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DANB --Infection Control Board Mock Exam Prep

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The risk of infection is increased if all of the following conditions are present except

a)

susceptible host

b)

pathogens

c)

protective barriers

d)

portal of entry into body

2.

TRUE or FALSE

The needlestick Safety and Prevention Act that directs OSHA, revised the bloodborne pathogen standard in 2001.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

3.

Which of the following is the most common type of latex allergy?

a)

Type I allergic reaction

b)

Irritant dermatitis

c)

Type IV allergic reaction

d)

Type II allergic recation

e)

None of the above

4.

Which of the following is the first procedural step after an exposure incident?

a)

Remove your gloves.

b)

Stop operations immediately.

c)

Contact the source patient.

d)

Wash your hands thoroughly.

e)

All of the above

5.

Tuberculosis is spread to others by

a)

Saliva contact

b)

Coughing

c)

Cross contamination by a dental procedure

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

6.

The type of bacteria that must have oxygen to live and grow is

a)

Anaerobic

b)

Facultative anaerobic

c)

Aerobic

d)

None of the above

7.

Which governmental agency controls the safety and effectiveness of surface disinfectants?

a)

FDA

b)

DEPA

c)

EPA

d)

CDC

8.

Hands should be washed

1.  before and after using gloves

2.  with an antimicrobial soap

3.  for a full 15 seconds between each patient

4.  for a full 5 minutes if part of a surgical dental team

a)

1, 2, 3

b)

1, 3

c)

2, 4

d)

4

e)

all of the above

9.

A person who is unable to resist infection by a particular pathogen is known as _______ in the chain of infection.

a)

virulence

b)

a susceptible host

c)

infectious pathogens

d)

infectious disease

10.

The recording of the highest temperature reached during a sterilization cycle is an example of _______ monitoring?

a)

Physical

b)

Chemical

c)

Biological

d)

None of the above

11.

_________ items or instruments that pose the least risk of transmission of infection because they contact only intact skin, which is an effective barrier to microorganisms. These items should be cleaned and processed with an Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)–registered intermediate-level or low-level disinfectant after each patient use.

a)

Non-Critical Instruments

b)

Semi-Critical Instruments

c)

Critical Instruments

d)

None of the above

12.

TRUE or FALSE

Examination gloves used for dental treatment can be made of either latex or vinyl.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

13.

Before disinfecting a clinical contact surface, you must?

a)

preclean the surface

b)

wipe the surface with a high-level disinfectant.

c)

cover with plastics for at least 10 mins

d)

mist the surface with a diluted alcohol mixture

14.

Heavy utility gloves are used when?

a)

intraoral procedures

b)

radiograph processing

c)

entering data in the chairside computers

d)

working with contaminated instruments

e)

All of the above

15.

Which sterilizations method allows instruments to be processed wet?

a)

Dry Heat Static Air

b)

Unsaturated Chemical Vapor

c)

Rapid Heat Transfer

d)

Steam Autoclave

e)

All of the above

16.

Which of the following is an example of regulated medical waste?

a)

Used surgical masks

b)

Used disposable gowns

c)

Used anesthetic needles

d)

Used examination gloves

17.

The goal of an infection control program is to prevent disease transmission from?

a)

Patient to Patient

b)

Patient to Dental Staff

c)

Dental Staff to Patient

d)

All of the above

18.

The CDC recommends that biological monitoring of sterilization equipment be done?

a)

Every Load

b)

Weekly

c)

Monthly

d)

Bi-Monthly

e)

Yearly

19.

____________ are items/ instruments that are used to penetrate soft tissue or bone. They have the greatest risk of transmitting infection and are to be sterilized by heat

a)

Non-Critical Instruments.

b)

Semi-Critical Instruments.

c)

Critical Instruments.

d)

None of the above

20.

How does HIV cause AIDS?

a)

It destroys the liver

b)

it destroys the ability to control muscle action

c)

it destroys the body defenses against diseases

d)

it paralyzes the body

21.

The most important source of potentially infectious microbes in the dental office is

a)

water

b)

air

c)

insects

d)

the patients mouth

e)

none of the above

22.

