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Assessment 2

Total questions: 128

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Sclerotome forms

a)

The skeletal muscles of the body

b)

The Vertebrate, ribs and parts of skull

c)

Urinary organ like kidney

d)

The dermis of the skin

2.

All of the following are true about synapses except?

a)

Chemical synapses more common than electrical synapses

b)

Electrical synapses cause bidirectional, quick transmission that do not integrate information

c)

Chemical synapses use neurotransmitters & cause unidirectional transmission

d)

Presence of synaptic cleft & delay in chemical synapses

e)

Chemical synapses are always excitatory

3.

Cell is the building block of any organism and this has been demonstrated by renowned scientist. Among the following who is the first one to recognize this?

a)

Louis Pasteur

b)

John Needham

c)

Robert Hooke

d)

Agostin Bassi

4.

An immediate available energy source in muscle is:

a)

Oxidative phosphorylation

b)

Krebs cycle

c)

Glycolysis

d)

Creatine phosphate

5.

All are elevation from the bone except

a)

Epicondyle

b)

Malleolus

c)

Protuberance

d)

Foramen

e)

None

6.

Mycoplasma is different from other bacteria since it lacks an organelle that is found in other bacteria. Which organelle is lacking?

a)

Cell membrane

b)

Cell wall

c)

Chromosome

d)

Ribosome

7.

Which one is common to Down syndrome, Turner syndrome and Patau Syndrome?

a)

Short stature

b)

Congenital heart disease

c)

Mental retardation

d)

Thick skin fold

8.

The epiblast

a)

Is formed during the third week of development

b)

It forms the roof of the amniotic cavity

c)

It differentiates directly or indirectly in to ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm

d)

It is the inner layer of cells in an early embryo.

9.

Repetitive stimulation of a skeletal muscle fiber will cause an increase in contractile strength due to an increase in which of the following?

a)

The magnitude of the end-plate potential

b)

The number of muscle myofibrils generating tension

c)

The velocity of muscle contraction

d)

The concentration of calcium in the sarcoplasm

10.

All happen during seventeen to twenty weeks of fetal period except

a)

Brown fat forms

b)

Quickening is commonly felt by the mother

c)

The skin is covered with vernix caseosa

d)

The secretory epithelial cells in the interalveolar walls of the lung have begun to secrete surfactant

11.

What makes Doppler study different from conventional Ultrasonography?

a)

Audibility

b)

Color coding of moving cells

c)

Spectral analysis of motion

d)

All

12.

Pick the benign neoplasm among the following list of neoplasms

a)

Neuroblastoma

b)

Osteoblastoma

c)

Medulloblastoma

d)

Nephroblastoma

13.

Glands usually associated with the skin of the genitals and the axillary region are known as

a)

Sebaceous glands

b)

Apocrine glands

c)

Eccrine glands

d)

Errector pili glands

14.

Which choronic villi develops at the end of the second week of human development

a)

Tertiary chorionic villi

b)

Primary chorionic villi

c)

Secondary

15.

This is the opening in the fetal heart that allows blood to move directly from the right to the left atrium

a)

Foramen ovale

b)

Umbilical vein

c)

Umbilical artery

d)

Pulmonary bypass

16.

All are correct about the amniotic fluid except

a)

It is large component is water

b)

It is secreted from the fetal respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts

c)

One of the causes for low amniotic fluid is esophageal atresia

d)

It helps muscular development in the limbs

17.

Identify the correct statement about relative refractory period of a neuron

a)

The period of time at which Na inactivation gate will re-open

b)

Is period during which strong stimulus does not cause another action potential

c)

The period of time at which Na inactivation gate will not re-open

d)

Second action potential can never be elicited even with suprathreshold stimulus

e)

All of the above

18.

The first system that start to function is

a)

The endocrine system

b)

The cardiovascular system

c)

The respiratory system

d)

The nervous system

19.

The two subtypes of cholinergic receptors are

a)

Nicotinic and dopaminergic

b)

Dopaminergic and muscarinic

c)

Adrenergic and nicotinic

d)

Nicotinic and muscarinic

20.

Which one of the following chemicals is causally strongly associated with hepatocellular carcinoma?

a)

Aflatoxin

b)

Benzene

c)

Mercury

d)

Asbestos

21.

