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Hazmat random 2

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 3hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A vapor density of less than one indicates that the vapor:

a)

Will sink

b)

Is lighter than air

c)

IS heavier than air

d)

Is equivalent to air

2.

What is the most common route of entry into the body for a hazardous material?

a)

Injection

b)

Ingestion

c)

Inhalation

d)

Absorption

3.

In which hazard control zone does decontamination usually take place at a hazmat incident?

a)

Hot zone

b)

Cold zone

c)

Warm zone

d)

Perimeter zone

4.

In a nonintervention situation, first responders should

a)

Control ignition sources

b)

isolate the hazard area and deny entry

c)

Perform rescues when safe and appropriate

d)

Perform emergency decontamination procedures

5.

Where should staging areas be located at a hazmat incident?

a)

Hot zone

b)

Cold zone

c)

Warm zone

d)

Beyond the isolation perimeter

6.

What should be communicated to the team during an emergency evacuation?

a)

Statues of backup team

b)

Tasks to be performed for decon

c)

Remaining capabilities of equipment

7.

It may be necessary to withdraw from the scene of a hazmat incident when there is a:

a)

Sudden change in pressure

b)

Gradual change in temperature

c)

sudden change in wind direction

d)

Visual indicator of a pressure relief device activating

8.

After an incident where you build a dike or dam to contain a spill,m what must you do with used construction materials that contacted the hazardous material

a)

Properly dispose of them

b)

Leave them for local law enforcement

c)

Store them in the apparatus until they are needed again

d)

Send them back to the manufacturer for decontamination

9.

An example of a Level 1 hazmat incident would be

a)

The rupture of an underground pipeline

b)

An evacuation extending across jurisdictional boundaries

c)

Any major accident, spillage, or overflow of flammable liquids

d)

A leak from a domestic natural gas line on the consumer side of the meter

10.

A level III hazmat incident is

a)

Not a serious threat to life or property

b)

The least serious and easiest to handle

c)

Any major accident, spillage, or, or overflow of flammable liquids

d)

Beyond the capabilities of the local hazardous materials response team

11.

In what step of the APIE process do responders direct actions to reduce or eliminate the risks present at a hazardous materials incident

a)

Step 1: analyze the incident

b)

Step 2: plan the initial response

c)

Step 3: implement the response

d)

Step 4: Evaluate progress

12.

Clues to an illegal hazmat dump include

a)

Everyday trash near a campsite

b)

Food wrappers and plastic utensils

c)

Recycled materials and their containers

d)

Unlabeled containers and mixed chemicals

13.

Blister agents are especially hazardous because of the

a)

Multiple ways they can inflict damage on the body

b)

Extreme flammability and toxic smoke associated with these agents

c)

Risk of responder losing radio contact due to the high radioactive activity

d)

Increase in responder injuries from falls because of this agent's oily nature

14.

What type of respirator does not supply oxygen or air from a separate source and protects only against specific contaminants

a)

Sar

b)

Apr

c)

Scba

d)

Cbrn mask

15.

Incapacitates and vomiting agents are ___agents

a)

Riot control

b)

Lung-damaging

c)

Toxic industrial

d)

Arsenical vesicant

16.

When should Awareness level personnel handle or touch contaminated or potentially contaminated victims at hazmat incidents

a)

Only to provide basic first aid

b)

During technical and mass decontamination

c)

They should not handle or touch contaminated victims

d)

This will happen often during the course of their response action

17.

Which is true of the relationship between temperature and vapor pressure

a)

Higher temperature means less liquid escapes into a gaseous form

b)

Cooling a container can increase the vapor pressure of the material it holds

c)

The higher the temperature of a substance the higher the vapor pressure will be

d)

The vapor pressure of a material at 100*F will be the same as the vapor pressure of that same material at 68*F

18.

Level D ensembles can be worn when

a)

No atmospheric hazards exist or will be encountered

b)

The hazards detected can be filtered through an apr

c)

Expected hazards will have a minor effect on exposed skin

d)

There will be a moderate immersion in low level hazardous chemicals

19.

Work performed in the ____ zone at a hazmat incident is typically limited to highly trainedf personnel such as SWAT teams and bomb technicians

a)

Hot

b)

Cold

c)

Warm

d)

Command

20.

In which step of the APIE process do responders initially attempt to identify the hazardous materials involved

a)

Step 1 Analyze the incident

b)

Step 2 plan the initial response

c)

step 3 implement the response

d)

Step 4 evaluate progress

21.