Some products require ____ of submersion to sterilize.

a)

10 hours

b)

10 minutes

c)

30 minutes

d)

10 days

e)

30 days

23.

TRUE or FLASE

If sterilization has occurred, some forms of microorganisms have been destroyed.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

24.

Which of the following can prevent contamination of a clean instrument or any object handled during treatment?

a)

Rubbing alcohol

b)

Spraying with surface disinfectant

c)

The 5-second rule

d)

Overgloves

25.

_________ transmission means touching or contact with the patient’s blood or saliva.

a)

Direct

b)

Indirect

c)

Airborne

d)

Spatter

26.

In order for an infection to occur, 4 conditions must be present. Which of the following does not accurately describe theses conditions

a)

Number of microorganisms

b)

Virulence

c)

Portal of entry

d)

Any available host

e)

All of the above

27.

Tuberculosis is transmitted through which of the following?

a)

Fecal-Oral Transmission

b)

Indirect Transmission

c)

Airborne Transmission

d)

Vehicular Transmission

e)

None of the above

28.

What is the single MOST effective means of preventing the transmission of disease in the dental office?

a)

Use of gloves

b)

Use of masks

c)

Proper Hand Hygiene

d)

Use of Alcohol based hand rubs

29.

When disposing of regulated waste, what set of regulations must be followed?

a)

County

b)

State

c)

Federal

d)

Which ever is the most stringent

30.

What type of sterilization monitoring is used to determine if sterilization has actually occurred?

a)

Chemical and Biological Monitoring

b)

Chemical Monitoring

c)

Physical Monitoring

d)

Physicals and Chemical Monitoring

e)

Biological Monitoring

31.

Clinical Contact surfaces that have been contaminated by blood should be disinfected using?

a)

High- Level EPA registered disinfectant

b)

Liquid Chemical Sterilant

c)

Low- Level EPA registered disinfectant

d)

Sodium Hypochlorite

e)

Intermediate- Level EPA registered disinfectant

32.

A Low- Level EPA Registered Disinfectant is not effective against which of the following?

a)

Aspergillus

b)

HIV

c)

HBV

d)

Influenza

e)

None of the above

33.

How often does the exposure control pan need to be updated?

a)

Biannually

b)

Weekly

c)

Annually

d)

Every 3 years

e)

Every 3 months

34.

________ items or instruments that touch mucous membranes or nonintact skin and have a lower risk of transmission. Most of these items in dentistry are heat tolerant, and they should be sterilized.

a)

Non-Critical instrument

b)

Semi-Critical instrument

c)

Critical instrument

d)

None of the above

35.

An advantage to using single- use disposable items in the dental office would be?

a)

Lower cost

b)

Ability to reuse the item after sterilization if desired

c)

Environmentally Friendly

d)

More efficient for difficult to clean items

36.

Which airborne infectious disease is a leading cause of death worldwide and is an occupational risk for healthcare workers?

a)

HIV

b)

Legionnaire's Disease

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Tetanus

e)

None of the above

37.

What is the FIRST step in treating a needle stick injury to a finger?

a)

Apply antibacterial ointment

b)

Apply surgical disinfectant soap

c)

Use soap and water to was the affected area as soon as possible following injury

d)

Wash with soap and water, then apply an antiseptic ointment.

e)

None of the above.

38.

What is the name of the law that prohibits discrimination against patients who are HIV positive?

a)

HIV Protection Act

b)

Equal Rights Amendment

c)

HIPAA

d)

American with Disability Act

39.

Which type of hepatitis is spread through fecal- oral transmisson

a)

Hepatitis A

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Hepatitis B

d)

Hepatitis D

40.

Which of the following items is classified as semicritical

a)

Bur

b)

Scaler

c)

Lead Apron

d)

Rubber Dam Forceps

e)

All of the above

41.

Which of the following OSHA standards is written to protect the dental healthcare workers from occupational exposure to infectious disease?

a)

Hazardous Communication Standard

b)

Universal Precaution Standard

c)

Bloodborne Pathogen Standard

d)

Exposure Control Standard

42.