Persons with mild cognitive impairments who smoke may experience a worsening of symptoms if they stop smoking. This worsening of symptoms is because nicotine acts as an agonist for receptors of a particular neurotransmitter. That neurotransmitter is

a)

Dopamine

b)

Nitric oxide

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Serotonin

22.

Which one is incorrect about the Placenta?

a)

It secretes hCG hormone

b)

The umbilical cord usually attaches to the maternal surface of the placenta

c)

Its fetal part develops from the chorionic sac

d)

Maternal Surface of the Placenta has cotyledons

23.

Which sequence best describes the events in action potential?

a)

Depolarization__ hyperpolarization __repolarization__Polarization

b)

Polarization__depolarization__hyperpolarization___repolarization

c)

Depolarization__repolarization__Polarization___hyperpolarization

d)

Polarization__depolarization__repolarization___hyperpolarization

e)

Polarization__hyperpolarization__depolarization___repolarization

24.

Which of these results from stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptors?

a)

Decreased heart rate

b)

Dilation of bronchioles

c)

Sweat gland secretion

d)

Constriction of blood vessels

25.

Necrosis

a)

Coagulative necrosis occurs in the brain

b)

. Liquifactive necrosis occurs in response to ischemia in tissues other than the brain

c)

Caseous necrosis occurs due to tuberculosis infection

26.

A process mainly via myosin regulates muscle contraction-relaxation phases in __________

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Both skeletal and cardiac

c)

Both in smooth and cardiac

d)

Smooth muscle

27.

As cells progress from the deeper portion of the epidermis towards the surface

a)

They divide continually by meiosis

b)

They divide continually by mitosis

c)

They become dermal cells

d)

They become dermal cells

e)

They become dermal cells

28.

Early separation of embryonic blastomeres results in MZ twins with

a)

Two amnions, two chorions, and one placenta

b)

Two amnions, two chorions, and one placenta

c)

Two amnions, two chorions, and one placenta

d)

Two amnions, two chorions, and one placenta

29.

A single motor neuron and all the skeletal muscle fibers it innervates constitute

a)

A single motor neuron and all the skeletal muscle fibers it innervates constitute

b)

A muscle triad

c)

A muscle triad

d)

A motor unit

30.

Which one of the following types of muscles has the fastest response to single stimulation?

a)

Cardiac and smooth

b)

Smooth

c)

Skeletal

d)

Cardiac

31.

The following pairs are bone cell types with their location. Identify the wrong pair

a)

Osteoblasts - canaliculi

b)

none

c)

Osteocytes - lacunae

d)

Osteogenic cells - endosteum

e)

Osteoclasts - resorption bays

32.

Which one of these is not a function of the blood?

a)

Transport

b)

Heat regulation

c)

Defence

d)

Sensation

33.

The testes and ovaries have begun to descend during

a)

The 20th weeks

b)

The 16th weeks

c)

The 24th weeks

d)

The 26th weeks

34.

The absolute refractory period of a neuron

a)

Is due to the high negative polarity of the inside of the neuron

b)

Occurs only during the depolarization phase

c)

Occurs only during the repolarization phase

d)

Occurs during depolarization and the first part of the repolarization phase

35.

Which of the following neurotransmitters cause mostly EPSP & depolarization of postsynaptic neuron?

a)

Norepinephrine and acetyl choline

b)

Glycine and norepinephrine

c)

GABA and glutamate

d)

Glutamate and aspartate

e)

All of the above

36.

The endplate potential at the neuromuscular junction is the result of increased postsynaptic membrane permeability to

a)

Sodium only

b)

Potassium only

c)

Sodium first, then potassium

d)

Sodium and potassium simultaneously

37.

Features of action potential includes all of the following except?

a)

It has All or None principle

b)

It has non decremental propagation of impulse from the origin

c)

It is always depolarizing

d)

It has refractory period

e)

It has a property of summation

38.

One of the following type of contraction does not produce movement or active resistance

a)

Tonic contraction

b)

Reflexive contraction

c)

Isotonic contractions

d)

Isometric contractions

39.

An example of hypertrophy would be

a)

The uterus during menstruation

b)

The uterus during pregnancy

c)

Breast development at puberty

d)

Liver regeneration after partial hepatectomy

40.

The usual expected date of delivery of a fetus from fertilization is

a)

270 days

b)

280 days

c)

294 days

d)

266 days

41.

Effects of ionising radiation cannot be expressed in which of the following way?

a)

Infertility of the repeatedly affected adults

b)

Skin ulceration of affected individual

c)

On the offsprings of the affected person

d)

Immediate induction of cancer on neonates

42.

