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Genetics

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 2hrs 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
In pea plants, the tall allele is dominant to the short allele. What key would demonstrate this?
a)
Tall = T
Short = S
b)
Tall = T
Short = t
c)
Tall = t
Short = T
d)
Tall = TT
Short = tt
2.
A heterozygous long-tusked elephant is crossed with a homozygous recessive short-tusked elephant. What is the probability of the offspring having short tusks?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
3.
Identify the homozygous dominant genotype:
a)
FF
b)
Ff
c)
ff
4.
Aa, DD, bB, yy are all examples of
a)
genotypes
b)
phenotypes
5.
In a heterozygous genotype, the ___________ allele takes over in the phenotype.
a)
recessive
b)
dominant
c)
lower case letter
d)
both 
6.

B = brown eyes

b = blue eyes

One brother has genotype BB and the other brother has genotype Bb.

Which statement is true about these two brothers?

a)

They have same phenotype and genotype

b)

They have different phenotypes and genotypes

c)

They have same phenotype, but different genotypes

d)

They have different phenotypes, but the same genotype

7.
How many generations are shown in this pedigree?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
8.
How many kids did the mother and father from the first generation have?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
9.
What do half colored symbols represent?
a)
The individual is a carrier (heterozygous).
b)
The individual expresses the trait.
c)
The individual has both recessive alleles.
d)
The individual has both dominant alleles.
10.

Sickle cell disease is an autosomal recessive disease that results in misshapen blood cells, which prevent oxygen from getting to the cells in the body. Determine the genotype of a person with sickle cell anemia.

a)

SS

b)

Ss

c)

ss

11.

Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disorder. The abnormal gene responsible for hemophilia is carried on the X chromosome. Identify a female that has hemophilia.

a)

XhXh

b)

XHXh

c)

XhY

d)

XHY

12.

Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disorder. The abnormal gene responsible for hemophilia is carried on the X chromosome. Identify a male that has hemophilia.

a)

XhXh

b)

XHXh

c)

XhY

d)

XHY

13.

Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disorder. The abnormal gene responsible for hemophilia is carried on the X chromosome. Identify a female that is a carrier.

a)

XhXh

b)

XHXh

c)

XhY

d)

XHY

14.

Marfan syndrome is an autosomal dominant disease that affects the connective tissue in the heart, eyes, blood vessels, and bones. Determine the genotype of a person that does not have Marfan syndrome

a)

MM

b)

Mm

c)

mm

15.

DNA is an acronym for _____

a)

Diphosphorus Nucleic Acid

b)

Ribose Nucleic Acid

c)

Deoxyribonucleic Acid

d)

Deoxyribonucleic Acetate

16.

A gene is (mark all that apply)

a)

A distinct portion of the somatic cells responsible for increasing hormone concentrations during interphase

b)

A distinct sequence of nucleotides forming part of the chromosome

c)

A unit of heredity transferred from the parents to their offspring

d)

A type of protein

17.

Primary functions of DNA are (mark all that apply)

a)

Transmit information on heredity from one generation to the next

b)

Control cellular respiration

c)

Regulate homeostasis

d)

Provide a blueprint for making proteins

18.

A nucleotide is composed of

a)

A phosphate, sugar and nitrogenous base

b)

A protein, protein and Guanine

c)

A phosphate, Adenine, and nitrogenous base

d)

A protein, Adenine and nitrogenous base

19.

RNA is different than DNA because ___ (Mark all that apply)

a)

It is a single strand instead of a double helix

b)

It contains Uracil instead of Thymine

c)

It is an nucleic acid instead of an amino acid

d)

It is shorter in length

20.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
21.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
22.
The sugar in DNA is ?
a)
sucrose
b)
glucose
c)
deoxyribose
d)
fructose
23.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
CAT TCA CTG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
24.
The enzyme that unwinds the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
25.
order of replication
a)
3, 4, 2, 1
b)
3, 1, 4, 2
c)
2, 1, 4, 3
d)
3, 4, 1, 2
26.
Which enzyme is responsible for adding nucleotides?
a)
Topoisomerase
b)
DNA Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primase
27.

