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Exam 2- P1 Spring

Total questions: 58

Worksheet time: 2hrs 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

After administration of a drug, four pharmacokinetic properties (absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion) determine

a)

the speed of onset of drug action

b)

design treatment regimens

c)

the intensity of the drug’s effect

d)

Side effects of the drugs

e)

duration of action

2.

Characteristics of drugs that affect their movement and availability at sites of action (SATA)

a)

Molecular size

b)

structural features

c)

degree of ionization

d)

Relative lipid solubility of its ionized and nonionized form

e)

Binding to plasma and tissue proteins (including fat)

3.

Which of the followings are the basic mechanisms involved in drug transport across plasma membranes? SATA

a)

Passive diffusion

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

active transport

d)

Endocytosis

e)

Phagocytosis

4.

Which of the followings are True about Passive diffusion? SATA

a)

Diffusion occurs down an electrochemical or concentration gradient of the drug

b)

Lipid-soluble drugs penetrate the cell membrane through aqueous channels or pores

c)

Water-soluble drugs move across due to their solubility in the membrane lipid bilayers

d)

Dominates transmembrane movement of most drugs

e)

Need energy

5.

Which of the followings are TRUE about facilitated diffusion? SATA

a)

Use transmembrane carrier proteins

b)

allowing the passage of drugs into the cell based on their concentration or electrochemical gradient

c)

require energy

d)

can be saturated

6.

Which of the followings are true about active transport? SATA

a)

use transmembrane carrier proteins that require input of energy derived from the hydrolysis of ATP

b)

against their electrochemical or concentration gradients

c)

can be saturated

d)

non-selective and may be competitively inhibited by other co-transported substances

e)

An example of active transport mechanism is Na+/K+-ATPase, a target of digoxin for the treatment of heart failure

7.

Which of the followings are true about membrane transporters? SATA

a)

Transporters are membrane proteins

b)

always require energy

c)

usually focus on transporters from two major superfamilies, ABC (ATP binding cassette) and SLC (solute carrier) transporters.

d)

control the influx of essential nutrients and ions, and the efflux of cellular waste, environmental toxins and drugs

8.

Which of the followings are true about ABC transporters?

a)

Rely on ATP hydrolysis to pump their substrates across membranes; function as efflux transporters

b)

Cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator (CFTR): found in the liver, kidney, GIT and blood-brain barrier (BBB); involved in the uptake and efflux of drugs

c)

P-glycoprotein (Pgp, also termed MDR1): involved in the regulation of salt and water on several membranes such as those found on lungs

d)

ABC transporters are expressed on the apical side of intestinal epithelia where they can pump out orally administered drugs

e)

ABC transporters are expressed in polarized tissues: kidney and liver

9.

Which of the followings are False about SLC transporters? SATA

a)

Involved in the uptake of bigs molecules into cells

b)

Best recognized SLC transporters include the serotonin transporter (SERT) and the dopamine transporter (DAT)

c)

Transporters in the SLC superfamily transport diverse ionic and nonionic endogenous compounds and drugs

d)

mostly active transporters

e)

play physiological roles: intestines and kidney: transport neurostransmitters across plasma membranes

10.

Which of the followings are true about drug resistance? SATA

a)

Decreased uptake of drugs is mediated by reduced expression of influx transporters required for entry of drug into cells

b)

Enhanced efflux of hydrophobic drugs can be mediated by increased expression of efflux transporters (e.g., overexpression of P-glycoprotein in tumor cells after exposure to anticancer agents can lead to the pumping out of the drug and development of resistance)

c)

Transporters play critical roles in the development of resistance to anticancer, antiviral and anticonvulsant drugs

d)

Increase in plasma concentrations of a drug based on a decrease in the uptake and/or secretion in clearance organs (e.g., liver and kidney)

11.

Which of the followings are true about mechanisms adverse drug reaction? SATA

a)

Decreased uptake of drugs is mediated by reduced expression of influx transporters required for entry of drug into cells

b)

Increase in plasma concentrations of a drug based on a decrease in the uptake and/or secretion in clearance organs (e.g., liver and kidney)

c)

Increase in plasma concentrations of a drug in toxicological target organs (liver, kidney, brain, etc) due to increased uptake or reduced efflux

d)

Increase in plasma concentrations of an endogenous compound in the target organ due to drug-inhibited efflux of the endogenous compound

12.

