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Auditing Theory Evaluation

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When obtaining an understanding of the entity and its environment, including its internal control, the auditor may identify events or conditions that indicate an incentive or pressure to commit fraud or provide an opportunity to commit fraud. Such events or conditions are referred to as

a)

Fraud conditions

b)

Fraud risk factors

c)

Fraudulent activities

d)

Fraud environment

2.

When the prior period financial statements are not audited, the incoming auditor should state in the auditor’s report that:

I. The corresponding figures are unaudited;

II. The incoming auditor is not required to perform procedures regarding opening

balances of the current period.

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

Both I and II

d)

Neither I and II

3.

Which of the following is ordinarily considered a test of internal control procedures? 

a)

Send confirmation letters to banks

b)

Count and list cash on hand

c)

Examine signatures on check vouchers

d)

Obtain or prepare reconciliations of bank accounts as of the balance sheet date

4.

When the total fees generated by an assurance client represent a large proportion of a firm’s total fees, the dependence on that client or client group and concern about the possibility of losing the client may create a/an

a)

Self-interest threat

b)

Self-review threat

c)

Intimidation threat

d)

Advocacy Threat

5.

An auditor intends to perform tests of control on a client’s cash disbursements procedures. If the control procedures leave no audit trail of documentary evidence, the auditor most likely will test the procedures by

a)

Inquiry and analytical procedures

b)

Inquiry and observation

c)

Analytical procedures and confirmation

d)

Confirmation and observation

6.

Which of the following tests of controls most likely would help assure an auditor that goods shipped are properly billed?

a)

Scan the sales journal for sequential and unusual entries.

b)

Examine shipping documents for matching sales invoices.

c)

Compare the accounts receivable ledger to daily sales summaries.

d)

Inspect unused sales invoices for consecutive prenumbering.

7.

Which of the following is of least concern to an auditor in assessing the risks of material misstatement?

a)

Signed checks are distributed by the controller to approved payees

b)

Checks are signed by one person.

c)

Cash receipts are not deposited intact daily

d)

Treasurer does not verify the names and addresses of check payees

8.

Analytical procedures performed in the overall review stage of an audit suggest that several accounts have unexpected relationships. The results of these procedures most likely indicate that

a)

The communication with the audit committee should be revised.

b)

Irregularities exist among the relevant account balances.

c)

Additional substantive tests of details are required

d)

Internal control activities are not operating effectively.

9.

Which of the following conditions or events most likely would cause an auditor to have substantial doubt about an entity’s ability to continue as a going concern?

a)

Cash flows from operating activities are negative.

b)

Stock dividends replace annual cash dividends.

c)

Significant related party transactions are pervasive.

d)

Research and development projects are postponed.

10.

Which of the following most likely would give the most assurance concerning the valuation and allocation assertion of accounts receivable?

a)

Vouching amounts in the subsidiary ledger to details on shipping documents.

b)

Comparing receivable turnover ratios with industry statistics for reasonableness

c)

Inquiring about receivables pledged under loan agreements

d)

Conducting an assessment of the provisions or allowances for doubtful accounts

11.

The preliminary judgment about materiality and the amount of audit evidence accumulated are ________ related.

a)

directly

b)

indirectly

c)

not

d)

inversely

12.

Which of the following is not an auditing procedure that is commonly used in performing tests of controls?

a)

Conducting inquiries

b)

Documenting observations

c)

Evaluating the reasonable of allowances of doubtful accounts

d)

Inspecting supporting documents

13.

Which of the following conditions would not normally cause the auditor to question whether material errors or possible fraud exists?

a)

The general ledger is not integrated with the subsidiary ledger

b)

Differences exist between control accounts and subsidiary records

c)

Transactions are not supported by proper documentation

d)

There are frequent changes of auditors

14.

To determine whether the client's system of internal control operated effectively to minimize errors of failure to invoice a shipment, the auditor would select a sample of transactions from the population represented by the

a)

Customer order file

b)

Bill of lading file

c)

Open invoice file

d)

Sales invoice file

15.

Proper segregation of functional responsibilities in an effective structure of internal controls calls for separation of functions of

a)

Authorization, execution and payment

b)

Authorization, recording and custody

c)

Receiving, custody and recording

d)

Authorization, payment and recording

16.

When the auditor attempts to understand the operation of the accounting system by tracing a few transactions through the accounting system, the auditor is said to be:

a)

Tracing

b)

Vouching

c)

Performing a walkthrough

d)

Testing Controls

17.

An auditor uses the knowledge provided by the understanding of internal control and the final assessed level of control risk primarily to determine the nature, timing and extent of the

a)

Attribute tests

b)

Test of Controls

c)

Sampling Procedure

d)

Substantive Procedures

18.