In DNA. what base always pairs with A?

a)

A

b)

T

c)

C

d)

G

28.

DNA sends a messenger with a copy of the code out of the nucleus to make proteins. What is that messenger?

a)

mRNA

b)

Uracil

c)

DNA

d)

phosphate

29.

What are proteins made of?

a)

Amino acids

b)

chloroplasts

c)

guanine

d)

carbohydrates

30.

Fill in the matching bases that would appear on the top strand of the DNA molecule pictured, in order.


A G T C A T G A

a)

A G T C A T G A

b)

T T T A A A C C

c)

T C A G T A C T

d)

C A T G A G A T

31.

Challenge- How many TOTAL NUCLEOTIDES are there in the DNA molecule pictured?

a)

5

b)

10

c)

2

d)

20

32.
How does RNA differ from DNA?
a)
RNA contains uracil and deoxyribose
b)
RNA contains ribose and thymine
c)
RNA contains uracil and ribose
d)
RNA contains adenine and ribose
33.
How would the DNA sequence GCTATA be transcribed to mRNA?
a)
GCUAUA
b)
CGATAT
c)
CGAUAU
d)
GCUTUT
34.
The process by which the genetic code of DNA is copied into a strand of RNA is called
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
transformation
d)
replication
35.
The process of making proteins on the ribosome based on instructions from messenger RNA is called
a)
transcription
b)
transformation
c)
translation
d)
molecular biology
36.
Changes is DNA sequences that affect genetic information are known as
a)
replications
b)
mutations
c)
transformations
d)
translations
37.
In a strand of DNA, if it contains 20% of Thymine, then how much Guanine would be present?
a)
30%
b)
20%
c)
80%
d)
10%
38.
What is the difference between DNA and RNA in terms of bases?
a)
RNA contains uracil in place of thymine
b)
RNA contains uracil in place of adenine
c)
RNA contains uracil in place of guanine
d)
RNA contains uracil in place of  cytosine
39.

Which organelle makes proteins?

a)

ribosome

b)

nucleus

c)

mitochondria

d)

chloroplast

40.

Which type of RNA is the message of the decoded gene from DNA?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rDNA

41.

Which type of RNA is the carrier of amino acids?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

DNA

42.

What is translation?

a)

the process in which DNA is copied to make another molecule of DNA

b)

the process in which DNA is coded into mRNA

c)

the process in which mRNA is decoded into a protein

d)

the process in which enzymes break down mRNA

43.

The DNA sequence ATC-AGC-GCT-GGC is part of a gene. how many amino acids are coded for by this message?

a)

4

b)

8

c)

3

d)

12

44.

What are the building blocks of proteins called?

a)

Nucleic Acids

b)

Glucose

c)

Amino Acids

d)

Phosphate Groups

45.

In RNA _______ matches with Adenine

a)

Uracil

b)

Guanine

c)

Cytosine

d)

Thymine

46.

In DNA _______ matches with Adenine

a)

Uracil

b)

Guanine

c)

Cytosine

d)

Thymine

47.

Which amino acid matches with the following codon:

GAU

a)

GLU

b)

SER

c)

ASP

d)

ILE

48.

Which amino acid matches with the following codon:

CAC

a)

STOP

b)

HIS

c)

LYS

d)

ARG

49.

Use the mRNA below to select the correct amino acid sequence:

AUG-UCA-AAA-UAG

a)

MET-SER-LYS-STOP

b)

MET-THR-LYS-TYR

c)

LEU-SER-CYS-STOP

d)

ILE-LYS-SER-STOP

50.

Where does TRANSCRIPTION occur?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

51.

Why must transcription occur where DNA can be found?

a)

because DNA can't leave

b)

because ribosomes are in the nucleus

c)

because DNA polymerase is found there

d)

because helicase unzips the DNA

52.

A polypeptide is a sequence of ____________________ held together by a ______________ bond.

a)

amino acids; peptide

b)

fatty acids; ionic

c)

proteins; hydrogen

d)

fatty acids; covalent

53.

