct processes: glomerular filtration, active tubular secretion and passive tubular reabsorption
glomerular filtration: renal blood flow, glomerular filtration rate and drug binding to plasma proteins determines the amount of drug that enter the tubule
urinary drug concentration increases in the proximal tubule because of passive diffusion, facilitated diffusion
Secretion of drugs into the proximal tubule occurs by two active processes, one for anions (deprotonated forms of weak acids) and another for cations (protonated form of weak bases)
Which of the following is false about distal tubular reabsorption?
Membrane transporters (e.g., SLC and ABC families) located on the distal renal tubule are responsible for the reabsorption of drugs from the tubular lumen back into the systemic circulation
Non-ionized forms of weak acids and bases undergoes active reabsorption
The pH of the urine can be manipulated to increase the ionized form of the drug leading to increased elimination of an undesired drug
Changing the rate of urine flow through the tubules can also affect the rate of drug reabsorption (example in aspirin overdose)
Weak acids can be eliminated by alkalinization of the urine whereas, the elimination of weak bases can be increased by the acidification of the urine (the ion trapping process)
which of the followings are true about biliary excretion? SATA
Transporters present in hepatocytes (e.g., ABC,OAT2, OCT1, NTCP) passively secrete some drugs and metabolites into bile
Ultimately, drugs and metabolites present in the bile are released into the GI tract during the digestive process
Subsequently, drugs and metabolites can be reabsorbed into the body from the intestine and retained in the portal and systemic circulation (‘enterohepatic recycling’)
Drugs such as steroid hormones and digoxin are largely excreted in bile
T/F. clearance = metabolism + excretion/[drug]plasma
True
false
Which of the followings are true about half-life of drug? SATA
Defined as the amount of time it takes for the plasma concentration of a drug to be reduced by 50%
most drugs are eliminated by first-order kinetics (amount of drug that is metabolized and excreted in a given unit of time is directly proportional to the concentration of drug in the systemic circulation at that time)
first order: T1/2 = 0.693 x V/clearance
A increase in drug clearance or decrease in V tends to prolong t1/2
T1/2 must be considered in designing dosing regimen
Which of the followings will increase drug half-life? SATA
age
obesity
Cyp p450 inhibition
Cyp P 450 induction
renal failure
Which of the followings are True about muscarinic receptors? sata
7 transmembrane helix G-protein coupled receptor
located on ganglia of PNS, CNS & autonomic effector organs innervated
by postganglionic parasympathetic nerves
five subtypes; M1-M5
Ligand gated ion channels
located in the peripheral autonomic ganglia, CNS, adrenal medulla,
skeletal muscle, neuromuscular junction
Which of the followings are True about Nicotinic receptor? SATA
Ligand gated ion channels
located in the peripheral autonomic ganglia, CNS, adrenal medulla,
skeletal muscle, neuromuscular junction
2 subtypes [muscle type (NM), neuronal type (NN]
- located on ganglia of PNS, CNS & autonomic effector organs innervated
by postganglionic parasympathetic nerves
7 transmembrane helix G-protein coupled receptor
Which of the followings are true about CNS functions of ACh? SATA
modulation of sleep
wakefulness
- learning, and memory
suppression of pain at the spinal cord level
epilepsy
T/F. Muscarinic receptors are primarily involved as presynaptic heteroreceptors that modulate the release of other neurotransmitters, such as glutamate, whereas Nicotinic presynaptic receptors are primarily autoreceptors that modulate the release of ACh
TRUE
FALSE
Which of the followings are TRUE about muscarinic receptor agonist? SATA
Choline esters (includes ACh, and synthetic esters)
Naturally occurring Alkaloids
Muscarinic agonist are used clinically in the diagnosis of asthma and as miotic agents
(agents that cause pupil constriction).