T/F: The route of administration is based on the physicochemical properties of drugs (e.g., water or lipid solubility)

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

13.

T/F: The route of administration is based on the therapeutic objectives (e.g., desirability of a rapid onset of action or restriction of delivery to a local site)

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

14.

Which of the followings are true about enteral route of administration? SATA

a)

include oral and sublingually

b)

advantages: Safest, most common, convenient and economical route

c)

disadvantages: patient compliance, food may affect absorption, always undergo first pass metabolism

d)

advantage of the sublingual route: rapid absorption, bypass GI environment and avoid first pass metabolism by liver

15.

Which of the followings are true about parenteral routes? SATA

a)

include subcutaneous, intramuscular, intravenous and intrathecal.

b)

most common route of administration

c)

Used for drugs that are poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and for treatment of the unconscious patient

d)

advantages: rapid, do not undergo first pass hepatic, high bioavailability, control of delivered dose of drug, decrease risk of infection

e)

disadvantages: irreversible, may be painful

16.

T/F. The rate of absorption of drugs from the SC site is constant and slow to provide a sustained

a)

True

b)

false

17.

Which of the following is true about intramuscular? SATA

a)

Absorption can be modulated to some extent by local heating, massage or exercise

b)

the rate of absorption from the deltoid muscle is faster than the gluteus maximus

c)

slow, constant absorption from IM sites results if the drug is in an water-based solution

d)

example: haloperidol and medroxyprogesterone

18.

T/F. involves the injection of drugs into the spinal subarachnoid space. This route of administration bypasses the blood-brain barrier

a)

true

b)

false

19.

Which of the followings are true about mucus membrane route of administration? SATA

a)

also referred to as topical administration

b)

membranes site include ocular, pulmornary, nasal, rectal and vagina

c)

avoid first pass metabolism by liver

d)

slow absorption

20.

Which of the followings are true about transdermal route of administration? SATA

a)

The skin is a viable route of administration for highly hydrophilic drugs

b)

Absorption of drugs is dependent upon the surface area

c)

Absorption can be enhanced by suspending drug in an oily vehicle and rubbing the preparation into the skin

d)

bypasses first-pass hepatic metabolism

e)

The route is often used for sustained delivery of drugs in patches such as nicotine, scopolamine and estrogen

21.

Which of the followings are true? SATA

a)

absorption:The process of transfer of a drug from its site of administration to the blood stream

b)

For solid dosage forms, it requires the dissolution of the tablet or capsule leading to the release of the drug before absorption

c)

Bioavailability = Quantity of drug reaching systemic circulation/Quantity of drug excretion

d)

bioavailability for drugs administered by the IV route is 100%.

e)

the bioavailability of orally administered drugs is also 100%

22.

Which of the followings are factors influencing absorption of drugs? SATA

a)

pH

b)

blood flow to site of absorption

c)

total surface area available for absorption

d)

contact time at the absorption site

e)

temperature of absorption site

23.

Drug distribution depends on: SATA

a)

cardiac output and regional blood flow

b)

capillary permeability

c)

tissue volume

d)

the degree of binding of drug to plasma and tissue proteins, and fat

e)

the relative hydrophobicity of the drugs

24.

which of the followings are true about drug excretion? SATA

a)

Most drugs and drug metabolites are eliminated from the body through renal and biliary excretion. Some drugs are excreted through the lungs, breast milk and skin

b)

Drugs are eliminated from the body either unchanged or as metabolites

c)

nonpolar compounds are more efficiently eliminated than those with low lipid solubility

d)

Excretion of drugs in breast milk is important because excreted drugs may affect the nursing infant

e)

Excretion from lungs is important mainly for the elimination of anesthetic gases

25.

Which of the followings are true? SATA

a)

Renal excretion of unchanged drug constitutes the major route of elimination for 25-30% of drugs administered to humans

b)

Excretion of drugs and metabolites in the urine involves three distinct processes: glomerular filtration, active tubular secretion and passive tubular reabsorption

c)

glomerular filtration: renal blood flow, glomerular filtration rate and drug binding to plasma proteins determines the amount of drug that enter the tubule

d)

urinary drug concentration increases in the proximal tubule because of passive diffusion, facilitated diffusion

e)

Secretion of drugs into the proximal tubule occurs by two active processes, one for anions (deprotonated forms of weak acids) and another for cations (protonated form of weak bases)

26.