Which enzyme is responsible for unzipping the DNA for replication?

(a)  

54.

Which enzyme is responsible for proofreading the new DNA during replication?

(a)  

55.

Which enzyme is responsible for "transcription" of DNA?

(a)  

56.
What is a Gene?
a)
A segment of RNA that encodes for a protein
b)
A chromosome
c)
A segment of DNA that encodes for a protein
d)
Your genome
57.
Original: ATC CAT
Mutation: ATC GCAT
What mutation occurred?
a)
deletion
b)
insertion
c)
silent
d)
transverse
58.
What mutation has occurred here? 
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Frameshift 
59.
Which of the following does not cause mutations?
a)
X-rays
b)
Chemicals we smoke or eat
c)
Drinking water
d)
Tanning
60.
A mutation is?
a)
Any change in DNA
b)
Any change in RNA
c)
Any change in the genetic code
61.
mutations cause changes in traits because?
a)
mutations affect nucleosynthesis 
b)
Mutations affect gamete production 
c)
mutation affect meiosis
d)
mutations affect protein synthesis
62.

Nondisjunction

a)

When a segment of a chromosome breaks off.

b)

When a segment of a chromosome breaks off, flips, and reattaches.

c)

When a segment of a chromosome is copied or doubles.

d)

When a segment of a chromosome breaks and attaches to a non homologous chromosome.

e)

When entire chromosomes don't separate evenly during meiosis.

63.
Trisomy 21 means you have what?
a)
Three copies of chromosome 21
b)
Twenty one copies of chromosome 3
c)
Three omies and 21 means
d)
Two copies of chromosome 21
64.
What type of karyotype is shown here?
a)
Male with Turner Syndrome
b)
Male with Klinefelter Syndrome
c)
Female with Down Syndrome
d)
Female with Klinefelter Syndrome
65.

What are chromosomes 1-44 called?

a)
Autosomes
b)
Sex Chromosomes
c)
Chromotids
d)
Xenosomes
66.

A permanent change in the DNA sequence

which can affect a single gene or group of genes

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Somatic Cell

c)

Chromosomal Mutation

d)

Gene Mutation

67.

One nucleotide base is changed so only one amino acid

is affected

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Point Mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Inverse Mutation

68.

Failure of homologous chromosomes

to separate during meiosis.

Results in gametes with either one extra or one missing chromosome.

a)

Translocation

b)

Nondisjunction

c)

Replication

d)

Transcription

69.

Condition caused by nondisjunction at pair 21 during meiosis.

Individuals have an extra chromosome

at pair 21, or a total of 47 chromosomes.

Also called Trisomy 21.

a)

Cystic Fibrosis

b)

Translocation

c)

Hemophilia

d)

Down Syndrome

70.

A point mutation where DNA adenine (A)

is replaced by thymine (T) resulting in a single amino acid change during translation(affects blood cell

shape and function)

a)

Encephelitis

b)

Hemophilia

c)

Sickle Cell Anemia

d)

Influenza

71.

Analyzes the inheritability of Sickle Cell Anemia,

a recessive trait that must be passed on

from both parents.

a)

Nondisjunction Punnett Square

b)

Hemophilia Punnett Sqaure

c)

Cyctic Fibrosis Punnett Square

d)

Sickle Cell Anemia Punnett Square

72.

a photograph or picture of chromosomes grouped in ordered pairs is a ______________

a)

pedigree

b)

Punnett Square

c)

Venn Diagram

d)

Karyotype

73.

A normal human zygote should have _____ chromosomes inside.

a)

46

b)

23

c)

92

d)

64

74.
What is the gender of the individual whose karyotype is seen in the image?
a)
Male
b)
Female
75.
what is the role of stem cells in the body 
a)
fight against infection 
b)
provide specialized roles in the body 
c)
used for fertility treatment 
d)
they produce new specialized cells in the body to replace old cells that are used up 
76.
In what way is the DNA of a nerve cell different from the DNA of a muscle cell?
a)
The DNA is the same but each cell contains different genes
b)
The DNA is the same but different genes are turned on and turned off in each cell
c)
The DNA is different, but the same genes are turned on and off in each cell
d)
The DNA is different, but each cell contains the same genes
77.