What type of respirator does not require the user to carry the breathing source

a)

Sar

b)

SCBA

c)

cbrn mask

d)

osha facepiece

22.

Miscibility describes

a)

Materials incapable of being mixed or blended with another substance

b)

The degree to which a solid, liquid, or gas dissolves in a solvent (usually water)

c)

A material in which the positive and negative charges are permanently separated

d)

The ability of two or more gases or liquids to mix with or dissolve into each other

23.

In order to locate the most specific initial action guide, responders should use the substance's four-digit ID number or

a)

Texture

b)

Appearance

c)

Chemical name

d)

Container profile

24.

Offensive hazmat operations:

a)

Are the most common types of operations at hazmat incidents

b)

Do not require chemical-protective clothing or respiratory protection

c)

Are selected when the situation is clearly beyond the scope of responsibilities of first responders

d)

Are those where responders take aggressive, direct action on the material, container, or equipment involved in the incident

25.

Factors such as the hazards present, the concentration of the material, and the duration of contact should be considered when evaluating the

a)

Type of breach

b)

Type of release

c)

Mechanisms of harm

d)

Severity of exposures

26.

An IAP must contain a tracking and accountability system that has check-in procedures, tracking of on-scene personnel, and procedures for

a)

Levels of ppe

b)

Media response

c)

Releasing people

d)

Nonresponding personnel

27.

The stress experienced by containers is influenced by the material's

a)

Viscosity

b)

Specific heat

c)

State of matter

d)

Heat of combustion

28.

The yellow bordered pages of the ERG can help first responders at a hazmat incident locate an initial action guide if they have identified the

a)

Shape of the container

b)

Name o the material involved

c)

Four-digit un identification number

d)

Three digit guide code associated with the placard

29.

An action that can be taken without risk of contamination is

a)

Pefroming mass decontamination

b)

Decontaminating tools and equipment

c)

Performing first aid on victims in the hot zone

d)

Conducting searches on the edge of the hot zone

30.

When searching an area for improvised explosive devices, a responder must remember that

a)

Improvised explosive devices can be contained in any common item

b)

Improvised explosive devices can only e placed within close range of a detonator

c)

The bomber can only put the improvised explosive device inside of a large, heavy object

d)

The bomber will place improvised explosive devices in places where they will be noticed

31.

The shpaes of different hazardous materials containers and packaging

a)

Are not distinguishable form one another

b)

Do not reveal anything about the materials inside

c)

Are always a reliable indicator of the materials inside

d)

Can provide helpful information about the materials inside

32.

Two indicators of a package, mail, or letter bomb may be

a)

The letter envelope appears even and common words are spelled correctly

b)

The mail has a return address and arrives at the destination with appropriate postage

c)

The package emits suspicious odors and the postmark is different from the return address

d)

An identified person calls to ask if the package was received and any labels on the package are neatly made

33.

Which hazardous materials marking system promotes common , consistent criteria for classifying chemicals according to their health, physical, and environmental hazards

a)

NFPA 704

b)

Globally harmonized system

c)

Hazard communication system

d)

Hazardous materials information system

34.

What can be used to explain the basic components of many chemical reactions

a)

Fire tetrahedron

b)

Activation energy

c)

Reactivity triangle

d)

Inverse square law

35.

What assists in identifying trends regarding operational strengths and weaknesses at hazmat operations

a)

Training request

b)

procedural change

c)

Staff analysis report

d)

Postincident critique

36.

Encapsulating and nonecapsulating liquid splash protective clothing do not

a)

protect respiratory equipment

b)

protect against flames or projectiles

c)

offer methods for taping up gaps between clothing

d)

have boots or gloves that are sometimes attached or replaceable

37.

The decon method that is conducted in the shortest possible time to reduce surface contamination for large numbers of people, with or without a formal decon line, is called

a)

Mass decontamination

b)

Gross decontamination

c)

Emergency decontamination

d)

Humanitarian decontamination

38.

Why do responders need to be careful about spellin when using the blue-bordered pages of the ERG

a)

The manufacturers names listed in the pages may be very similar

b)

Most chemical names originated in other languages, and thus are spelled differently than they sound

c)

A subtle mistake in spelling can lead a responder toward a substantial misunderstanding of a products behavior

d)

Spelling is not of the utmost importance since the ERG uses a phonetic alphabet to represent chemical names

39.

