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PARASITES

Total questions: 116

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What type of infections do protozoa cause?

a)

GI

b)

Scabies

c)

CNS

d)

PNS

2.

Which of the following is not an infection caused by protozoa?

a)

GI

b)

CNS

c)

hematological

d)

roundworm

3.

What type of organism are protozoa?

a)

multicellular

b)

unicellular

4.

What type of organism are helminths?

a)

multicellular

b)

unicellular

5.

What types of worms are nematodes?

a)

roundworm

b)

flatworms

c)

flukes

6.

What type of worm are cestodes?

a)

roundworm

b)

tapeworm

c)

flukes

7.

What types of worms are trematodes?

a)

roundworm

b)

tapeworm

c)

fluke

8.

What type of disease do arthropods cause?

a)

scabies

b)

skin infection

9.

Which of the protozoa causes GI infections?

a)

Giardia Lamblia

b)

Toxoplasmosis Gondii

c)

Trichomonas

d)

Trypanosoma

10.

Which of the following causes GI infections?

a)

Entamoeba histolytica

b)

Plasmodium

c)

Trypanosoma

d)

Leishmania Donovani

11.

Which of the following causes GI infection?

a)

Plasmodium

b)

Naegleria fowleri

c)

cryptosporidium parvum

d)

Leishmania donovani

12.

Which of the following caused CNS infection?

a)

Plasmodium

b)

Gardia lambia

c)

Toxoplasmosis gondii

d)

Naegleria fowleri

13.

Which of the following in a hemotological infection?

a)

Leishmania

b)

Giardia lamblia

c)

Trypanosoma

d)

plasmodium

14.

What are the other protozoa? Those that do not cause GI, CNS, and hematological infection.

a)

Trichomonas

b)

Trypanosoma

c)

Leishmania Donovanii

d)

All of the above

15.

How is G.lamblia treated?

a)

metronidazole

b)

mebendazole

c)

TMP SMZ

d)

amphotericin B

16.

How is G. lamblia diagnosed?

a)

amoeba in spinal fluid

b)

acid-fast stain to view cysts

c)

bloodstain

d)

cysts in stool

17.

G.lamblia is most often seen in campers and hiker drinking contaminated water?

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

c)

MAYBE

d)

I DON'T KNOW

18.

Which of the following is not a symptom of Giardiasis?

a)

weight loss

b)

greasy foul-smelling diarrhea

c)

bloating

d)

hemorrhaging

19.

Which of the following block nutrient absorption of nutrients and fats due to its strong attachment to the intestinal mucosa?

a)

Plasmodium

b)

Toxoplasmosis gondii

c)

Giardia lamblia

d)

Naegleria fowlei

20.

What is the mode of transmission for entamoeba histolytica?

a)

water sources

b)

food contaminated with fecal matter

c)

fecal-oral

d)

All of the above

21.

How is entamoeba histolytica treated?

a)

mebendazole

b)

TMP-SMZ

c)

metronidazole

d)

antibiotic combinations

22.

How is entamoeba histolytica diagnosed?

a)

cysts in stool

b)

blood smear

c)

microscopic observation

d)

None of the above

23.

Which of the following is a symptoms of amoebiasis?

a)

blood and pus in the stool

b)

abscess

c)

flash shaped lesions

d)

All of the above

24.

How is cryptosporidium parvum diagnosed?

a)

pus in stool

b)

acid fast staining to view cysts

c)

blood in stool

d)

water diarrhea

25.

How is C.parvum treated?

a)

antibiotic cocktail

b)

rehydration

c)

self limiting

d)

metronidazole

26.

How is C.parvum transmitted?

a)

nasal mucosa

b)

contaminated water

c)

fecal oral

d)

mice, fam animal and bird feces

27.

Which of the following applies to c.parvum?

a)

fever

b)

cramps

c)

severe watery diarrhea

d)

headache

28.

C. parvum causes weight loss in

a)

immunocompromised paitents

b)

HIV/AIDS paitents

c)

All of the above

d)

Non of the above

29.

What type of infection us toxoplasmosis?

a)

CNS

b)

GI

c)

Hematological

d)

other

30.

Which of the following are the difinitive host of toxoplasmosis gondi?

a)

birds

b)

bats

c)

cats

d)

mosquitos

31.

What factors contribute to the pathogensis of T.gondi?

a)

cysts that rupture RBC

b)

opportunistic cysts

c)

dormant cyst

d)

cysts that lyse RBC

32.