Which one is correct about the gametogenesis?

a)

Large amount of primary oocytes form after birth in females

b)

Oogonia enlarge to form primary oocytes before birth

c)

Maturation of oocyte completes if a sperm penetrates the primary oocyte

d)

The process by which spermatogonia are transformed into mature sperm begins before birth

43.

Which one of the following is not true about the structure of secondary bone tissue?

a)

It characteristically shows multiple layers of calcified matrix

b)

Lamellae are organized either parallel to each other or concentrically around a vascular canal

c)

Lacunae with osteocytes are found between the lamellae, interconnected by canaliculi

d)

In each lamella, type I collagen fibers are aligned in parallel and follow a helical course

e)

None

44.

Hair, nails, and the outer layer of the skin are made mostly of a tough waterproof protein called

a)

Elastin

b)

Collagen

c)

Cerumen

d)

Keratin

45.

A 62-year-old male with COPD presents to the emergency room in respiratory distress. The attending physician uses succinylcholine to produce skeletal muscle relaxation prior to tracheal intubation. Soon after infusion of the succinylcholine, the patient develops bradycardia (abnormal slow heart rate).Which of the following drugs would counteract the bradycardia without affecting muscle relaxation?

a)

Atropine

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Curare

d)

Acetylcholine

46.

Absence of the natural hollow structure of organs like trachea due to intrauterine abnormality is termed as

a)

Hypoplasia

b)

Aplasia

c)

Agenesis

d)

None

47.

Which one is NOT correct about the sperm cell?

a)

200 to 600 million sperms are deposited around the external os of the uterus and in the fornix of the vagina during sexual intercourse

b)

The sperms move 2 to 3 mm per minute

c)

Sperms are usually capacitated in the vagina

d)

Sperm move more rapidly in the alkaline environment (uterus) than acidic environment (vagina)

48.

A 22-year-old female takes a diet supplement containing ephedrine. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system by ephedrine causes tachycardia, palpitations, and contraction of the smooth muscle in which of the following?

a)

Arterioles in the skin

b)

Arterioles in the skin

c)

Bronchioles

d)

Pupils

49.

Which one of the bones does not belongs to axial skeleton?

a)

Sternum

b)

Sacrum

c)

Clavicle

d)

Hyoid bone

e)

Vertebral column

50.

All of the following are found in the dermis except

a)

Blood vessels

b)

Nerve endings

c)

Sebaceous glands

d)

Melanocytes

51.

Of the following properties of muscle, one can be defined as the ability to return to its original length when tension is released

a)

Contractility

b)

Elasticity

c)

Excitability

d)

Extensibility

52.

Which of these fibers release norepinephrine?

Select one:

a)

Postganglionic sympathetic fibers in sweat glands

b)

Postganglionic sympathetic fibers in the heart

c)

Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers

d)

Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers

53.

One of the following is false regarding motor unit

Select one:

a)

None

b)

A single muscle fiber can be initiated by more than one motor neuron

c)

A skeletal muscle fiber cannot contract unless it is stimulated by a nerve impulse

d)

A site where motor neuron meets muscle fiber is neuromuscular junction

54.

The initial step in the process of many bacterial infections is adherence of the organism to mucous membranes. The bacterial component that mediates adherence is the

Select one:

a)

Nucleoid

b)

Peptidoglycan

c)

Pili

d)

Lipid A

55.

Which of these is not a characteristic of synaptic potentials?

Select one:

a)

They are all-or-none in amplitude

b)

They are graded in amplitude

c)

They are produced by chemically regulated gates.

d)

They are produced in dendrites and cell bodies

e)

They decrease in amplitude with distance

56.

Pick the highly likely to be true statement among the following list of facts in neoplasms

Select one:

a)

Areas for homing of tumor cells can easily be predicted

b)

Almost all mutated cancer antigens are immunogenic !

c)

All neoplasms have one or more RNA or DNA viruses as causative agents and a cancer can be eradicated by treating the viral infection which induced the transformation

d)

Metastasis can occur in the absence of invasion

57.

Which of the following structures in the hair would contain keratinized cuboidal cells?

Select one:

a)

Cuticle

b)

Shaft

c)

Cortex

d)

Medulla

58.

Muscles that are best suited for brief high-intensity exercise would contain which of the following types of fibers?

