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MICRO & PARA PART 2

Total questions: 103

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Klebsiella pneumoniae

I. A primary, opportunistic pathogen with a very large capsule present in the respiratory tract and feces

II. Causes hemorrhagic necrotizing pneumonia which is characterized by a “currant-jelly” sputum

III. Most are methicillin-resistant (MRSE)

IV. Formerly classified as Group D streptococci

a)

I and II

b)

II only

c)

I and III

d)

III and IV

e)

I, II, III, and IV

2.

Which of the following diseases and bacteria are matched up incorrectly?

a)

Cellulitis - Pasteurella multocida

b)

Tularemia - Francisella tularensis

c)

Gastritis - Helicobacter pylori

d)

Lyme Disease - Yersinia pestis

3.

All of the following are transmitted to man by ingestion of undercooked meat. Which of the following vectors is vector transmitted?

a)

Leishmania

b)

Trichinella

c)

Clonorchis

d)

Diphyllobothrium

4.

Microbial killing, involves degranulation, the two types of granules fuse with the phagosome and empty their contents in the process:

a)

Digestion

b)

Ingestion

c)

Adherence

d)

Chemotaxis

5.

Penicillin is effective for this spirochete organism causing syphilis.

a)

Treponema pallidum

b)

Leptospira interrogan

c)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

d)

Mycobacterium leprae

e)

Borrelia burgdorferi

6.

The causative agent of gas gangrene

a)

Clostridium tetani

b)

Clostridium perfringens

c)

Clostridium botulinum

d)

Clostridium difficile

e)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

7.

Penicillin is the DOC for the following infections caused by EXCEPT:

a)

Bacteroides fragilis

b)

Treponema pallidum

c)

Streptococcus pyogenes

d)

Clostridium perfringens

8.

Stimulates T-cells to produce cytokines:

a)

Botulinum toxin

b)

Diphtheria toxin*

c)

Tetanus toxin

d)

Cholera toxin

e)

Toxic shock syndrome toxin

9.

This is an example of a topical agent, which is derived from the combination of benzoic and salicylic acids.

a)

Whitfield’s ointment

b)

Naftifine

c)

Tolnaftate

d)

Haloprogin

e)

Ciclopirox diolamine

10.

Causative agent of undulant fever:

a)

Brucella

b)

Listeria

c)

Legionella

d)

Chlamydia

11.

Large, spore-forming rod, whose capsule is composed of poly-D-glutamate and may cause Wool Sorter’s disease:

a)

Bacillus anthracis

b)

Meningococcus

c)

Gonococcus

d)

Listeria monocytogenes

e)

Clostridium tetani

12.

A gram negative, coma shaped microaerophilic rod that causes enterocolitis and can be cultured in Skirrow’s agar

a)

Vibrio cholerae

b)

Salmonella typhi

c)

Campylobacter jejuni

d)

Shigella dysenteriae

e)

Escherichia coli

13.

Spirochete, which is the causative agent of leptospirosis:

a)

Treponema pallidum

b)

Leptospira interrogans

c)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

d)

Mycobacterium leprae

e)

Borrelia burgdorferi

14.

CASE ANALYSIS: Ceftriaxone is the most effective drug used to treat this facultative, non-lactose fermenting, gram negative rod which can produce H2S.

a)

Vibrio cholerae

b)

Salmonella typhi

c)

Campylobacter jejuni

d)

Shigella dysenteriae

e)

Escherichia coli

15.

Inhibits the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters causing muscle spasms:

a)

Botulinum toxin

b)

Diphtheria toxin

c)

Tetanus toxin

d)

Cholera toxin

e)

Toxic shock syndrome toxin

16.

Stimulates the production of cyclic AMP by adding ADP-ribosome to a G protein:

a)

Botulinum toxin

b)

Diphtheria toxin

c)

Tetanus toxin

d)

Cholera toxin

e)

Toxic shock syndrome toxin

17.