Which of the following is the "C" in the CHI diesease caused by congenital toxoplasmosis?

a)

chills

b)

cold

c)

chorioretintis

d)

cholera

33.

Which of the following is the "H" in teh CHI disease caused by congenital histoplasmosis?

a)

hemmorrhaging

b)

hearing loss

c)

heart disease

d)

hydrocephalus

34.

Which of the following is the "I" in the CHI disease cause by congenital toxoplasmosis?

a)

impetigo

b)

inflammation

c)

infectious mononucleosis

d)

intracranial calcifications

35.

How is T.gondii treated?

a)

TMP SMZ

b)

mebendazole

c)

metrondiazole

d)

amphotericin B

36.

Which of the following is symptoms of t.gondii in healthy individuals?

a)

mild symptoms

b)

no symptoms

c)

abscess

d)

neurological symptoms

37.

Which of the following is a symptoms of t.gondii in immunocompromised individuals?

a)

mild symptoms

b)

no symptoms

c)

abscess

d)

neurological symptoms

38.

What is the reservior for t.gondii?

a)

contaminated food

b)

contaminated water source

c)

All of the above

39.

Which of the following arise as a result of neagleri fowleri?

a)

mengitis

b)

encephalitis

c)

secondary amoebic meningoencephalitis

d)

primary amoebic meningoencephalitis

40.

How is naegleri fowleri treated?

a)

amphotericin B

b)

mebendazole

c)

metrondazole

d)

TMP SMZ

41.

How is naegleri fowleri diagnosed?

a)

blood in stool

b)

watery diarrhea

c)

amoeba in spinal fluid

d)

blood and pus in stool

42.

How is naegleri fowleri transmitted?

a)

swimming in fresh water lakes enter via temporal lobe

b)

swimming in salt water beaches enter via temporal lobe

c)

swimming in fresh water lakes and enters via cribiform plate

d)

swimming in salt water lakes and enters via cribifrom plate

43.

Which of the following plasmodium is transported by the female anopheles mosquito and cause plasmodium.

a)

P.falciparum

b)

P.vivax

c)

P.ovale

d)

P.malariae

44.

How is plasmodium treated?

a)

primaquine

b)

steriods

c)

TMP/SMZ

d)

chloroquine

45.

How is plasmodium diagnosed?

a)

blood smear

b)

blood in stool

c)

pus in stool

d)

cyst in stool and vomit

46.

What disease is caused by plasmodium?

a)

malaria

b)

splengomegaly

c)

anemia

d)

hemorrhaging

e)

All of the above

47.

Which disease is caused by plasmodium?

a)

cyclic fever at 48-72 hours

b)

shaking

c)

chills

d)

all of the above

48.

Which of the following contribute to the virulence of plasmodium?

a)

rupturing of RBC

b)

ability to survive in hemoglobin

c)

All of the above

49.

How is leishmania donovanii treated

a)

TMP/SMX

b)

steriods

c)

amphotericin

d)

stibogluconate

50.

Which of the following is not a symptoms of leishmania donovanii?

a)

cutaneous lesions

b)

fever

c)

hepatosplenomegaly

d)

muscle weakness

51.

What are the three types of leishamaniasis?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Cutaneous

d)

Mucosal

e)

Visceral

52.

How is leishamania transmitted?

a)

flagellated protozao transmitted to humans by tse-tse fly

b)

flagellated protozao transmitted to humans by sandfly

53.

Which of the following contribute to the pathogenesis of leishmania?

a)

Avoid destruction in phagolysome

b)

infect macrophages

c)

infects and lyse monocytes

d)

All of the above

e)

Two of the above

54.

How is trypanosome cruzi transmitted?

a)

feces

b)

kissing bug

c)

fecal oral

d)

nasal mucosa

55.

The triatomine bug bigs humans and defecates near the bite and humans rub the bite and the infection is transmitted.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

c)

I DON'T KNOW

d)

MAYBE

56.

Which of the following parasite has a 'monkey eyed' cysts?

a)

Cryptosporidium parvum

b)

Toxoplasmosis gondii

c)

Giardia lamblia

d)

None of the above

57.

What diease is caused by trypansoma cruzi?

a)

American trypanosomiasis

b)

African trypanosomiasis

58.

What disease is caused by trypanosoma brueci?

a)

American trypanosomiasis

b)

African trypanosomiasis

59.