Select one:

a)

A mix of few glycolytic (white) and more fast twitch (red)

b)

Mostly slow-twitch oxidative (red)

c)

A mix of slow twitch (red) and fast twitch (red)

d)

Mostly glycolytic (white)

59.

Similarities between smooth and cardiac muscle include which of the following?

Select one:

a)

Striated arrangement of the actin and myosin filaments

b)

Ability to contract in the absence of an action potential

c)

Role of myosin kinase in muscle contraction

d)

Presence of a T tubule

60.

Which on repeated exams could induce malignancy?

Select one:

a)

Doppler study

b)

CT

c)

Conventional Ultrasonography

d)

MRI

61.

Where does the tricuspid valve prevent backflow of blood?

Select one:

a)

From the left ventricle to the left atrium

b)

From the left atrium to the left ventricle

c)

From the right ventricle to the right atrium

d)

From the right atrium to the right ventricle

62.

A 35-year-old woman having an anxiety attack collapses. The physician who arrives on the scene notes that she is hyperventilating and suspects that she is suffering from tetany, a continuous contraction of skeletal muscle fibers caused by an increase in the excitability of nerves and muscle membranes. The increased membrane excitability is caused by which of the following?

Select one:

a)

Depolarization of the nerve and muscle membranes

b)

Decreased release of inhibitory neurotransmitter from nerve terminals

c)

Spontaneous release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

d)

Increased frequency of the action potentials invading nerve terminals

63.

Agents of genetic abnormality as cause of congenital anomaly are

Select one:

a)

Chemicals

b)

Radiation

c)

Viruses

d)

All

64.

Select incorrect about Primitive streak

Select one:

a)

Its appearance is the first sign of gastrulation.

b)

It helps to identify the embryo's Craniocaudal axis

c)

Its reminant forms thoracolumbar teratoma

d)

Formed by epiblast cell

65.

An individual having bluish sclera, rather than the usual white, with associated easily broken tibial bone has this disorder

Select one:

"

a)

Achondroplasia

b)

Osteopetrosis

c)

Marfan syndrome

d)

None

66.

A feature which is not included in Down syndrome is:

Select one:

a)

Cardiac anomaly

b)

Mental retardation

c)

Infertility

d)

Conception during late maternal age

e)

Macroglossia

67.

During tail folding of an embryo, Part of the endodermal germ layer is incorporated into the embryo as the

Select one:

a)

Foregut

b)

Midgut

c)

Hindgut

68.

Glioblastoma is a highly malignant brain tumor with known vasculogenesis/angiogenesis potential: Which one of the following factors is frequently produced by the tumor for this purpose?

Select one:

a)

Insulin-like growth factor

b)

FGF

c)

PDGF

d)

ADH

69.

Some bacteria inherently resistant for broad range of antibiotics and chemicals. Which organelle is more important for such characteristics of the bacteria?

Select one:

a)

Cell wall

b)

Plasmid

c)

Pili

d)

Endospore

70.

One of the following muscle names are named according to muscle fiber orientation and location

Select one:

a)

Levator Scapulae

b)

Pectoralis major

c)

Rectus abdominus

d)

Brachioradialis

71.

Which statement below most closely describes the role of calcium ions in the control of smooth muscle contraction?

Select one:

a)

Binding of calcium ions to regulatory proteins associated with thick filaments, specifically calmodulin activates the enzymatic activity of myosin molecules

b)

A high concentration of calcium ions in the myofilament space is required to maintain muscle in a relaxed state

c)

Calcium ions serve as a direct inhibitor of the interaction of thick and thin filaments

d)

Binding of calcium ions to regulatory proteins on thin filaments removes the inhibition of actin- myosin interaction

72.

The neurotransmitter of preganglionic sympathetic fibers is

Select one:

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Norepinephrine

d)

Dopamine

73.

Testes and ovary are derived from

Select one:

a)

Ectoderm

b)

Intermediate mesoderm

c)

Paraxial mesoderm

d)

Lateral mesoderm

74.

Which of the following disorders is an example of metaplasia?

Select one:

a)

Increased Goblet cells in main stem bronchus of a smoker

b)

Proliferative endometrial glands in a woman on unopposed estrogen

c)

Multinucleated giant cells in a granuloma

d)

None

75.

