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Strategic Implementation

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a business plan?

a)

Written document that only outlines the business practices of the new business.

b)

Written document that describes the financial aspects of the business.

c)

Written document that only describes the ownership of the business.

d)

Written document that describes all the steps necessary for opening and operating a successful business.

2.

Why do you need a business plan?

a)

To explain your idea

b)

the ability to get financing.

c)

it's a road map that sets objectives and goals for the business.

d)

To help reduce the risk of business failure.

e)

All of the above.

3.
Looks at likely risks to the business
a)
Contingency Plan
b)
Management Team Plan
c)
Marketing Plan
d)
Industry Overview
4.
A brief account of the key points contained in a business plan
a)
Executive Summary
b)
Company Description
c)
Mission Statement
d)
Vision Statement
5.
The specific aspirations of a company, the major goals it will try to reach.
a)
Vision Statement
b)
Company Description
c)
Mission Statement
d)
Executive Summary
6.

Which of the following is NOT a heading on a business plan?

a)

The staff

b)

The idea

c)

Market research

d)

Advertising campaign examples

e)

Competitors

7.

_______Organization's methods for dealing with emergencies.

a)

Contingency plan

b)

strategic plan

c)

crisis management

d)

strategy

8.

________ :The shared experiences, stories, beliefs and norms that characterize an organization.

a)

Plan

b)

Strategy

c)

Corporate culture

d)

SWOT Analysis

9.

Strategy at the business unit or product-line level, focusing on improving a firm's competitive position.

a)

Corporate strategy

b)

functional strategy

c)

business strategy

d)

product strategy

10.

When management and employees of an organization have different beliefs and values, there is said to be

a)

conflict

b)

An industrial dispute

c)

A culture gap

d)

Corporate diversity

11.

An organization with one dominant decision-making individual or group has what type of culture.

a)

Task culture

b)

Power Culture

c)

Person Culture

d)

Role Culture

12.

exist in organizations where the focus is on getting results from the work done. Individuals and teams are empowered and have some discretion over their responsibilities.

a)

Power cultures

b)

Role cultures

c)

Task cultures

d)

Person cultures

13.

________ is defined as what is considered 'normal' to an organization, such as the way that workers behave within the business.

a)

Rewards

b)

Organizational structure

c)

Culture

d)

Sanctions

14.

This happens because staff are likely to resent changes to the culture that they are used to, perhaps due to fear of the unknown or due to a lack of understanding of the benefits change.

a)

Compromises must be reach

b)

Resistance to change

c)

High cost of training staff and implementing change

d)

National culture clashes/disputes

15.

Which of the following in/are (an) argument(s) in favour of CSR?

a)

Businesses that assist the community in which they operate through CSR programmes receive greater support from the community.

b)

Business must act on social issues in their communities or else customers will move away from the area. E.G. Increased poverty may lead to increased crime which will drive people away.

c)

CSR detracts from the business's core activities.

d)

Businesses that operate in sustainable ways are usually also innovate enough to identify additional avenues of income.

16.

True of False.

The principle of TRANSPARENCY requires that all relevant information about CSR initiatives has to be communicated to stakeholders - even if it is negative.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

What elements are not of a business plan?

a)

Introduction

b)

Management Plan

c)

Insurance Plan

d)

Marketing Plan

e)

Financial Plan

18.
What is a culture clash?
a)
Exists when there is conflict or incompatibility between two or more cultures within an organization, e.g.when two firms integrate via a hostile takeover.
b)
Exists when there is dispute among the shareholders
c)
Exists when two people in a business disagrees with each other; eg manager and employee
d)
Exists when subordinates protest against higher authoirties in command chain
19.
Consequences of organisational culture clashes
a)
Understanding and communication
b)
National integration between employees
c)
High costs of implementing change and training staff
d)
happy staff
e)
Reluctant to change
20.

What are the opposing forces indicated by Force-Field analysis?

a)

For and Against

b)

Refinement and Daring

c)

Driving and Restraining

d)

Pluses and Minuses

e)

Haruka and Yazuka

21.

A disadvantage of Decision Trees is they are...

a)

Easier interpretation of the decision to prevent misunderstandings or confusion.

b)

Easy and straightforward calculations to aid decision-making

c)

Easy accessibility for all users to make rational/scientific decisions

d)

Provides a quantitative tool in decision-making.

e)

Based on estimated figures only and the actual outcomes may well be very different.

22.

Force field analysis is

a)

Not of any use to inward-looking organizations.

b)

Used to examine the reasons for change.

c)

Subjective as weights can be skewed in favour of management preferences.

d)

Useful for examining external factors affecting change.

e)

Deciding how far away to hold your stinky tofu.

23.