Which of the following is caused by trypanosome cruzi?

a)

Blood

b)

myocarditis & meningoencephalitis

c)

cardiomegaly

d)

NONE OF THE ABOVE

e)

ALL OF THE ABOVE

60.

How is trypanosoma cruzi diagnosed?

a)

microscopic observation

b)

stool study

c)

blood smear

d)

urine

61.

How is trypanosoma brueci transmitted?

a)

sandfly

b)

tse-tse fly

c)

feces

d)

non of the above

62.

How is trypanosoma brucei diagnosed?

a)

microscopic observation of blood

b)

microscopic observation of lymph

c)

microscopic observation of spinal fluid

d)

tissue biopsy

e)

All of the above

63.

Which of the following is caused by African trypanosomaisis?

a)

reccurrent fever

b)

stiff muscle

c)

tender nodule at bite site

d)

death

64.

If trypanosoma brucei affects the CNS, which of the following is likely to happen?

a)

loss of interest in everything

b)

coma

c)

drooping eyelids

d)

slurred speech

e)

All of the above

65.

Which of the following applies to trypanosoma brueci?

a)

sleeping at inopportune times

b)

decreased activity

c)

indifference to food

d)

aching

e)

More than one of the above

66.

How is trichomonas vaginalis transmitted?

a)

sexual intercourse

b)

oral sex

c)

contaminated food

d)

contaminated water

67.

Which of the following factors contribute to the virulence of T.vaginalis?

a)

flagella

b)

pili

c)

Fimibriae

d)

Adhesins

68.

How is T.vaginalis treated?

a)

mebendazole

b)

metronidazole

c)

TMP/SMZ

d)

steriods

69.

How do we diagnosed T.vaginali?

a)

NAAT

b)

ELISA

c)

smear for clue cells

d)

blood culture

70.

Which of the following vaginitis in women?

a)

itching and burning of vagina

b)

foul smelling frothy green discharge

c)

strawberry colored cervical mucosa in women

d)

urethritis

e)

All of the above

71.

Which of the following are cestodes?

a)

Taenia solium

b)

Schistosoma

c)

Enterobius vermicularis

d)

Ascaris lumbricoides

72.

Which of the following is not a cestode?

a)

Taenia soilum

b)

Taenia saginata

c)

Ascaris Lumbricoides

d)

Diphyllobothrium latum

73.

Which of the following is a trematode?

a)

Enterobius vermicularis

b)

Ascaris lumbricoides

c)

Schistosoma

d)

Taenia solium

74.

Which of the following are nematodes?

a)

enterobius vermicularis

b)

Taenia solium

c)

Ascaris lumbricoides

d)

taenia saginata

75.

Which of the following is the pork tapeworm?

a)

Taenia solium

b)

Taenia saginata

76.

Which of the following is a beef tapeworm

a)

taenia solium

b)

taenia saginata

77.

Which of the following may break off and slip out the anus

a)

Taenia solium

b)

Taenia saginata

78.

Which of the following cause cysticercosis

a)

Taenia solium

b)

Taenia saginata

79.

The following symptoms are synonymous with which of the following

1)muscle weakness

2) symptoms that mimic epilepsy or brain tumor

a)

Taenia solium

b)

Taenia saginata

80.

How is Schistosoma transmitted?

a)

contaminated water

b)

contaminated food

c)

fecal-oral

d)

sexual intercourse

81.

How is Schistosoma diagnosed?

a)

egg in feces

b)

egg in urine

c)

egg in stool

d)

egg in blood

82.

What system is most affected by Schistosoma?

a)

liver

b)

CNS

c)

Spleen

d)

intestine

e)

All of the above

83.

Which of the following system is affected by Schistosoma?

a)

spleen

b)

bladder

c)

lungs

d)

Heart

84.

Which of the following contribute to the symptom of Schistosoma?

a)

papular rash at the penetration site

b)

fever

c)

chills

d)

headache

e)

All of the above

85.

How do adult fluke worms avoid the host immune system?

a)

Embedding themselves in host tissue

b)

coating themselves with a layer that mimics host tissue

c)

Contain a protein coat

d)

contains a capsid

86.

When does the infection of schistosomiasis begin?

a)

4-8 weeks

b)

2-4 weeks

87.

How long does schistosomiasis symptoms lasts

a)

4-8 weeks

b)

2-4 weeks

88.

How long does the chronic symptoms for schistomiasis lasts?

a)

2 years

b)

3-4 years

c)

many years

89.