Gloves contaminated during dental procedures should be discarded in the?

a)

Regulated medical waste receptacle

b)

Biohazard receptacle

c)

Sharps Container

d)

Regular Waste Receptacle

43.

Which of the following types of waste must be identified with a biohazard label?

a)

Regulated Waste

b)

General Waste

c)

Hazardous Waste

d)

Chemical Waste

e)

All of the above

44.

When evaluating the effectiveness of the sterilizer, what is used as the test medium?

a)

Fungal Protoplasts

b)

Viral Capsids

c)

Bacterial Endspores

d)

Protozal Membranes

45.

What is the MOST common liquid sterilant?

a)

Phenol

b)

Sodium Hypochlorite

c)

Glutaraldehyde

d)

Quaternary Ammonium

e)

None of the above

46.

Sterilization is defined as?

a)

the reduction of pathogenic microorganisms to a safe level

b)

the destruction of some life forms

c)

the destruction of all life forms

d)

the destruction of only bacterial spores.

47.

Which of the following chemicals is a high- level disinfectant ?

a)

Idophors

b)

Sodium Hypoclorite

c)

Chlorine Dioxide

d)

Alcohol

48.

Utilizing the universal/universal precautions is enforced by the?

a)

CDC

b)

OSAP

c)

FDA

d)

ADA

e)

OSHA

49.

Chemicals that are identified as a s health hazard are color coded?

a)

Yellow

b)

White

c)

Red

d)

Blue

e)

None of the above

50.

Waste that has been in contact with blood or other body fluids; in most states, disposed of as general waste

a)

General Waste

b)

Hazardous Waste

c)

Contaminated Waste

d)

Chemical Waste

51.

Check all that apply-

What are examples of Hazardous Waste?

a)

Spent fixer solution

b)

Food container

c)

Scrap Amalgam

d)

Lead foil from X-Ray film packet

e)

Used anesthetics needle

52.

Check all that apply-

What are examples of Infectious Waste?

a)

Scrap Amalgam

b)

Blood soaked guaze

c)

Used Anesthetic needle

d)

Extracted Teeth

e)

Used fixer solution

53.

Check all that apply-

What are examples of General or Contaminated Waste?

a)

Extracted teeth

b)

Used mixing pad paper

c)

Saliva soaked gauze

d)

Food containers

e)

Scrap Amalgam

54.

When recapping a needle, which of the following techniques should be used?

a)

Two- Handed Scoop

b)

One-Handed Scoop

c)

Bent Needle Technique

d)

Broken Needle Technique

e)

Two Handed without recapping device

55.

If a dental office fails to meet safety reequipments identified in the OSHA standards, which of the following will result?

a)

OSHA will close the office until the problem is corrected

b)

OSHA will revoke the dentist's license to practice dentistry

c)

OSHA will revoke the license and certificates if each dental staff involved

d)

OSHA will send an inspector to the office on a daily basis

e)

None of the above

56.

What is the most common type of latex allergy?

a)

Irritant Allergic Reaction

b)

Irritant Contact Dermatitis

c)

Allergic contact dermatitis

d)

Immediate Allergic Reaction

57.

The scavenging system______?

a)

Controls the flow of nitrogen oxide/ oxygen

b)

reduces the nitrogen oxide that escapes into the dental office atmosphere

c)

carries nitrogen oxide/ oxygen from the reservoir bag to the mask or nosepiece

d)

delivers nitrogen oxide/oxygen to the patient as a nasal inhaler

58.

Regulated medical waste comprises what percentage of a dental office's total waste

a)

3%

b)

5%

c)

20-25%

d)

50%

59.

Which gloves are recommended to assist in the placement of amalgam?

a)

Sterile Surgical

b)

Utility

c)

Examination

d)

Over gloves

60.

Check all that apply

Which of the following are killed during sterilization?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Spores

c)

Fungi

d)

Viruses

61.