The following pairs are cartilage types with their main fiber type. Identify the wrong pair

Select one:

a)

Hyaline cartilage - type II collagen fibers

b)

Elastic cartilage - elastic fibers

c)

Fibrocartilage - type I collagen fibers

d)

Fibrocartilage - reticular fibers

e)

None

76.

Under shoot of membrane potential is caused by

Select one:

a)

An outward potassium and an inward Cl current

b)

An outward sodium current

c)

An outward calcium current

d)

An inward potassium current

e)

An inward calcium current

77.

Which one of the following is not bone of the thorax?

Select one:

a)

Ribs

b)

Sternum

c)

Clavicle

d)

Thoracic vertebrae

e)

None

78.

The relaxation of smooth muscle is associated with a reduction in free intracellular calcium ion concentration. The effect of the reduction is

Select one:

a)

Decreased phosphorylation of myosin molecules

b)

Deactivation of the enzymatic activity of the individual actin molecules

c)

Reduced contractile interaction by blocking the active sites of the myosin molecules

d)

Establishment of the actin-myosin interaction

79.

Propranolol is a beta blocker. It would therefore cause

Select one:

a)

Vasodilation

b)

Slowing of the heart rate

c)

Secretion of saliva

d)

Increased blood pressure

80.

In a carcinoma arising from the right upper outer quadrant of a breast; which one of the following is most likely to be involved early?

Select one:

a)

Right inguinal lymph node

b)

Right side of lymph nodes along the internal mammary artery

c)

Right axillary lymph nodes

d)

Right side hilar lymph nodes in the lungs

81.

What is the radiation energy used in fluoroscopy?

Select one:

a)

Radio isotope

b)

Magnetic radio frequency

c)

Sound

d)

X-ray

82.

Skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle all have which of the following in common?

Select one:

a)

All are striated

b)

Their cellular structure is based on repeating sarcomeres

c)

Initiation of contraction requires the binding of calcium ions to actin filaments

d)

The contractile system is based on an enzymatic interaction of actin and myosin

83.

Which one of the following imaging modality does not use ionizing radiation?

Select one:

a)

Conventional radiography

b)

Computed tomography /CT

c)

Ultrasonography

d)

Fluoroscopy

84.

The relaxation of smooth muscle is associated with a reduction in free intracellular calcium ion concentration. The effect of the reduction is

Select one:

"

a)

Reestablishment of the inhibition of the actin-myosin interaction

b)

Decreased phosphorylation of myosin molecules

c)

Deactivation of the enzymatic activity of the individual actin molecules

d)

Reduced contractile interaction by blocking the active sites of the myosin molecules

85.

Which of the following cells are responsible for fighting diseases?

Select one:

a)

White Blood Cells !

b)

Red Blood Cells

c)

Platelets

d)

All

86.

Power stroke phase of skeletal muscle contraction

Select one:

a)

Pulling of the actin molecules by myosin heads towards M line

b)

Due to ATP binding to myosin head

c)

The first conformational change of the myosin head

d)

Activated by the energy stored by ATP cleavage

87.

Choose the incorrect statement about skeletal muscles

Select one:

a)

They cross at least one joint

b)

The more moveable attachment of this muscles are their origin

c)

These muscles only pull but do not push

d)

None

88.

Closure of rostral and caudal neuropore of neural tube occurs during which week of human development

Select one:

a)

The fifth week

b)

The six week

c)

The fourth week

d)

The third week

89.

Vasculogenesis and angiogenesis begins in

Select one:

"

a)

The second week of development

b)

The third week of development

c)

The first week of development

d)

The forth up to eight week of development

90.

Which of the following genes is named 'the Governor' of the genome for its effect in regulating the cell cycle?

Select one:

a)

RAS

b)

P53

c)

MYC

d)

RB

91.

One of the following muscle types is cross striated and involuntary

Select one:

a)

Skeletal

b)

Cardiac

c)

Smooth

d)

None

92.

One of the following regions of a skeletal muscle sarcomere is not affected by contraction.

Select one:

a)

I-band

b)

A-band

c)

H-zone

d)

All

93.

The part of the decidua deep to the conceptus which forms maternal part of placenta is

Select one:

a)

The decidua basalis

b)

The decidua parietalis

c)

The decidua capsularis

94.

Extraembryonic structures are formed during

Select one:

a)

The first week of development

b)

The forth up to eight week of development

c)

The third week of development

d)

The second week of development

95.