Hansen’s Disease is caused by:

a)

Mycobacterium leprae

b)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

c)

Acinetobacter leprae

d)

Mycoplasma leprae

e)

Toxoplasma gondii

18.

Immune Complex Hypersensitivity:

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

19.

A nonmotile, oxidase-positive, gram-negative cocci, usually in pairs, that is a facultative anaerobe with urethral epithelium in the male:

a)

Gonococcus

b)

Meningococcus

c)

Pneumococcus

d)

Staphylococcus

20.

Pending the results of cultures, meningitis in children 8-10 months of age should be treated with:

a)

Cefotaxime

b)

Pen G

c)

Ampicillin

d)

Tetracycline

21.

In stained smear, it is usually seen in Chinese letter arrangement having metachromatic granules and may infect the respiratory system.

a)

Clostridium tetani

b)

Clostridium perfringens

c)

Clostridium botulinum

d)

Clostridium difficile

e)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

22.

Characterized physiologically by a “sardonic smile”

a)

Clostridium tetani

b)

Clostridium perfringens

c)

Clostridium botulinum

d)

Clostridium difficile

e)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

23.

An immediate and systemic hypersensitivity reaction following exposure of a sensitized individual to the appropriate antigen:

a)

Anaphylaxis

b)

Hay fever

c)

Asthma

d)

Urticaria

e)

Eczema

24.

Spirochete, which is a causative agent of “Lyme disease” and can be treated by Doxycycline for early stage and Pen G for late stages.

a)

Treponema pallidum

b)

Leptospira interrogan

c)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

d)

Mycobacterium leprae

e)

Borrelia burgdorferi

25.

Which among the following is not a cardinal sign of inflammation?

a)

Malor

b)

Tumor

c)

Dolor

d)

Rubor

e)

Calor

26.

Very motile organisms (peritrichous flagella) resulting in swarming colonies in solid media (blood agar)

a)

Proteus

b)

Escherichia

c)

Shigella

d)

Serratia

e)

Citrobacter

27.

The DOC for Treponema pallidum is:

a)

Penicillin G

b)

Tetracycline

c)

Co-trimoxazole

d)

Amphotericin B

e)

Vancomycin

28.

True statement about NEISSERIA:

I. Gram-negative cocci that come in pairs; Individual cocci resemble kidney-shaped

II. Cultured using enriched media like chocolate agar and Thayer Martin agar

III. Oxidase-positive (dark-purple)

a)

I, II, and III

b)

II and III

c)

I and III

d)

I only

e)

II only

29.

An antifungal that inhibits nucleic acid synthesis and has anti-mitotic activity by inhibiting microtubule assembly:

a)

Miconazole

b)

Griseofulvin

c)

Flucytosine

d)

Amphotericin B

e)

Micafungin

30.

Corynebacterium diphtheria

a)

Characterized by Chinese letter characters in Loeffler’s serum media

b)

“Invasive clostridia”

c)

Hemolytic, catalase-positive microorganism that survives at 4C, low pH and high salt concentration

d)

Filamentous bacteria that were once though as a fungi because of its structure

31.

An index that measures the number of individuals who have become ill because of a specific disease within a susceptible to population during a specific period:

a)

Morbidity rate

b)

Prevalence rate

c)

Mortality rate

d)

Replication rate

e)

Droplet rate

32.

Statement about Treponema pallidum is/are correct:

I. Immobilized and killed by arsenic, mercury, and bismuth containing drug

II. Reservoirs are humans and acquired by direct sexual contact, transplacental transfer or through occupational exposure

III. Causes syphilis or “hard chance”

a)

I, II, and III

b)

I and III

c)

II only

d)

I and III

e)

II and III

33.

Which of the following is not true concerning Staphylococcus aureus?

a)

S. aureus is related to inflammation

b)

S. aureus can cause pneumonia

c)

S. aureus can lead to acute bacterial endocarditis

d)

S. aureus does not make coagulase

34.