Common adverse effects of muscarinic agonist including diarrhea, nausea, diaphoresis, urinary urgency, constipation
Which of the followings are choline esters? SATA
Carbachol
bethanechol
Pilocarpine
cevimeline
Which of the followings are true about Carbachol? SATA
has both muscarinic and nicotinic activity
resistant to cholinesterases, thus extends duration of action
use systematically
Pharmacological action: miosis (pupillary constriction) and decrease elevated intraocular pressure (IOP)
üAdverse Effects: corneal clouding, retinal detachment, sweating, flushing, headache, abdominal cramps
Which of the followings are True about pilocarpine? SATA
exhibits muscarinic activity
hydrolyzed by cholinesterases
Pharmacological action: cause rapid miosis and potent stimulator od secretion (sweat, tear, saliva)
Therapeutic use: as a miotic agents (open angle glaucoma) and a sialogue (saliva inducing agent) used to treat xerostomia (dryness of the mouth)
Adverse Effects: sweating, nausea, rhinitis, headache, dizziness, abnormal vision, urinary frequency
Which of the followings are true about drug metabolism? SATA
An active drug may be converted into an inactive drug
An active drug may be converted to an active or toxic metabolite
An inactive prodrug may be converted into an active drug
A drug that cannot undergo excretion may stay in the body and cause side effects
Which of the followings are true about liver in drug metabolism?
SATA
Major organ of drug metabolism for both endogenous chemicals (e.g., cholesterol, steroid hormones, fatty acids and proteins) and drugs
Site of the “First-pass Effect”
Drugs are metabolized by the liver after they enter systemic circulation
Dosing regimens may need to be adjusted to account for metabolism by the liver of some drugs administered orally
Drugs that are inactivated after their first pass through the liver can be administered orally and intravenously
T/F. The kidneys are unable to excrete lipophilic drugs since they can be reabsorbed in the distal convoluted tubules. Consequently, lipophilic drugs must be metabolized by the liver into more polar (hydrophilic) compounds so that they can dissolve in aqueous urine
TRUE
FALSE
Which of the followings are False about phase I metabolism? sata
Are anabolic reactions (e.g., oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis) and the products can be inactivated or more chemically reactive
Convert lipophilic drugs into more polar compounds by introducing or unmasking a polar functional group such as hydroxyl (-OH) or amine (-NH2) groups
May increase, decrease or leave unaltered a drug’s pharmacological activity
Phase I reactions most frequently associated with drug metabolism are catalyzed by the cytochrome (CYP) P450 system (also known as microsomal mixed function oxidases)
all phase I reactions will require further modifications (e.g., under Phase II reactions) prior to excretion
T/F. CYP 450 monooxygenase system is heme proteins and have H+ is supplied by the enzyme NADPH-cytochrome P-450 hydroreductase and its co-factor, NADPH
True
False
Which of the followings are true? SATA
The extensive overlapping substrate specificities by CYPs is a major underlying reason for the predominance of drug-drug interactions
Most active CYPs for drug metabolism are those in the CYP2C, 2D and 3A subfamilies
CYP3A4, the most abundantly expressed in the liver, accounts for the metabolism of over 50% of clinically used drugs
Together, the CYP-450-mediated reactions account for more than 95% of oxidative bio-transformations
Drug oxidation by the CYP-450 system requires: drug, p450 enzyme, molecular oxygen, NAD and NADH
Which of the followings are examples of phase I reaction? SATA
Plasma cholinesterase (e.g., suxamethonium)
Alcohol dehydrogenase (e.g., ethanol, in addition to CYP2E1)
Xanthine oxidase (e.g., 6-mercaptopurine)
Monoamine oxidase (e.g., norepinephrine, serotonin)
sulfate conjugation (e.g., salicylic acid)
Which of the followings are true about phase II reaction? SATA
synthetic reactions and involve conjugation (i.e., attachment of a substituent group) which results in inactive products
Substrates are coupled by transfer enzymes to endogenous metabolites (e.g., glucuronic acid, sulfuric acid, acetic acids, amino acids and glutathione) in reactions that often involve high-energy intermediates
All Phase II reactions occur in the cytosol of the cell with the exception of glucuronidation which takes place in the luminal side of the ER
The catalytic rates of Phase II reactions are significantly slower than for Phase I reactions
In most cases, the conjugation process makes the drug more polar and pharmacologically active
Which of the followings are factors affecting drug metabolism? SATA
Pharmacogenomics
Race and Ethnicity
Age and Gender
Diet and Environment
Disease
Which of the following is false about induction?