Which of the following is false about distal tubular reabsorption?

a)

Membrane transporters (e.g., SLC and ABC families) located on the distal renal tubule are responsible for the reabsorption of drugs from the tubular lumen back into the systemic circulation

b)

Non-ionized forms of weak acids and bases undergoes active reabsorption

c)

The pH of the urine can be manipulated to increase the ionized form of the drug leading to increased elimination of an undesired drug

d)

Changing the rate of urine flow through the tubules can also affect the rate of drug reabsorption (example in aspirin overdose)

e)

Weak acids can be eliminated by alkalinization of the urine whereas, the elimination of weak bases can be increased by the acidification of the urine (the ion trapping process)

27.

which of the followings are true about biliary excretion? SATA

a)

Transporters present in hepatocytes (e.g., ABC,OAT2, OCT1, NTCP) passively secrete some drugs and metabolites into bile

b)

Ultimately, drugs and metabolites present in the bile are released into the GI tract during the digestive process

c)

Subsequently, drugs and metabolites can be reabsorbed into the body from the intestine and retained in the portal and systemic circulation (‘enterohepatic recycling’)

d)

Drugs such as steroid hormones and digoxin are largely excreted in bile

28.

T/F. clearance = metabolism + excretion/[drug]plasma

a)

True

b)

false

29.

Which of the followings are true about half-life of drug? SATA

a)

Defined as the amount of time it takes for the plasma concentration of a drug to be reduced by 50%

b)

most drugs are eliminated by first-order kinetics (amount of drug that is metabolized and excreted in a given unit of time is directly proportional to the concentration of drug in the systemic circulation at that time)

c)

first order: T1/2 = 0.693 x V/clearance

d)

A increase in drug clearance or decrease in V tends to prolong t1/2

e)

T1/2 must be considered in designing dosing regimen

30.

Which of the followings will increase drug half-life? SATA

a)

age

b)

obesity

c)

Cyp p450 inhibition

d)

Cyp P 450 induction

e)

renal failure

31.

Which of the followings are True about muscarinic receptors? sata

a)

7 transmembrane helix G-protein coupled receptor

b)

located on ganglia of PNS, CNS & autonomic effector organs innervated    

           by postganglionic parasympathetic nerves

c)

five subtypes; M1-M5

d)

Ligand gated ion channels

e)

located in the peripheral autonomic ganglia, CNS, adrenal medulla,

             skeletal muscle, neuromuscular junction

32.

Which of the followings are True about Nicotinic receptor? SATA

a)

Ligand gated ion channels

b)

located in the peripheral autonomic ganglia, CNS, adrenal medulla,

             skeletal muscle, neuromuscular junction

c)

2 subtypes [muscle type (NM), neuronal type (NN]

d)

- located on ganglia of PNS, CNS & autonomic effector organs innervated    

           by postganglionic parasympathetic nerves

e)

7 transmembrane helix G-protein coupled receptor

33.

Which of the followings are true about CNS functions of ACh? SATA

a)

modulation of sleep

b)

wakefulness

c)

- learning, and memory

d)

suppression of pain at the spinal cord level

e)

epilepsy

34.

T/F. Muscarinic receptors are primarily involved as presynaptic heteroreceptors that modulate the release of other neurotransmitters, such as glutamate, whereas Nicotinic presynaptic receptors are primarily autoreceptors that modulate the release of ACh

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

35.

Which of the followings are TRUE about muscarinic receptor agonist? SATA

a)

Choline esters (includes ACh, and synthetic esters)

b)

Naturally occurring Alkaloids

c)

Muscarinic agonist are used clinically in the diagnosis of asthma and as miotic agents

     (agents that cause pupil constriction).

d)

Common adverse effects of muscarinic agonist including diarrhea, nausea, diaphoresis, urinary urgency, constipation

36.

Which of the followings are choline esters? SATA

a)

Carbachol

b)

bethanechol

c)

Pilocarpine

d)

cevimeline

37.