CASE ANALYSIS: a burn patient developed a wound infection, and a bacteriologic culture of the site indicated a gram-negative rod that was oxidase-positive and produced a blue-green pigment. The organism was relatively resistant to antibiotics but susceptible to ticarcillin, gentamicin, and tobramycin. This organism is likely:

a)

P. aeruginosa

b)

S. marcenscens

c)

K. pneumonia

d)

E. Coli

e)

Treponema pallidum

35.

Effective given orally in Microsporum-induced disease of hair

a)

Nystatin

b)

Griseofulvin

c)

Amphotericin B

d)

Natamycin

e)

Ketoconazole

36.

Facultative gram-negative rods, non-lactose fermenting and may cause enterocolitis (dysentery).

a)

Vibrio cholerae

b)

Salmonella typhi

c)

Campylobacter jejuni

d)

Shigella dysenteriae

e)

Escherichia coli

37.

Which among the following is/are example of GPB, except:

a)

Clostridia

b)

Streptococcus

c)

Neisseria

d)

Staphylococcus

e)

Spore former Bacillus

38.

Correct about Clostridium difficile:

I. Causes antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis due to inadvertent use of antibiotics (clindamycin and cephalosporins)

II. Produces exotoxins A (enterotoxin) and exotoxin B (cytotoxin)

III. Treatment: Metronidazole as the drug of choice and Vancomycin as an alternative

a)

I, II, and III

b)

II and III

c)

I and III

d)

I and II

e)

II only

39.

Causes paralysis by blocking release of acetylcholine:

a)

Botulinum toxin

b)

Diphtheria toxin

c)

Tetanus toxin

d)

Cholera toxin

e)

Toxic shock syndrome toxin

40.

Leptospira interrogans:

I. Tightly-coiled, thin, flexible spirochetes with a hook at its end, actively motile and observed using darkfield microscopy

II. Causes leptospirosis - starts with fever, hemorrhage, and necrosis of liver and kidneys; aseptic meningitis, nephritis, hepatitis with skin, muscle and eye lesions

a)

I and II

b)

I only

c)

II only

d)

Neuter I or II

41.

Anaerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming rods, which is a normal flora of the intestine. It has enterotoxin that causes watery diarrhea and may lead to pseudomembranous colitis.

a)

Clostridium tetani

b)

Clostridium perfringens

c)

Clostridium botulinum

d)

Clostridium difficile

e)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

42.

A toxin that causes scalded skin syndrome, a soft skin and tissue infection:

a)

Toxic shock syndrome toxin - 1

b)

Clumping factor

c)

Exfoliative toxin

d)

Coagulase

e)

Beta-lactamase

43.

Lesions in the oral cavity caused by measles virus are known as:

a)

Koplik’s spot

b)

Peyer’s patches

c)

Rose spots

d)

Rosacea

e)

Varicoses

44.

Which among the following is/are correct about T-cells:

I. Lymphocytes produced in the bone marrow and required maturation in the thymus

II. Form several subclasses with specific functions - Helper T cells and Cytotoxic T cells

III. Source of cell-mediated immunity

a)

I, II, and III

b)

I and II

c)

II and III

d)

I and III

e)

III only

45.

Usually found on the contaminated rice:

a)

Bacillus cereus

b)

Bacillus thuringiensis

c)

Bacillus subtilis

d)

Saccharomyces cerevisiae

e)

Yersinia pestis

46.

Tetracycline may be the DOC for all EXCEPT:

a)

Hospital-acquired PNX due to Klebsiella

b)

Psittacosis

c)

Inclusion conjunctivitis

d)

Lymphogranuloma venereum

47.

The most important and most virulent among the streptococci:

a)

Streptomyces pyogenes

b)

Streptococcus anginosus

c)

Streptomyces agalactiae

d)

Streptococcus Bovis

48.

A causative agent of peptic ulcer:

a)

Bacillus anthracis

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Bordetella pertussis

d)

Helicobacter pylori

e)

Shigella dysenteriae

49.