An advantage of cornering/quartering staging procedures is that they

a)

Establish multiple command posts

b)

Allow multiple routes of egress for potential suspects

c)

Reduce the number of personnel necessary on the scene

d)

Provide multiple treatment areas or operation function points

40.

A nail puncturing your skin through atear in your personal protective equipment would present the risk of hazardous materials entering your body through

a)

Injection

b)

Ingestion

c)

Radiation

d)

Inhalation

41.

At hazmat/WMD crime scenes, it is important for responders to document their observations as quickly as possible because

a)

Evidence is the most important priority

b)

The sooner information is written down the more accurate it will probably be

c)

The sooner information is written down, the sooner the incident can be terminated

d)

The original state of the crime scene is more important than any changes that occur

42.

Universal precautions are critical during bioterrorism events because

a)

Disposable goves and face shields will be at a premium during these events and may be impossible to find

b)

Antibiotics and vaccinations can only go so far when a responder has already been infected with a biological agent

c)

Local health departments will be overwhelmed with the situation and will not have the time to treat infected responders

d)

The emphasis on avoiding contact with bodily fluids protects the responder against many biological agents and infected individuals

43.

Substances taht possess harmful characteristics are called

a)

Chronic or acute health hazards

b)

Chemical hazards or carcinogens

c)

Weapons of mass destruction

d)

Hazardous materials or dangerous goods

44.

Dilution is the application of____ to a hazardous material to reduce the hazard

a)

Water

b)

An acid

c)

Detergent

d)

A corrosive

45.

What forms the basis for improved response at hazmat incidents

a)

Action options

b)

Command post

c)

Resource evaluation

d)

Postincident analysis

46.

GEMBO is a model used to

a)

Describe how toxic materials will impact the body upon contact

b)

Determine which type of container certain hazardous materials will be transported in

c)

Determine a course of action when incorrectly labeled hazardous materials containers are damaged or rupture

d)

Describe how hazardous materials are accidentally released from their containers and how they behave after that release

47.

Which statement is true of hazmat incidents and atmospheric conditions

a)

At night lower toxic concentrations may be spread over a larger area

b)

During the day, higher toxic concentrations may exist in a smaller area

c)

Atmospheric conditions can significantly affect the size of a chemically hazardous area

d)

Atmospheric conditions are not a significant factor in the size of a chemically hazardous area

48.

Why might liquids present a unique hazard to responders

a)

They may present an inhalation hazard unlike solids and gases

b)

They have the potential to spread from their source over large areas

c)

They are more toxic and corrosive that the two other states of matter

d)

They may take on the additional characteristics of a gas by emitting vapors

49.

In which section of the ERG would responder look for container profiles

a)

White pages

b)

Blue bordered pages

c)

Green bordered pages

d)

Yellow bordered pages

50.

In order to estimate the size of the endangered area and predict potential exposure, responders should gather information about the

a)

Resources and personnel at the incident

b)

Type of container that holds the hazardous material

c)

Material's chemical formula and the container's destination

d)

Material's state of matter and the environmental conditions present

51.

What information should be included in responder exposure records

a)

permeation rate and breakthrough of ppe

b)

monitoring and detection reading of ppe

c)

type of exposure and description of ppe used

d)

length of time spent donning and doffing ppe

52.

In general which state of matter has the greatest mobility

a)

Gas

b)

Solid

c)

Liquid

d)

Plasma

53.

Which statement is true of the isolation perimeter at a hazmat incident

a)

In most cases a smaller isolation perimeter is preferable

b)

It is easier to reduce the isolation perimeter in size than it is to extend it

c)

Once resources have been committed to an incident the isolation perimeter cannot be adjusted

d)

In most cases the outcomes of preincident surveys determine the initial isolation perimeter

54.

On scene recovery efforts at a hazmat incident aim to

a)

Contain the incident to the scene

b)

Return the scene to a safe condition

c)

Return resources forces to preincident readiness

d)

Gather information from all operating personnel

55.

Radiological attacks utilize weapon that release radiological materials, most likely kin the form of

a)

Gas or vapors

b)

Dust or powder

c)

Liquid or droplets

d)

Bacteria or viruses

56.

A concentrations lower than the LEL a mixture is

a)

harmless

b)

corrosive

c)

too rich to burn

d)

too lean to burn

57.