Which of the followings are true about Carbachol? SATA

a)

has both muscarinic and nicotinic activity

b)

resistant to cholinesterases, thus extends duration of action

c)

use systematically 

d)

Pharmacological action: miosis (pupillary constriction) and decrease elevated intraocular pressure (IOP)

e)

üAdverse Effects: corneal clouding, retinal detachment, sweating, flushing, headache, abdominal cramps

38.

Which of the followings are True about pilocarpine? SATA

a)

exhibits muscarinic activity

b)

hydrolyzed by cholinesterases

c)

Pharmacological action: cause rapid miosis and potent stimulator od secretion (sweat, tear, saliva)

d)

Therapeutic use: as a miotic agents (open angle glaucoma) and a sialogue (saliva inducing agent) used to treat xerostomia (dryness of the mouth)

e)

Adverse Effects: sweating, nausea, rhinitis, headache, dizziness, abnormal vision, urinary frequency

39.

Which of the followings are true about drug metabolism? SATA

a)

An active drug may be converted into an inactive drug

b)

An active drug may be converted to an active or toxic metabolite

c)

An inactive prodrug may be converted into an active drug

d)

A drug that cannot undergo excretion may stay in the body and cause side effects

40.

Which of the followings are true about liver in drug metabolism?

SATA

a)

Major organ of drug metabolism for both endogenous chemicals (e.g., cholesterol, steroid hormones, fatty acids and proteins) and drugs

b)

Site of the “First-pass Effect”

c)

Drugs are metabolized by the liver after they enter systemic circulation

d)

Dosing regimens may need to be adjusted to account for metabolism by the liver of some drugs administered orally

e)

Drugs that are inactivated after their first pass through the liver can be administered orally and intravenously

41.

T/F. The kidneys are unable to excrete lipophilic drugs since they can be reabsorbed in the distal convoluted tubules. Consequently, lipophilic drugs must be metabolized by the liver into more polar (hydrophilic) compounds so that they can dissolve in aqueous urine

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

42.

Which of the followings are False about phase I metabolism? sata

a)

Are anabolic reactions (e.g., oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis) and the products can be inactivated or more chemically reactive

b)

Convert lipophilic drugs into more polar compounds by introducing or unmasking a polar functional group such as hydroxyl (-OH) or amine (-NH2) groups

c)

May increase, decrease or leave unaltered a drug’s pharmacological activity

d)

Phase I reactions most frequently associated with drug metabolism are catalyzed by the cytochrome (CYP) P450 system (also known as microsomal mixed function oxidases)

e)

all phase I reactions will require further modifications (e.g., under Phase II reactions) prior to excretion

43.

T/F. CYP 450 monooxygenase system is heme proteins and have H+ is supplied by the enzyme NADPH-cytochrome P-450 hydroreductase and its co-factor, NADPH

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Which of the followings are true? SATA

a)

The extensive overlapping substrate specificities by CYPs is a major underlying reason for the predominance of drug-drug interactions

b)

Most active CYPs for drug metabolism are those in the CYP2C, 2D and 3A subfamilies

c)

CYP3A4, the most abundantly expressed in the liver, accounts for the metabolism of over 50% of clinically used drugs

d)

Together, the CYP-450-mediated reactions account for more than 95% of oxidative bio-transformations

e)

Drug oxidation by the CYP-450 system requires: drug, p450 enzyme, molecular oxygen, NAD and NADH

45.

Which of the followings are examples of phase I reaction? SATA

a)

Plasma cholinesterase (e.g., suxamethonium)

b)

Alcohol dehydrogenase (e.g., ethanol, in addition to CYP2E1)

c)

Xanthine oxidase (e.g., 6-mercaptopurine)

d)

Monoamine oxidase (e.g., norepinephrine, serotonin)

e)

sulfate conjugation (e.g., salicylic acid)

46.

Which of the followings are true about phase II reaction? SATA

a)

synthetic reactions and involve conjugation (i.e., attachment of a substituent group) which results in inactive products

b)

Substrates are coupled by transfer enzymes to endogenous metabolites (e.g., glucuronic acid, sulfuric acid, acetic acids, amino acids and glutathione) in reactions that often involve high-energy intermediates

c)

All Phase II reactions occur in the cytosol of the cell with the exception of glucuronidation which takes place in the luminal side of the ER

d)

The catalytic rates of Phase II reactions are significantly slower than for Phase I reactions

e)

In most cases, the conjugation process makes the drug more polar and pharmacologically active

47.

