WorksheetsPharmaceutics I Midterm
Total questions: 181
Worksheet time: 2hrs 33mins
1. The thickness of the diffusion layer can be reduced to improve the dissolution rate
by ..............
a. Particles-size reduction
b. Stirring
c. Increasing the Cs
d. Increasing the tempreture
2. According to Noyes Whitney equation, the sink condition is achieved when the drug's ......
a. Cs (surface) << Ct (bulk)
b. Cs (surface) >> Ct (bulk)
c. Cs (surface) = Ct (bulk)
d. None of all
3. The bioavailability of Griseofulvin (antifungal medication) could be increased via ....
a. the preparation of salt
b. No way to increase its bioavailability
c. the preparation of micronized powder
d. None of the above
4. The rate-limiting step for the absorption of hydrophilic drugs is ............
a. Dissolution in the GIT media
b. Diffusion through the cell membrane
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
5. The diffusion coefficient (D) depends on all, except ......................
a. Drug’s molecular mass
b. Temperature
c. The surface area of the solid particles
d. The viscosity of the dissolution medium
6. Increasing the surface area of the powder can be achieved through .............
a. Particles size-reduction
b. Milling
c. Micronization process
d. Any of all
7. According to Noyes–Whitney equation, the rate of dissolution increases with .........
a. Increasing surface area
b. Increasing saturation solubility of the drug in
c. Increasing thickness of the diffusion layer
d. A and B
8. The unionized species of the weak organic acid is of a higher partition coefficient than the ionized ones.
a. True
b. False
9. Drugs of high Log P > 10, means they are very hydrophilic.
a. True
b False
10. For determining the apparent partition coefficient at any pH, which of the following parameter is useful?
a. The concentration of drug at octanol -1
b. Diffusion coefficient
c. pKa value
d. Distribution coefficient
11. Slightly soluble means .............
a. 10 to 30 parts
b. 30 to 100 parts
c. 1 to 10 parts
d. 100 to 1000 part
12. Practically insoluble means .......
a. 10 to 30 parts
b. 30 to 100 parts
c. 1 to 10 parts
d. None of the above
13. Very soluble means ............
a. 10 to 30 parts
b. 30 to 100 parts
c. Less than 1 part
d. 1 to 10 parts
14. Which one of the following is NOT true?
a. Hydrophobic drugs have low solubility in water.
b. Hydrophobic drugs are easily wetted.
c. Hydrophobic drugs dissolve slowly.
d. Drugs can be hydrophilic or hydrophobic.
15. Different polymorphs forms of a drug can have the same .........
a. Melting points
b. Molecular formulae
c. Solubilities
d. Crystal habits
16. Aspirin possesses which shape?
a. Cubic
b. Needle-like shape
c. Hexagonal
d. Rhombic
17. Ionic compounds possess the properties ............
a. Hard
b. Brittle
c. Soluble
d. All of the above
18. The word polymorphism means ..............
a. Many programs
b. Two forms
c. Single form
d. Many shapes
19. Cyclodextrins can .................
a. Improve drugs stability
b. Enhance drugs solubility
c. Mask the unsuitable taste of the drugs
d. All the above
20. Generally, the solubility of the crystalline powder is higher than the amorphous form of the drug.
a. True
b. False
21. Generally, the salts are of higher solubility than the parent drug, EXCEPT ..........
a. Penicillin sodium
b. Penicillin benzathine
c. Penicillin potassium
d. Penicillin calcium
22. Methods used to improve drug’s solubility .........
a. Change the pH of the dissolution medium
b. Solubilization by micellization
c. Using co-solvent
d. All the above
23. One of the following is NOT for improving the drug’s solubility.
a. Inclusion complexes
b. Salt formation
c. Chemical reaction
d. Amorphous powder
24. A buffer should be added to all the pharmaceutical dosage forms, including solid and semisolid products.
a. True
b. False
25. pH is equal to log [H+]
a. True
b. False
26. Which one of the following terms describes a positive and negative charge separated in space within a molecule?
a) Salt bridge
b) Polar bond
c) Dipole
d) van der Waals interaction
27. Which one of the following represents the weakest interaction between the two species?
a) Hydrogen bond
b) Ionic bond
c) Hydrophobic force
d) Covalent bond
28. One of the solvents below is non-polar .....
a) Methanol
b) Water
c) Ethanol
d) Chloroform
29. The normal pH value of the urine is neutral to slightly acidic (pH 4.8 – 7.4).
a. True
b. False
30. For weak acids; at pH value below its pKa ........
a) [HA] > [A-].
b) [HA] < [A-].
c) [HA] = [A-].
d) None of the above.