Postsynaptic inhibition is produced by

Select one:

a)

Axoaxonic synapses

b)

Depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane

c)

Hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane

d)

Long-term potentiation

96.

Primary bone tissue in adults is found in the following except

Select one:

a)

Near sutures

b)

Tooth sockets

c)

Insertions of some tendons

d)

A fractured bone undergoing repair

e)

None

97.

All happens during the first week development except

Select one:

a)

By the end of first week, blastocyst is completely implanted in the endometrium

b)

Cleavage of the zygote

c)

Blastocytes differentiates in to inner and outer cell masses.

d)

Formation of the blastocyst

98.

Which organelle is lacking in prokaryotic cell?

Select one:

a)

Cell membrane

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Chromosome

d)

Ribosome

99.

Which one of the following is not true about periosteum?

Select one:

a)

Cover external surfaces of bone

b)

Consists of a thick layer of more fibrous, dense connective tissue

c)

Covers trabeculae of bone that project into marrow cavities

d)

The innermost cellular layer of the periosteum contains osteoprogenitor cells, with the potential to divide by mitosis and differentiate into osteoblasts

e)

None

100.

Which factor mostly contributes for maintaining charge difference across the cell membrane (RMP)?

Select one:

a)

Sodium-Potassium Pump

b)

Donnan effect

c)

Electrochemical gradient across the cell membrane

d)

Leakage of more K than Na through resting channels

e)

All of the above

101.

Which of these is not a characteristic of action potentials?

Select one:

a)

Na and K gates open at the same time

b)

The membrane potential reverses polarity during depolarization

c)

They are produced by voltage-regulated gates

d)

They are conducted without decrement

102.

The life threatening feature of Marfan syndrome is exemplified by

Select one:

a)

Atrial septal defect

b)

Kyphosis

c)

Cardiomyopathy

d)

Aortic dissection

103.

Examples of hyperplasia include

Select one:

a)

Glandular epithelium of pubertal breasts

b)

Cardiac enlargement seen in hypertension

c)

Skeletal muscle enlargement with weightlifting

d)

Fatty liver

104.

Which neuroglial cell types form BCSFB and BBB to neurons in the CNS respectively?

Select one:

a)

Ependymal cells and Astrocyte

b)

Microglia and satellite cells

c)

Oligodendrocytes and Ependymal cells

d)

Schwan cells and microglia

105.

Choose the incorrectly matched CT covering of muscle

Select one:

a)

Epimysium - whole muscle

b)

Perimysium - the fascicles

c)

Endomysium - each muscle fiber

d)

None

106.

Which one of the following is the strongest anti-tumor immune response?

Select one:

a)

Cytotoxic T-cell mediated response

b)

Complement mediated tumor response

c)

Antibody mediated tumor cell destruction

d)

Tumor destruction by macrophages

107.

Which type of axonal transport is used to transport enzymes, cytoskeletal components, and new axoplasm down the axon during repair and regeneration of damaged axons?

Select one:

a)

Fast anterograde axonal transport

b)

Retrograde axonal transport

c)

Slow anterograde axonal transport

d)

Motor molecules kinesin and dynein

e)

None of the above

108.

A 59-year-old woman with bilateral glaucoma is treated with drops of the parasympathetic agent pilocarpine. Cholinergic stimulation of the pupil causes which of the following?

Select one:

a)

Inequality of pupil size

b)

Absence of the pupillary response to light

c)

Pupillary dilation

d)

Pupillary constriction

109.

During skeletal and cardiac muscle cells contraction, what happens because of Calcium binding to troponin?

Select one:

a)

Activation of calmodulin

b)

Acetylcholine (ACh) is released

c)

The binding site on actin is uncovered

d)

The cross-bridge disengages from the thin filament

110.

Chorion is formed from

Select one:

a)

The intraembryonic splanchnic mesoderm and the two layers of trophoblast

b)

The extraembryonic splanchnic mesoderm and the two layers of trophoblast

c)

The extraembryonic somatic mesoderm and the two layers of trophoblast

d)

The intraembryonic splanchnic mesoderm and the two layers of trophoblast

111.

All are correct about the gametes except

Select one:

a)

The oocyte is surrounded by the zona pellucida and the corona radiata

b)

The head of the sperm contains nucleus and mitochondria

c)

The oocyte is immotile

d)

The sperm is highly motile

112.