Streptococcus pneumoniae

I. Also known as “pneumococcus” a diplococci with lancet-shaped

II. Possess polysaccharide capsule identified by Quelling reaction

III. Causes CAP and triad of complications like meningitis, endocarditis and septic arthritis.

a)

I, II, and III

b)

II and III

c)

I and III

d)

I and II

e)

III only

50.

These are potent, low MW protein cell regulators produced transiently and locally by numerous cell types

(a)  

51.

Causes hemorrhagic necrotizing pneumonia which is characterized by a “currant-jelly” sputum:

a)

Klebsiella pneumoniae

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Serratia marcescens

d)

Proteus mirabilis

52.

A Bubonic plague - high fever, painful and enlarged, tender modes (buboes) in the neck, groin or axillae; vomiting, diarrhea then later intravascular coagulation.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

A microbial surface component recognizing adhesive matrix molecule that is responsible for the adherence to fibrinogen and fibrin:

a)

Toxic shock syndrome toxin - 1

b)

Clumping factor

c)

Exfoliative toxin

d)

Coagulase

e)

Beta-lactamase

54.

An object that can harbor and transmit microorganisms

a)

Fomite

b)

Mite

c)

Arthropods

d)

Vector

55.

Escherichia coli, except:

a)

A primary, opportunistic pathogen with a very large capsule present in the respiratory tract and feces

b)

Identified by its “iridescent or metallic sheen”on EMB

c)

A normal intestinal flora

d)

Most common cause of about 90% of UTI especially in females

e)

Frequently associated with “traveller’s diarrhea” sepsis in newborns, meningitis in infants.

56.

The following are found in the cell wall of certain bacteria. Which of the following is exclusively found among fungi?

a)

Chitin

b)

Peptidoglycan

c)

Diaminopimelic acid

d)

Teichoic acid

e)

Nucleus

57.

It involves the natural transfer of antibodies from a mother to an infant; short-term immunity that lasts only if the transmitted antibodies are present:

a)

Naturally acquired active immunity

b)

Naturally acquired passive immunity

c)

Artificially acquired active immunity

d)

Artificially acquired passive immunity

58.

Inhibits protein synthesis by blocking elongation factor-2:

a)

Botulinum toxin

b)

Diphtheria toxin

c)

Tetanus toxin

d)

Cholera toxin

e)

Toxic shock syndrome toxin

59.

Characteristics of Clostridium tetani:

I. Tennis racket-shaped organism usually found in the soil

II. Produces “tetanospasmin”, whose MOA is to block the release of acetylcholine and inhibitory mediators like glycine and GABA leading to seizures/convu lesions

III. Causes tetany or tetanus charactereized by the following signs and symptoms: trismus, risus sardonicus, opisthotonos and spastic paralysis

IV. It is acquired through contaminated soil or sharp objects and in deep wounds

a)

I, II, III, and IV

b)

II and III

c)

I, II, and III

d)

I and III

e)

IV only

60.

The endotoxin of gram-negative bacteria is associated with:

a)

Cell wall

b)

Capsule

c)

Cytoplasmic membrane

d)

Mesosome

e)

Pili

61.

Which of the following microorganisms has not been linked to UTI’s?

a)

Haemophilus

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Klebsiella

d)

Pseudomonas

62.

A branch of biology concerned with dependence of one living organism over another organism, study of parasites

a)

MICROBIOLOGY

b)

PARASITOLOGY

c)

BACTERIOLOGY

d)

VIROLOGY

63.

Only antibody that can pass the placenta:

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgE

e)

IgD

64.

This is a specific staining method for spirochetes:

a)

Giemsa’s stain

b)

Ziehl-neilsen stain

c)

Acid-fast stain

d)

Gram’s stain

65.

Streptococcus agalactiae is classified as:

a)

Group A Streptococci

b)

Group B Streptococci

c)

Group C and G Streptococci

d)

Group D Streptococci

e)

Group E Streptococci

66.