Which of the followings are factors affecting drug metabolism? SATA

a)

Pharmacogenomics

b)

Race and Ethnicity

c)

Age and Gender

d)

Diet and Environment

e)

Disease

48.

Which of the following is false about induction?

a)

Xenobiotics can influence the extent of drug metabolism by activating transcription and expression of genes encoding drug-metabolizing enzymes

b)

Induction or inhibition always increase incidental (a side effect of the drug)

c)

Drugs, environmental pollutants and industrial chemicals can enter hepatocytes and bind to different nuclear receptors: pregnane X receptor (PXR), constitutively active androstane receptor (CAR), aryl hydrocarbon receptor (AhR)

d)

consequences of CYP450 induction include: increase its own metabolism, increase the metabolism of a co-administered drug, production of toxic levels of reactive drug metabolites

e)

Inhibitors of CYP-450 differ in their selectivity towards different isoforms of the enzyme and are classified by their mechanism of action such as competitive and noncompetitive inhibitors

49.

consequences of CYP 450 inhibition includes: SATA

a)

Decreased metabolism of drugs that are metabolized by the inhibited enzyme

b)

Increase metabolism of drugs that are metabolized by the inhibited enzyme

c)

Increase in plasma levels of  drugs that are normally inhibited by enzyme

d)

Prolongation of the presence of active drug in the body

e)

Decrease in plasma levels of  drugs that are normally inhibited by enzyme

50.

T/F. There are two types of acetylcholinesterase: acetylcholinesterase (AChE) and butyrylcholinesterase (BuChE, AKA pseudocholinesterase). BuChE plays the first role in ACh degradation; the enzyme can hydrolyze ACh at a faster rate than AChE

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

51.

Which of the followings are True about Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors? sata

a)

Bind to and inhibit acetylcholinesterase (AChE), preventing  hydrolysis of ACh

b)

This increases the concentration of endogenously released ACh in the synaptic cleft. The accumulated ACh subsequently activates nearby cholinergic receptors

c)

Agents in this class are also referred to as indirectly acting ACh receptor antagonists because they generally do not activate receptors directly

d)

few AChE inhibitors have a direct action on cholinergic receptors. eg neostigmine, a quaternary carbamate, not only blocks AChE but also binds to and activates nAChRs at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ)

52.

What are clinical application of Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor? sata

a)

increasing transmission at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ)

b)

increasing parasympathetic tone

c)

increasing central cholinergic activity (e.g., to treat symptoms of AD)

d)

increasing sympathetic tone

53.

Which of the following are True about pharmacological actions and therapeutic uses of AchE inhibitor? sata

a)

Increase the activity of endogenous ACh - use Myasthenia gravis and Eaton-Lambert syndrome

b)

Potentiate parasympathetic actions: Eye (topical application to cornea decrease IOP) and GI (Increase in smooth muscle motility  and tone, secretion of  gastric acid)

c)

Reverse anticholinergic drug poisoning counteract CNS effects anticholinergic toxicity

d)

Increase central cholinergic activity. Use Cognitive impairment associated with multiple sclerosis and schizophrenia

54.

Which of the followings are reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitors? sata

a)

edrophonium

b)

neostigmine

c)

pyridostigmine

d)

donepezil

e)

isoflurophate

55.

Which of the followings are antimuscarinic agents? SATA

a)

Atropine

b)

scopolamine

c)

Ipratropium

d)

Oxybutynin

e)

Ambenonium

56.

Which of the followings are True about antimuscarinic agents? SATA

a)

Act by binding directly to the agonist site, causing inhibition of all muscarinic function

b)

Are used to produce a parasympatholytic effect in target organs. By blocking normal cholinergic tone, these compounds allow sympathetic responses to predominate

c)

üClinically beneficially (Respiratory tract, urinary tract, GI, eye and heart)

d)

Little or no blockade of nicotinic receptors, so have little or no action at NMJ or autonomic ganglia

57.

Which of the followings are nonselective muscarinic receptor antagonist? SATA

a)

Atropine

b)

Ipratropium

c)

Tiotropium

d)

Benztropine

e)

Oxybutynin

58.

Which of the followings are common adverse effects of antimuscarinic agents? SATA

a)

Blurred vision

b)

Confusion

c)

Mydriasis

d)

Urinary retention

e)

Diarrhea