All happens in the organogenetic period except

Select one:

a)

By sixth Week, Auricle forms from auricular hillocks.

b)

By the end of the seventh week, ossification of the bones of the lower limbs has begun.

c)

By the end of the fourth week, the fourth pair of pharyngeal arches are visible

d)

By the end of the eighth week, the embryo has distinct human characteristics

113.

Which one is not the feature of saltatory conduction?

Select one:

a)

Step by step depolarization

b)

Jumping propagation

c)

Occurs in myelinated fibers

d)

Occurs in myelinated fibers

e)

Faster and occurs at Node of ranvier

114.

Regarding smooth muscle, initiation of contraction is due to which of the following mechanisms?

Select one:

a)

K influx

b)

Ca influx

c)

Cl influx

d)

Na influx

115.

The factor most important in producing an isometric contraction is

Select one:

a)

Stimulating while a muscle is under tetanic contraction

b)

Providing a stimulus adequate to activate all motor units

c)

Determining the resting length of the muscle

d)

Keeping the muscle from changing its length

116.

A 16-year-old highly allergic girl who is stung by a bee gives herself a shot of epinephrine prescribed by her physician. Because epinephrine activates B-adrenergic receptors it will relieve the effects of the bee sting by decreasing which of the following?

Select one:

a)

The transport of calcium into skeletal muscle fibers

b)

The contraction of airway smooth muscle

c)

The strength of ventricular muscle contraction

d)

The rate of depolarization in the SA node

117.

Which one of the following conditions does not fulfill the criteria for a definition of a neoplasm?

Select one:

a)

Lipoma

b)

Lymphoma

c)

Hamartoma

d)

Seminoma

118.

Which one of the following is the most accurate description of the structural differences between gram-positive bacteria and gram-negative bacteria?

Select one:

a)

Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer, whereas gram negative bacteria have a thin layer.

b)

Gram-positive bacteria have plasmids, whereas gram-negative bacteria do not.

c)

Gram-positive bacteria form a sex pilus that mediates conjugation, whereas gram-negative bacteria do not.

d)

Gram-positive bacteria have an outer lipid-rich membrane, whereas gram negative bacteria do not.

119.

Which one of the following is a misnomer benign/non-neoplastic /condition related to tuberculoma?

Select one:

a)

Leiomyoma

b)

Granuloma

c)

Hemangioma

d)

Choriostoma

120.

Among the following who is identified Mycobacterium tuberculosis as etiologic agent of tuberculosis?

Select one:

a)

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

b)

Robert Koch

c)

Rudolf Virchow

d)

John Needham

121.

Which of the following is considered enabler of malignancy?

Select one:

a)

Evasion of apoptosis

b)

Genomic instability

c)

Angiogenesis

d)

Altered cellular metabolism

122.

An increase in force of a skeletal muscle contraction can be achieved by

Select one:

a)

Increased extracellular calcium

b)

Recruitment of motor units

c)

Recruitment of muscle fibres

d)

Recruitment of nerve fibres

123.

In the skin, errector pili muscles are found mainly in the

Select one:

a)

Dermis layer

b)

Stratum spinosum

c)

Stratum basale

d)

Stratum corneum

e)

Stratum granulosum

124.

As the strength of a depolarizing stimulus to an axon is increased

Select one:

a)

The speed with which action potentials are conducted increases

b)

The duration of action potentials increases

c)

The amplitude of action potentials increases

d)

The frequency with which action potentials are produced increases

125.

All happens during Twenty-six to Twenty-nine Weeks except

Select one:

a)

The CNS has matured to the stage where it can: Direct rhythmic breathing movements and Control body temperature

b)

A fetus survives with low birth weight exchange

c)

The lungs and pulmonary vasculature have developed sufficiently to provide adequate gas

d)

The eyelids are open

126.

Who showed the epidemiological link of infectious with the source of infection, and proved that physical measures could prevent the transmission of infection?

Select one:

a)

Ignaz Semmerlweis

b)

John Snow

c)

Agostin Bassi

d)

Joseph Lister

127.

The only movable bone of the skull is

Select one:

a)

Maxilla

b)

Mandible

c)

Frontal

d)

Vomer

e)

None

128.

The correct answer is: Mandible

If a boy starts to be clumsy and weak at 6 years of age and becomes wheel chair dependent at 12 yrs. of age. What disorder is likely he has?

Select one:

a)

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

b)

Ricket

c)

Becher muscular dystrophy

d)

Poliomyelitis