Xenobiotics can influence the extent of drug metabolism by activating transcription and expression of genes encoding drug-metabolizing enzymes
Induction or inhibition always increase incidental (a side effect of the drug)
Drugs, environmental pollutants and industrial chemicals can enter hepatocytes and bind to different nuclear receptors: pregnane X receptor (PXR), constitutively active androstane receptor (CAR), aryl hydrocarbon receptor (AhR)
consequences of CYP450 induction include: increase its own metabolism, increase the metabolism of a co-administered drug, production of toxic levels of reactive drug metabolites
Inhibitors of CYP-450 differ in their selectivity towards different isoforms of the enzyme and are classified by their mechanism of action such as competitive and noncompetitive inhibitors
consequences of CYP 450 inhibition includes: SATA
Decreased metabolism of drugs that are metabolized by the inhibited enzyme
Increase metabolism of drugs that are metabolized by the inhibited enzyme
Increase in plasma levels of drugs that are normally inhibited by enzyme
Prolongation of the presence of active drug in the body
Decrease in plasma levels of drugs that are normally inhibited by enzyme
T/F. There are two types of acetylcholinesterase: acetylcholinesterase (AChE) and butyrylcholinesterase (BuChE, AKA pseudocholinesterase). BuChE plays the first role in ACh degradation; the enzyme can hydrolyze ACh at a faster rate than AChE
TRUE
FALSE
Which of the followings are True about Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors? sata
Bind to and inhibit acetylcholinesterase (AChE), preventing hydrolysis of ACh
This increases the concentration of endogenously released ACh in the synaptic cleft. The accumulated ACh subsequently activates nearby cholinergic receptors
Agents in this class are also referred to as indirectly acting ACh receptor antagonists because they generally do not activate receptors directly
few AChE inhibitors have a direct action on cholinergic receptors. eg neostigmine, a quaternary carbamate, not only blocks AChE but also binds to and activates nAChRs at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ)
What are clinical application of Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor? sata
increasing transmission at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ)
increasing parasympathetic tone
increasing central cholinergic activity (e.g., to treat symptoms of AD)
increasing sympathetic tone
Which of the following are True about pharmacological actions and therapeutic uses of AchE inhibitor? sata
Increase the activity of endogenous ACh - use Myasthenia gravis and Eaton-Lambert syndrome
Potentiate parasympathetic actions: Eye (topical application to cornea decrease IOP) and GI (Increase in smooth muscle motility and tone, secretion of gastric acid)
Reverse anticholinergic drug poisoning counteract CNS effects anticholinergic toxicity
Increase central cholinergic activity. Use Cognitive impairment associated with multiple sclerosis and schizophrenia
Which of the followings are reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitors? sata
edrophonium
neostigmine
pyridostigmine
donepezil
isoflurophate
Which of the followings are antimuscarinic agents? SATA
Atropine
scopolamine
Ipratropium
Oxybutynin
Ambenonium
Which of the followings are True about antimuscarinic agents? SATA
Act by binding directly to the agonist site, causing inhibition of all muscarinic function
Are used to produce a parasympatholytic effect in target organs. By blocking normal cholinergic tone, these compounds allow sympathetic responses to predominate
üClinically beneficially (Respiratory tract, urinary tract, GI, eye and heart)
Little or no blockade of nicotinic receptors, so have little or no action at NMJ or autonomic ganglia
Which of the followings are nonselective muscarinic receptor antagonist? SATA
Atropine
Ipratropium
Tiotropium
Benztropine
Oxybutynin
Which of the followings are common adverse effects of antimuscarinic agents? SATA
Blurred vision
Confusion
Mydriasis
Urinary retention
Diarrhea