________ condition in which an immune response results in exaggerated on inappropriate reactions that are harmful to the host

a)

HYPERSENSITIVITY

b)

CHEMOTAXIS

c)

OPSONIZATION

67.

It results from vaccination or the introduction of specifically prepared antigens into the body which triggers the formation of antibodies:

a)

Naturally acquired active immunity

b)

Naturally acquired passive immunity

c)

Artificially acquired active immunity

d)

Artificially acquired passive immunity

68.

Which of the following diseases and bacteria are matched up incorrectly?

a)

Treponema pallidum - Syphilis

b)

Yersinia enterocolitica - Diphtheria

c)

Tinea nigra - Cladosporium werneckii

d)

Borrelia burgdorferi - Lyme disease

69.

CASE ANALYSIS: An acid-fast, catalase negative bacillus that can be grown in Lowenstein-Jensen medium and can produce Niacin. It can be treated with Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide and INH.

a)

Treponema pallidum

b)

Leptospira interrogan

c)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

d)

Mycobacterium leprae

e)

Borrelia burgdorferi

70.

Study of Fungi

a)

MYCOLOGY

b)

IMMUNOLOGY

c)

FUNGIOLOGY

d)

MUSHROOMOLOGY

71.

Type IV Hypersensitivity:

I. Cell-mediated hypersensitivity

II. Hypersensitivity

III. Allergy

IV. Delayed hypersensitivity

a)

I and IV

b)

II and III

c)

III and IV

d)

I and III

e)

IV only

72.

The Enterobacteriaceae are commonly known as

a)

Coliforms

b)

Fomite

c)

Necrotizing fasciitis

d)

Gangrene

73.

Dapsone is given for

a)

Erythema nodosum leprosum

b)

Bone marrow depression

c)

Discoloration of the teeth

d)

Vestibular damage

74.

The antifungal antibiotic obtained from Streptomyces noursei

a)

Nystatin

b)

Griseofulvin

c)

Amphotericin B

d)

Natamycin

e)

Ketoconazole

75.

Correct about Staphylococcus aureus, except:

a)

Characterized by Chinese letter characters in Loeffler’s serum media

b)

90% are Beta-lactamase producers, some are MRSA and some are VRSA

c)

Only staph which is coagulase-positive

d)

Only specie that can ferment mannitol

e)

The only one the grows in Mannitol Salt Agar with a golden yellow colony

76.

Pneumonic plague - chest pain, cough, hemoptysis and severe respiratory distress.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Which among the following is TRUE about Bacillus anthracis:

I. Normally found in sheep, goats, cattles, and horses

II. Special capsule containing D-glutamate

III. Medusa-head colonies

a)

I, II, and III

b)

I and III

c)

I and II

d)

II and III

78.

The spirochete that is tightly coiled, thin, and has a hook at its end is

a)

Leptospira

b)

Borrelia

c)

Treponema

d)

Vibrio

79.

Characterized with marked hypotension, and scarlatiniform rash followed by desquamation:

a)

Toxic shock syndrome

b)

Botulism

c)

Cholera

d)

Tetanus

80.

This is an important antifungal agent which inhibits DNA synthesis and is active only on yeasts (candida and cryptococcus)

a)

Miconazole

b)

Griseofulvin

c)

Flucytosine

d)

Amphotericin B

e)

Micafungin

81.

The causative agent of food poisoning from canned good goods.

a)

Clostridium tetani

b)

Clostridium perfringens

c)

Clostridium botulinum

d)

Clostridium difficile

e)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

82.

The first aminoglycoside used for tuberculosis

a)

Streptomycin

b)

Ethambutol

c)

Rifampicin

d)

Ciprofloxacin

e)

Co-trimoxazole

83.

Associated with infection involving plastic devices such as implants and catheters

a)

Staphylococcus epidermidis

b)

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Streptomyces pyogenes

e)

Streptomyces agalactiae

84.