After conducting a walkthrough, an auditor determines that the design of the internal control is effective to prevent or detect risks of material misstatements. What should the auditor do next?

a)

Perform analytical procedures

b)

Perform test of controls

c)

Perform reduced substantive testing

d)

Increase the sample size

19.

An assertion that transactions are recorded in the proper accounting period is

a)

Existence

b)

Accuracy

c)

Occurrence

d)

Cut-off

20.

Evidence is generally considered appropriate when:

a)

it has been obtained by random selection

b)

there is enough of it to afford a reasonable basis for an opinion on the financial statements

c)

it has the qualities of being relevant, objective and free from known bias

d)

it consists of written statements made by managers of the enterprise under audit

21.

Which of the following is least likely to be an output of an Accounting Information System?

a)

A check

b)

A report

c)

An invoice

d)

A bar code

22.

A Chart of Accounts would be a good example of a:

a)

Transaction file

b)

Master file

c)

Field

d)

Record

23.

Which of the following is a compensating control?

a)

Transaction authorization

b)

Supervision

c)

3-way matching

d)

Independent verification

24.

Three-way matching is performed by comparing these documents:

a)

Purchase requisition, sales order and invoice

b)

Purchase order, receiving report and sales invoice

c)

Purchase order, receiving report and check voucher

d)

Receiving report, sales invoice and check voucher

25.

The management and control of all materials, funds, and related information in the logistics process, from the acquisition of raw materials to the delivery of finished products to the end user is referred to as:

a)

Supply chain management

b)

Management information system

c)

Logistics management

d)

Accounting information system

26.

Audit sampling for test of control is generally appropriate when

a)

Control leaves evidence of performance

b)

Control leaves no evidence of performance

c)

100% of the transactions are tested

d)

Examining specific high value items in the population

27.

If the auditor is concerned that a population may contain exceptions, the determination of a sample size sufficient to include at least one such exception is a characteristic of

a)

Discovery sampling

b)

Random sampling

c)

Systematic sampling

d)

Stratified sampling

28.

Which of the following is not an expert upon whose work an auditor may rely?

a)

Actuary

b)

Internal auditor

c)

Appraiser

d)

Engineer

29.

The sufficiency and appropriateness of evidential matter ultimately is based on

a)

the availability of corroborating data

b)

Philippine Standards on Auditing

c)

Philippine Financial Reporting Standards

d)

auditor judgment

30.

Which of the following is not a medium that can normally be used by an auditor to record information concerning a client's internal control policies and procedures? 

a)

Narrative memorandum

b)

Procedures manual

c)

Flowchart

d)

Questionnaire

31.

Which of the following should an auditor obtain from the predecessor auditor prior to accepting an audit engagement?

a)

Analysis of balance short accounts

b)

Analysis of income statements accounts

c)

All matters of continuing accounting significance

d)

Facts that might bear on the integrity of management

32.

An example of a document that the auditor receives from the client, but which was prepared by someone outside the client’s organization, is a:

a)

Secretary's Certificate

b)

Billing Statement supporting Client's Sales

c)

Vendor Invoices

d)

Bank Reconciliation

33.

Which of the following is not correct regarding an auditor’s decision that a lower acceptable audit risk is appropriate?

a)

More evidence is accumulated

b)

Less evidence is accumulated

c)

Special care is required in assigning experienced staff

d)

Review of audit documentation is performed by personnel not assigned to the engagement

34.

Audit sampling for substantive tests is appropriate when

a)

Analytical procedures are used

b)

The auditor wants to eliminate sampling risks

c)

A population contains small number of large value items

d)

Tests of details are performed

35.

The relationship between sample size and the allowable sampling risks is

a)

Direct

b)

Indirect

c)

Inverse

d)

Equivalent to the standard deviation of detection risk multiplied by the product of inherent risk and control risk

36.

In assessing sample risk, alpha risk relates to the

a)

Efficiency of the audit

b)

Effectiveness of the audit

c)

Selection of the sample

d)

Audit quality controls

37.

In assessing sample risk, beta risk relates to the

a)

Efficiency of the audit

b)

Effectiveness of the audit

c)

Selection of the sample

d)

Determination of the audit assertions for testing

38.

The audit engagement letter should generally include a reference to each of the following except

a)

The expectation of receiving a written management representation letter

b)

A request for the client to confirm the terms of engagement

c)

A description of the auditor’s method of sample selection

d)

The risk that material misstatements may remain undiscovered

39.

A procedure designed to test for monetary misstatements directly affecting the validity of the financial statement balances is a

a)

Test of Controls

b)

Substantive Test

c)

Test of 1

d)

Monetary-unit sampling test

40.

An auditor should design the written audit program so that

a)

All material transactions will be selected for substantive testing

b)

Substantive tests prior to the balance sheet date will be minimized

c)

The audit procedures selected will achieve specific audit objectives

d)

Each account balance will be tested under either tests of controls or tests of transactions.