What is a disadvantage of using dispersion techniques at a hazmat incident

a)

It is very expensive

b)

It requires activation of nims

c)

the hazardous material may be spread over a wider area

d)

dispersion must be performed by a hazardous materials technician

58.

which statement is true of protection the environment at a hazmat incident

a)

responders should avoid collection runoff and released materials

b)

most hazardous materials are biodegradable so the consequences of contamination quickly become apparent

c)

water used during fire control activities may become contaminated with pollutants or other hazardous materials

d)

the results of contamination in the environment can be easily undone by using the proper decontamination procdures

59.

Toxic industrial materials (tims) likely pose a greater terrorist threat than other chemical warfare agents because they are

a)

composed of more lethal precursors than most chemical agents

b)

much harder to find and when found are used in higher quantitates

c)

more persistent and have a lower volatility than other chemical agents

d)

produced in very large quantities and are readily available unlike most chemical agensts

60.

Time distance and___ are all strategies used to protect responders at hazmat incidents

a)

Shielding

b)

evacuation

c)

spill control

d)

defending in place

61.

The type of decon conducted will be determined by a variety of factors, including personnel and equipment available number of persons requiring decon type of hazardous materials involved and

a)

weather

b)

weight of victims

c)

preference of victim

d)

preference of property owner

62.

Decontamination is the process of removing hazardous materials to prevent the spread of contaminates beyond a specific area and

a)

remove all trace of contaminates

b)

assure that no individual will have lasting consequeces

c)

reduce contamination to levels that are no longer harmful

d)

neutralize any contaminate that could remain tin the hot zone

63.

Which statement is true of evacutaion as a protective action at a hazmat incident

a)

evacuation is the easiest method of protective action

b)

evacuees should congregate just outside the hot zone

c)

if there is enough time for evacuation it is generally the best protective action

d)

once people move the distances recommended in the erg and preincidnt surveys they will be safe

64.

Which statement is true of control zones at terrorist's incidents

a)

decontamination procedures typically take place in the cold zone

b)

awareness level personnel will often be in the hot zone serving as witnesses

c)

ther may be more than one hot zone due to multiple devices or release points

d)

control zones at terrorist incidents are the same as at other hazmat or criminal incidents

65.

As a radiological incident winds down, responders should avoid

a)

using distance as protective measure

b)

disturbing the incident scene as much as possible

c)

assisting medical personnel in triage and decontamination

d)

spending too much time preserving evidence for law enforcement

66.

The level of a hazmat incident is determined in accordance with the definitions in the

a)

national hazmat plan

b)

un recommendations

c)

emergency response guide

d)

local emergency response plan

67.

vapor protective ensembles must be worn with_____ when working at hazmat incident

a)

positive demand sar or open circuit scba

b)

positive demand papr or clese circuti scba

c)

positive pressure apr or combination scna/papr

d)

positive pressure scba or combination scba/sar

68.

Any design failures of chemical protective clothing (cpc) suit such as unsealed seams and zippers can allow chemical

a)

permeation

b)

penetration

c)

degradation

d)

deterioration

69.

in a nonintervention situation fist responder should

a)

control ignition ources

b)

isolate the hazard area and dent entry

c)

perform rescues when safe and appropriate

d)

perform emergency decontamination procedures

70.

What should you look for on an intermodal container to help locate the emergency shutoff device

a)

hyellow or orange handle

b)

the shipping papers will give directions

c)

metal cable running down one side of the frame rail

d)

permaine marking stenciled on the side of the tank

71.

When identifying a hazardous material transported by truck a responder can locate shipping papers

a)

in the truck

b)

with the cargo

c)

near the driver

d)

in the bunk area

72.

The first priority at any hazmat incident is the

a)

protection of property

b)

preservation of evidence

c)

protection of the environment

d)

protection and safety of emergency responders

73.

The primary hazrd of choking agents is that they cause damage to the

a)

lungs

b)

throat

c)

chest cavity

d)

muscles in the face

74.

Odors should not be used to determine safe or unsafe areas because

a)

most gases with strong odors are not hazardous

b)

they are unrelated to the hazards present at a scene

c)

it is not as reliable an indicator of hazards as appearance is

d)

some highly toxic products may cause significant damage at a concentrations below the odor threshold

75.

The hazard and risk assessment of an incident size up is

a)

only done on arrival

b)

a continual evaluation

c)

viewed as minor priority

d)

done only during preincident planning