All of the following statement about Yersinia pestis:

I. One of the most virulent bacteria with a striking low ID50 = 1-10 MO

II. Vector transmission via rat flea (Xenopsylla cheopis) and via inhalation

III. Causes “plaque” or “black death”

a)

I, II, and III

b)

II and III

c)

I and III

d)

III only

85.

A spinal fluid specimen from a 28-year-old man shows N. meningitidis. The DOC is:

a)

Pen G

b)

Amikacin

c)

Kanamycin

d)

Ethambutol

e)

Ketoconazole

86.

Causative agent of Bacillary dysentery

a)

Shigella

b)

Pseudomonas

c)

Salmonella

d)

Serratia

e)

Citrobacter

87.

This is the most important agent used for severe systemic mycoses, but is toxic

a)

Nystatin

b)

Griseofulvin

c)

Amphotericin B

d)

Natamycin

e)

Ketoconazole

88.

A halophilic coma shaped, gram negative bacteria

a)

Vibrio cholerae

b)

Salmonella typhi

c)

Campylobacter jejuni

d)

Shigella dysenteriae

e)

Escherichia coli

89.

An acid-fast bacillus that have mycolic acid in its cell wall, which can be seen in a palisade arrangement

a)

Treponema pallidum

b)

Leptospira interrogan

c)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

d)

Mycobacterium leprae

e)

Borrelia burgdorferi

90.

DOTS is a strategy used to reduce the number of tuberculosis (TB) cases. DOTS stands for

a)

Directly Observed Treatment Short-course

b)

Direction of TB Strategy

c)

Directed Off Treatment Strategy

d)

Directly Online TB Short-course

91.

A pentamer immunoglobulin that is produced early in the primary immune response

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgE

e)

IgD

92.

This is an antifungal that acts by inhibiting lanosterol C14-demethylase, an important enzyme in sterol synthesis.

a)

Miconazole

b)

Griseofulvin

c)

Flucytosine

d)

Ampothericin

93.

DOC of Trypanosoma cruzi

a)

Nifurtimox

b)

Ribavirin

c)

Pen G

d)

Streptomycin

e)

Metronidazole

94.

DOC of Lassa Virus

a)

Nifurtimox

b)

Ribavirin

c)

Pen G

d)

Streptomycin

e)

Metronidazole

95.

DOC of Treponema pallidum

a)

Nifurtimox

b)

Ribavirin

c)

Pen G

d)

Streptomycin

e)

Metronidazole

96.

DOC of Yersinia pestis

a)

Nifurtimox

b)

Ribavirin

c)

Pen G

d)

Streptomycin

e)

Metronidazole

97.

DOC of Amoeba

a)

Nifurtimox

b)

Ribavirin

c)

Pen G

d)

Ribavirin

e)

Metronidazole

98.

DOC of Trypanosoma brucei

a)

Suramin sodium

b)

Co-trimoxazole

c)

Doxycycline

d)

Acyclovir

99.

DOC of Nocardia asteroides

a)

Suramin sodium

b)

Co-trimoxazole

c)

Doxycycline

d)

Acyclovir

100.

DOC of Rickettsia

a)

Suramin sodium

b)

Co-trimoxazole

c)

Doxycycline

d)

Acyclovir

101.

DOC of VZV

a)

Suramin sodium

b)

Co-trimoxazole

c)

Doxycycline

d)

Acyclovir

102.

DOC of Vibrio vulnificus

a)

Suramin sodium

b)

Co-trimoxazole

c)

Doxycycline

d)

Acyclovir

103.

Urinary tract infection (UTI), sepsis neonatal meningitis and “traveller’s diarrhea” are the most common disease caused by this gram negative, non-lactose bacilli:

a)

Salmonella typhi

b)

Vibrio cholerae

c)

Campylobacter jejuni

d)

Escherichia coli

e)

Shigella dysenteriae