A positive organisational culture is one that:

a)

Increases barriers to diversity which may lead to institutionalised bias.

b)

Builds on employee weakness by emphasising and showing workers how they can capitalise on their strengths.

c)

Rewards more than it punishes by articulating praise and ‘catching employees doing something right'.

d)

Emphasises group vitality and growth by helping employees learn and grow in their jobs and careers.

24.

What does the following statement define "the way things are done around here"?

a)

Staff turnover

b)

Supply and Demand

c)

Competition

d)

Culture

25.

Which of the following has the most significant influence on the formation of an organization's culture?

a)

Union representatives and bargaining agreements.

b)

HR policies and procedures.

c)

The organization's approach towards total rewards.

d)

The industry, environment and leaders of the organization.

26.

Which of the following best describes why it is so difficult to change organizational culture?

a)

People are likely to keep their belief system even if data contradicts it.

b)

Senior management will not support changes when a company is performing successfully

c)

It is costly to update all the policies and procedures

d)

Supervisors lack good communication skills

27.

Type of culture in which power is concentrated in hands of one or few:

a)

Person culture.

b)

Task culture.

c)

Power culture.

d)

Role culture.

28.

An advantage of using network analysis in planning complex business projects is that:

a)

Lean production techniques do not need to be used

b)

Resources can be redirected to critical activities

c)

Blame can be apportioned for adverse budget variances

d)

Projects will be completed faster than competitors

29.

Activities on the critical path have:

a)

The shortest durations

b)

Negative float

c)

Positive float

d)

Zero float

30.

An attempt to change the organisational culture of a business will be particularly difficult where:

a)

The influence of the founder remains strong

b)

The business has a low and declining market share

c)

The employees of the business are used to, and embrace change

d)

Employees feel empowered and motivated in their work

31.

Which of the following is NOT one of the five functions of management?

a)

planning

b)

implementing

c)

producing

d)

controlling

32.

A person who is not a manager but is still able to get a group focused and organized is using

a)

Tactical management

b)

Strategic management

c)

Formal influence

d)

Informal influence

33.

The ability to motivate individuals and groups to accomplish important goals is called

a)

Leadership

b)

Management

c)

Human relations

d)

Employment

34.

The business philosophy of continuous improvement in working practices and efficiency is known as:

a)

Just-in-time

b)

Kaizen

c)

Quality assurance

d)

Quality control

35.

Why should you educate your employees about changes you are planning?

a)

If they understand the process, they will enjoy the change a lot more.

b)

If they feel like they are deciding for themselves, they will obey you.

c)

If they feel like you are spending a lot of money to teach them, they will go through with the change.

36.

When making a big change, why is it important to involve people in your planning?

a)

They will feel like the change is partly their idea and be more supportive.

b)

They will think they are going to get a raise.

c)

They will point out all your flaws and get you to rethink the change.

37.

What is the importance of support during the implementation process?

a)

The manager gets feedback on how the employees feel about the change.

b)

The employees get continuous education and become experts on the change.

c)

The executives see that you are involved in managing the change.

38.

Why is it so important to plan and communicate the implementation of the new idea?

a)

People will work harder if it is planned well and communicated.

b)

People are more comfortable with change that is well thought out and they know about in advance.

c)

The executives will believe in the idea more.

39.

When you delegate an assignment, you should make it sound exciting.

Why is this important?

a)

So the person receiving the assignment feels lots of pressure to get it done quick.

b)

So the person receiving the assignment feels important and fortunate.

c)

So the person receiving the assignment feels like they have been well trained.

40.

What do we call the process of carrying out an idea or plan?

a)

Feedback

b)

Implementation

c)

Evaluation

41.

A company’s strategic plan:

a)

links the company’s financial targets to control mechanisms.

b)

maps out the company’s history.

c)

outlines the competitive moves and approaches to be used in achieving the desired business results

d)

All the above

42.

What does the "S" stand for in PESTLE?

a)

Support

b)

Short term

c)

Social

d)

Subsidiary

43.
What is the last step of the Strategic Management Process?
a)
Formulating Strategies
b)
Implementing Strategies
c)
Evaluating Results
d)
Evaluating Weakness
44.
Well-stated objectives are:
a)
quantifiable or measurable, and contain deadlines for achievement.
b)
clear, succinct, and concise so as to identify the company’s risk and return options.
c)
directly related to the dividend payout ratio for stockholder returns.
d)
all of these.
45.

Contingency planning identifies the firm’s main business focus over a long-term period.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

The management of a firm would benefit from having ______ in order to effectively handle various possible unexpected business conditions.

a)

Interpersonal plans

b)

Strategic plans

c)

Tactical management

d)

Contingency plans

47.

MBO stands for---------

a)

Management by objectives

b)

Major basic order

c)

Minimum bearing objectives

d)

Management before order

48.