A chemical spill victim with immediate symptoms of dizziness, headache, nausea, and vomiting is experiencing

a)

Chronic Chemical Toxicity

b)

Acute Chemical Toxicity

c)

Mild Exposure

d)

Chemical Resistance

62.

Which are NOT killed or inactivated by intermediate-level disinfection?

a)

Fungi

b)

Bacteria

c)

Viruses

d)

Spores

63.

Dental professionals are to use surgical masks and protective eyewear?

a)

Only during surgical procedures

b)

whenever the high speed handpiece is used

c)

whenever spatter and aerosolized sprays of blood and saliva are likely

d)

if desired

64.

Which agency regulations apply to the handling of waste in the dental office?

a)

OSHA

b)

EPA

c)

CDC

d)

FDA

65.

Packaging instruments prior to sterilization?

a)

help minimize instrument rusting and dulling

b)

reduces instrument damage from occurring

c)

maintains instrument sterility after processing

d)

prevents organizing instruments into functional groups

66.

How often should spore testing of sterilizers be executed?

a)

Every morning

b)

Once a week

c)

Only after "High Risk" patient

d)

if the sterilizer has been turned off for over 24 hours

67.

Biofilm in a dental unit waterline exemplifies which type of disease transmission?

a)

Dental team to Patient

b)

Patient to Dental Team

c)

Dental office to Community

d)

Community to Dental office to Patient

68.

The main source of infectious microorganisms in a dental office is

a)

the practitioner's hands

b)

airborne particles

c)

water

d)

patients mouths

69.

Which item of personal protective equipment (PPE) is donned last?

a)

Gown

b)

Mask

c)

Gloves

d)

Eyeglasses

70.

Which agent is most lethal?

a)

Sporicidal

b)

Virucidal

c)

Tuberculocidal

d)

Bacteriocidal

71.

Which disinfectant tends to produce yellow staining?

a)

Alcohol

b)

Phenol

c)

Bleach

d)

Iodophor

72.

Which best describes an intermediate-level surface disinfectant?

a)

Bactericidal

b)

Sporicidal

c)

Tuberculocidal

d)

Virucidal

73.

Which does NOT minimize the amount of dental aerosols and spatter generated during treatment?

a)

High Volume Evacuation

b)

Rubber Dams

c)

Preprocedural Mouth Rinse

d)

Saliva Ejector

74.

A sharps container is an example of which?

a)

Administrative Control

b)

Work Practice Control

c)

Engineering Control

d)

Personal Protective Equipment

75.

How often should high speed handpieces or air/water syringes be flushed with water?

a)

After each patient

b)

At the time of lubrication

c)

Once a day

d)

Once a week

76.

Who is known as the "Father of Microbiology"

a)

Robert Koch

b)

Joseph Lister

c)

Louis Pasteur

d)

Antony van Leeuwenhoek

77.

_________is recognized worldwide for her research into the dental issues related to the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). ____ discovered oral “hairy” leukoplakia and opened a new arena of research into both HIV/AIDS and Epstein-Barr virus.

a)

Robert Koch

b)

Deborah Greenspan

c)

Nellie Pooler Chapman

d)

Louis Pasteur

78.

___introduced the earliest belief that life was “spontaneously generated” from nonliving matter. This theory remained unchallenged for more than 2000 years. According to this theory, living things arose from muck, decaying food, warm rain, or even dirty shirts.

a)

John Tyndall

b)

Aristotle

c)

Joseph Lister

d)

Antony van Leeuwenhoek

79.

_________was an English surgeon who recognized the role of airborne microorganisms in postsurgical infection.

a)

John Tyndall

b)

Joseph Lister

c)

Louis Pasteur

d)

Robert Koch

80.

___________was a German physician who provided the techniques and discipline necessary to guide future microbiologists. He developed a two-part dish that was used for growing bacteria and a technique used for isolating pure colonies of bacteria

a)

Robert Koch

b)

Louis Pasteur

c)

John Tyndall

d)

Aristotle

81.