Which of the following is a chronic symptoms of schistomiasis?

a)

abdominal pain

b)

diarrhea

c)

liver failure

d)

pulmonary hypertension

e)

All of the above

90.

Which of the following is a symptoms of chronic schistosomiasis?

a)

urinary obstruction

b)

renal failure

c)

bladder cancer

d)

CNS symptoms

e)

All of the above

91.

Where is enterobius vermicularis endemic to?

a)

South America

b)

North America

c)

Africa

d)

Central America

92.

Where is enterobius vermicularis most commonly found?

a)

Soup kitchens

b)

gyms

c)

hospitals

d)

day-care centers

93.

How is enterobius vermicularis treated?

a)

metrondiazole

b)

mebendazole

c)

TMP/SMZ

d)

steroids

94.

How is enterobius vermicularis diagnosed?

a)

blood study

b)

scotch tape test

c)

stool study

95.

Female nemotode migrates out of the anus at night to lay eggs which causes local itching.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

c)

MAYBE

d)

I DON'T KNOW

96.

How is ascaris lumbricoides treated?

a)

metrondiazole

b)

mebendazole

c)

TMP/SMZ

d)

Steroids

97.

How is ascaris lumbricoides transmitted?

a)

egg shed in feces

b)

contaminated water and food

c)

nasal mucosa

d)

sexual

98.

Where does the egg or ascaris lumbricoides hatch

a)

lower intestine

b)

upper intestine

c)

GI tract

d)

stomach lining

99.

Select the route taken for the egg of ascaris to invade tissue.


i)blood stream

ii) migration to the throat

iii) larve swallowed

iv)larve goes to the lung and cause respiratory symptoms

a)

i,iii,iv,ii

b)

iii,iv,ii,i

c)

i,ii,iii,iv

d)

iv,iii,ii,i1

100.

Where is the exit points for ascaris lumbricoides?

a)

navel

b)

nostril

c)

anus

d)

ears

101.

What areas are infected by ascaris lumbricoides?

a)

pancreas

b)

gall bladder

c)

abdominal cavity

d)

intestine

e)

All of the above

102.

Where does ascaris develope in adults?

a)

intestine

b)

lung

c)

gall bladder

d)

pancreas

103.

How is scabies treated?

a)

Topical Premethrin cream

b)

TMP/SMZ

c)

Steroids

d)

mebendazole

104.

How is scabies transmitted?

a)

sexual

b)

nosocomical

c)

nasal

d)

nasopharynx

105.

Who is scabies most common among

a)

family member

b)

children

c)

day care toddlers

d)

nursing home residents

106.

How do secondary infections from scabies arise?

a)

sexual contact

b)

blood transfusion

c)

airborne

d)

scratching

107.

What are the symptoms of scabies?

a)

intense itching

b)

visible line

c)

inflammatory skin lesion

d)

slightly elevated line

e)

All of the above

108.

What is a prion?

4 lines
109.

What are the type of spongiform encephalitis common?

a)

mad cow disease

b)

Bovine spongiform encephalopathies

c)

Sheep scrapies

d)

kuru disease

e)

All of the above

110.

What gives the prions the spongy appearance in the brain?

a)

small vacuoles

b)

large vacuoles

c)

cysts

d)

brain lesions

111.

How are prions destroyed

a)

Antiparacitics

b)

autoclaving in NaOH

c)

Autoclaving in water

d)

None of the above

112.

What are the characteristics of all prions diseases?

a)

fatal neurological degeneration

b)

deposition of fibril in the brain

c)

loss of brain matter

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

113.

Which of the following PrP is mutant?

a)

prion prp

b)

cellular prp

114.

What secondary structure does cellular prp have?

a)

alpha helices

b)

beta pleated sheet

c)

random coil

d)

u-turn

115.

What secondary sturture does prion prp have?

a)

alpha helix

b)

beta pleated sheet

c)

random coil

d)

u-turns

116.

Order the following in order from most to least resistant?

i)prion

ii)bacterial endospore

iii)mycobacteria

iv)cysts of protozoa

v)active stage protozoa

vi)gram negative bacteria

vii)fungi

viii)noneveloped viruses

ix)gram positive bacteria

x)eneveloped vriuses

a)

x,ix,viii,vii,vi,v,iv,iii,ii,i

b)

i,ii,iii,iv,v,vi,vii,viii,ix,x

c)

ii,iii,i,iv,vi,v,viii,vii,x,ix

d)

i,ii,iv,iii,vi,v,viii,vii,x,is

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