What is an advantage for centralized organizations?

a)

High cost

b)

Clear chain of command

c)

Increased administration

d)

delays in decision making

49.

Who is the father of the Scientific Management Movement?

a)

Charles Babbage

b)

F.W.Taylor

c)

Harold Koontz

d)

Hentry Fayol

50.

Strategic planning should be connected to the mission and vision of the business.

a)

true

b)

false

51.

According to the expectancy theory, _________________________affect the conscious choices that people make about their motivation

a)

equity, value-added, and instrumentality

b)

valence, expectancy, and instrumentality

c)

expectancy, reinforcement, and instrumentality

d)

expectancy, equity, and reinforcement

e)

instrumentality, equity, and expectancy

52.

Companies may determine standards by ________________.

a)

benchmarking other companies

b)

implementing vertical loading

c)

using outsourcing

d)

taking corrective action

53.

What is a negative tradeoff of Contingency Planning?

a)

Might be a waste of time because the things being planned for may never happen

b)

If an event occurs, the business will be ready and able to react quickly

c)

A business will be able to continue to successfully operate

d)

A business will need to wait and see.

e)

None of the above/answers

54.

True or False. Managers must decides what the key issues to focus on for contingency planning.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Select ALL the factors in choosing key issues for contingency planning:

a)

Perceived likelihood of happening

b)

Likely impact on business if it happens

c)

Costs of planning

d)

None of the above/answers

56.

A fire drill at a school is an example of which of the following:

a)

Contingency plan

b)

Business plan

c)

Strategic drift

d)

Emergent strategy

57.

Low risk tactics for overcoming resistance to change include;

a)

communication, support and threats

b)

participation, support and manipulation

c)

communication only

d)

communication, participation, support and negotiation

58.

Lack of consultation and a negative relationships between employees and management can lead to the change

a)

not being accepted by employees

b)

being accepted by employees

c)

being implemented effectively and efficiently

d)

being implemented effectively but not efficiently

59.

Scoring favourable and unfavourable factors based on influence to make a go/no-go decision is known as conducting a

a)

Favourable Force Analysis

b)

Locke's goal setting

c)

Herzberg two factor theory

d)

Force Field Analysis

60.

A small response to change is referred to as an _____________________ change

a)

impervious

b)

impactful

c)

immediate

d)

incremental

61.

High risk strategies for management to adopt to lead change are

a)

manipulation, coercion, threats and autocratic management

b)

manipulation and communication

c)

manipulation, negotiation and threats

d)

support, negotiation, manipulation and coercion

62.

All of the following are reasons why people may resist change EXCEPT:

a)

monetary gain

b)

fear

c)

poor training

d)

disrupted habits

63.

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be used to overcome resistance to change?

a)

communicate the change

b)

allow participation in the change process

c)

negotiate with resisters

d)

give monetary incentive

64.

A project champion is the individual who

a)

Support change

b)

Opposes change

c)

Initiate change

d)

Helps implement change

65.

A desired or future state of where the organisation will be after a change has been implemented.

a)

Vision for change

b)

Strategic planning

c)

Change management

d)

Change agent

66.

Defining the overall purpose and goal of a business and determining how results will be achieved.

a)

Vision for change

b)

Strategic planning

c)

Change management

d)

Change agent

67.

A professional who provides expert advice in a particular area to a business.

a)

Change agent

b)

Consultant

c)

Professional service

68.

Change management reduces the possibility that unnecessary changes will be introduced to a system without forethought, introducing faults into the system or undoing changes made by other users of the system.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Which is NOT TRUE about Change?

a)

it results of a loss of original identity and form

b)

it means to become different

c)

Change can be controlled all the time

d)

We can manage the impact of change

70.

Resistance can be felt in different forms. Which of these is a cause of resistance to change?

a)

Fear of the unknown

b)

Fear of loss and failure

c)

difficulty in breaking habits

d)

All of the above

71.

A CRISIS MANAGEMENT PLAN (CMP) is a document that

a)

outlines steps on how to deal with organization's profit margin

b)

outlines an organization's social media policy and restrictions

c)

outlines the processes an organization will use to respond to a critical situation that would negatively affect its overall performance

d)

outlines the processes an organization will use to respond to a brand marketing plan and identity

72.

Which of these examples isn't a example of crisis?

a)

Terrorist attacks

b)

Theft

c)

Computer failure

d)

The coffee maker is out of coffee.

73.

"Contingency plans help managers to be better prepared if there is a crisis."

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Which of these leaders is most likely to involve staff in collective decision-making?

a)

an autocratic leader

b)

a democratic leader

c)

a laissez-faire leader

75.

Which of the following is NOT a function of management?

a)

Control

b)

Finance

c)

Organize

d)

Plan