____was an English physicist who explained the need for prolonged heating to destroy microbial life in broth. He discovered that bacteria existed in heat-stable and heat-sensitive forms. Prolonged or intermittent heating was needed to destroy the heat-stable form. Intermittent heating, now called tyndallization, killed both forms.

a)

Robert Koch

b)

John Tyndall

c)

Louis Pasteur

d)

Aristotle

82.

____reproduce by dividing into two. ___ that form chains as they divide are called streptococci. Examples of infections caused by streptococci include pharyngitis (a severe sore throat commonly known as “strep throat”), tonsillitis, pneumonia, and endocarditis . ____ that form irregular groups or clusters are called staphylococci. Examples of infections caused by staphylococci include boils 263and other skin infections, endocarditis, and pneumonia.

a)

Bacilli

b)

Cocci

c)

Spirochetes

d)

None of the above

83.

______are rod-shaped bacteria. Tuberculosis is a disease that is caused by a bacillus.

a)

Cocci

b)

Bacilli

c)

Spirochetes

d)

All of the above

84.

______are spiral-shaped bacteria that have flexible cell walls and are capable of movement. Lyme disease, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected deer tick

a)

Cocci

b)

Bacilli

c)

Spirochetes

d)

None of the above

85.

______are responsible for mad cow disease and are linked to human diseases such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease and possibly Alzheimer’s disease.

a)

Spores

b)

Algea

c)

Prions

d)

Fungi

86.

______ is a defective virus that cannot replicate itself without the presence of HBV.

a)

HAV

b)

HBV

c)

HCV

d)

HEV

87.

Check all that apply.

Which of the following Hepatitis Viruses can be transmitted trough fecal- oral transmission?

a)

HAV

b)

HBV

c)

HCV

d)

HDV

e)

HEV

88.

Check all that apply.

Which of the following Hepatitis Viruses can be transmitted trough Percutaneous and mucosal tissues?

a)

HAV

b)

HBV

c)

HCV

d)

HDV

e)

HEV

89.

_____is not transmitted through blood-borne contact. It is most frequently transmitted via the fecal-oral route through contaminated food or water.

a)

HAV

b)

HBV

c)

HCV

d)

HDV

e)

HEV

90.

____-infection is a blood-borne viral disease in which the body’s immune system breaks down. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is caused by _____. When ___ enters the body, it infects special T cells and slowly kills them.

a)

HBV

b)

HCV

c)

HIV

d)

AIDS

91.

________which is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is the leading cause of death from infectious diseases worldwide.

a)

HIV

b)

HBV

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Legionnaires'

92.

______which is also known as lockjaw, is an extremely dangerous and often fatal disease that is caused by a spore-forming bacillus found in soil, dust, or animal or human feces.

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Legionnaires'

c)

Tetanus

d)

None of the above

93.

OSHA's Hazardous Communication Standards is concerned with preventing occupational exposure to dangerous____?

a)

Patients

b)

Diseases

c)

Chemicals

d)

Procedures

94.

Which of the following diseases is easily transmitted in the healthcare setting?

a)

HIV/AIDS

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

MRSA

d)

Hepatitis A

95.

Extracted teeth are considered?

a)

General Waste

b)

Regulated Waste

c)

Nonregulated Waste

d)

Contaminated Waste

96.

Check all that apply.

All DUWLs and handpieces should be flushed ______

a)

every night

b)

every morning

c)

20 to 30 minutes after each patient

d)

20 - 30 seconds after each patient.

97.

TRUE or FALSE

Flushing will not remove biofilm from the lines; biofilm can form while water is moving through the lines.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

98.

OSHA requires that all eyewash stations be inspected ________ to ensure that they are functioning properly. A record of the date of each inspection must be maintained

a)

Daily

b)

Weekly

c)

Monthly

d)

Yearly

99.

How often should a face mask be replaced?

a)

Every 30 minutes

b)

Between each patient

c)

Upon the completion of the day

d)

Every hour

100.

Check all that apply

Who is responsible for ensuring that all infection controls standards are being met all day everyday in the dental practice?

a)

Dentist

b)

Dental Assistant

c)

Hygienist

d)

Laboratory Technician/ Assistant

e)

Sterilization Assistant