What is the environmental factor that influences the gene for black hair growth?

(a)  

78.

Example of selective breeding...

a)

production of recombinant DNA in bacteria cultures

b)

breeding two spotted dalmations to produce puppies with spots

c)

cloning of sheep through the use of SCNT

d)

production of "glo fish" with the use of restriction enzymes and gene splicing

79.

Which of the following is used to cut DNA from organisms?

a)

Gel Electrophoresis

b)

Restriction Enzymes

c)

Karyotypes

d)

Haplotypes

80.

A DNA molecule produced by combining DNA from different sources is called?

a)

Mutant DNA

b)

Polyploid DNA

c)

Diploid DNA

d)

Recombinant DNA

81.

What is gene therapy?

a)

Inserting copies of a healthy gene directly into cells with a mutated gene

b)

Producing organisms with identical copies of DNA

c)

Crossing two individuals that have similar desirable characteristics or traits

d)

Crossing two individuals that have different characteristics or traits

82.

If scientists engineer the DNA of tomatoes to make them survive in cold temperatures, what do type of technology do those tomatoes become?

a)

Human Genome Project

b)

Genetically Modified Organisms

c)

Punnett Squares

d)

Gene Therapy

83.
When cloning an organism, DNA is removed and placed into an empty
a)
virus
b)
sperm cell
c)
bacteria cell
d)
egg cell
84.
Why do farmers choose to use GM crops rather than regular crops?
a)
They are safer
b)
They are more productive
c)
They are less expensive
d)
They are less controversial
85.
A ____ is a small ring of DNA found in a bacterial cell.
a)
virus
b)
plasmid
c)
gene bullet
d)
PCR
86.
The entire collection of genes within human cells is referred to as the ______.
a)
human genome
b)
karyotype
c)
pedigree
d)
gene map
87.

Ideal temp for meat tenderizer (protease) activity in the DNA extraction lab

(a)  

88.

Used to break down the lipid membrane in the DNA extraction lab

(a)  

89.

Separated DNA from solution due to due to lack of solubility in this solution...

(a)  

90.

This laboratory procedure is known as

a)

CLONING

b)

gel electrophoresis

c)

chromatography

d)

use of a dichotomous key

91.

In preparation for an electrophoresis procedure, enzymes are added to DNA in order to

a)

convert the DNA into gel

b)

cut the DNA into fragments

c)

change the color of the DNA

d)

produce longer sections of DNA

92.

The parents of a new baby believe they brought the wrong child home from the hospital. Gel electrophoresis was performed using DNA samples from the parents and the child. A section of the gel

electrophoresis results is shown below. Which conclusion is valid based on the gel electrophoresis results?

a)

They have the correct child, because her genetic information is identical to that of the father.


b)

They have the wrong child, because her genetic information does not match that of either parent.

c)

They have the correct child, because her genetic information came from both parents.


d)

They have the wrong child, because her genetic information matches only that of the mother.

93.

What is this technique an example of?

a)

chromatography

b)

gel electrophoresis

c)

direct harvesting

d)

genetic engineering

94.

A student performed a gel electrophoresis experiment. The results are represented in the diagram

below. Compared to the fragments at the top of the gel, the fragments at the lower end are

a)

larger, and move slower

b)

larger, and move faster

c)

smaller, and move faster

d)

smaller, and move slower

95.

Gel electrophoresis is used to separate DNA fragments on the basis of which property?

a)

size

b)

color

c)

functions

d)

chromosomes

96.

What is the result of step 3?

a)

a new type of molecular base is formed

b)

different types of minerals are joined together

c)

DNA from the bacterial cell is cloned

d)

DNA from different organisms is joined together

97.
Which two bear species are most closely related?
a)
Bear 1 and Bear 2
b)
Bear 1 and Bear 3
c)
Bear 2 and Bear 3
d)
There’s no way to tell

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