31. For weak acids; at pH value above its pKa ........
a) [HA] > [A-].
b) [HA] < [A-].
c) [HA] = [A-].
d) None of the above.
32. The pH of neutral salt is .......
a. 7
b. < 7
c. > 7
d. 0
33.Three unknown solutions are given with pH values of pH = 6, pH =8 and pH =9.5, respectively. Which solution will contain the maximum OH– ion?
a) Solution sample-1
b) Solution sample-2
c) Solution sample-3
d) Data are insufficient
34. Level of pH found in antacid solution .........
a) ≤ 6.5
b) ≥ 7.0
c) 10
d) 14
35. The range of pH scale is .........
a) 7 to 10
b) 0 to 10
c) 0 to 14
d) 7 to 14
36. The following titration curve is the kind of curve expected
for the titration of a ____ acid with a ____ base.
a) strong, strong
b) weak, strong
c) strong, weak
d) weak, weak
37. Which of the following combinations cannot produce a buffer solution?
a) acetic acid and sodium acetate
b) oxalic acid and sodium oxalate
c) HClO4 and NaClO4
d) NH3 and (NH4)2SO4
38. One of the following systems is heterogeneous (not a true solution):
a) Zn-Insulin suspension
b) HPC (hydroxypropyl cellulose) polymer in water
c) Starch in water
d) All the above
39. Carbon tetrachloride and benzene are examples of semi-polar solvents.
a. True
b. False
40. Particles of the coarse dispersions (suspension) are invisible under an electronic microscope.
a. True
b. False
41. If a small quantity of salt is added to the unsaturated solution so it will ..............
a) Remain a true solution
b) start showing Tyndall effect
c) become a suspension
d) become a colloid
42. Out of the given mixtures, the one that appears translucent is ..............
a) Chalk powder and water
b) Gelatin and water
c) Sand and water
d) Sugar and water
43. The pH value of Lime juice on the pH scale is around 2, indicating that it is ........
a) An acidic mixture.
b) A basic mixture.
c) A neutral mixture.
44. 107. Usually, buffers are NOT added to ......
a) Eye drops.
b) Injections.
c) Oral liquids.
d) Tablets and capsules.
45. What is a pH of 0.05 M HCl solution?
a) 0.13
b) 1.30
c) 1.03
d) 13.0
46. In basic or alkaline solution .........
a) pH ≥7
b) pH < 7
c) pH = 7
d) pH > 7
47. Maximum buffer capacity is obtained when pka of the buffer = pH of the solution.
a. True
b. False.
48. Normal saline (NS 0.9% w/v) is a …………………. Solution.
a) Liquid in liquid.
b) Gas in liquid.
c) Solid in solid.
d) Solid in liquid isotonic solution.
49. [OH-] = √ Kb C. This equation is used for a …....
a) Weak base.
b) Strong base.
c) Strong acid.
d) Weak acid.
50. pH = ½ (pKa – log C). This equation is useful for calculating the pH of a ….
a) Weak base.
b) Strong base.
c) Strong acid.
d) Weak acid.
51. Ammonium hydroxide and ammonium chloride solution is a good example of a basic buffer system.
a. True.
b. False.
52. One of the factors below affects significantly the solubility of gases liquids.
a) Nature of liquid.
b) The freezing point of a liquid
c) The purity of liquid.
d) Temperature.
53. Sodium hydroxide is a ……
a. Strong acid
b. Strong base.
c. Salt.
d. Buffer.
54. For weak acids; at pH value equals to pKa ..........
a) [HA] > [A-].
b) [HA] < [A-].
c) [HA] = [A-].
d) None of the above.
55. One of the following characteristics is not for acids :
a) Their taste is sour.
b) They can conduct electricity.
c) They have a pH above 7.
d) They turn the litmus paper to red.
56. The buffer capacity is maximum when .........
a) The ratio of the salt to the acid or base 1:1
b) When pH = pKa
c) Any of the above
d) None of the above
57. ……………………. are examples of physiological buffers.
a) Bicarbonates
b) Phosphates
c) Amino acids and proteins
d) All the above.
58. Solutions that are more dilute than the isotonic solutions are called ...............
a) Hypotonic solutions.
b) Hypertonic solutions.
c) Iso-osmotic solutions.
d) Semitonic solutions.
59. Strong acids are completely ionized in the aqueous solution; this means ......................
a) They ionize 50 %
b) They ionize 99 %
c) They ionize 100 %
d) They ionize 1 %
60. Aspirin acetylsalicylic acid (pKa = 3.5) is …….
a) A weak acidic drug.
b) A basic drug.
c) Non-ionic drug.
d) Non-electrolyte compound.
61. In neutral solution [H+] = [OH-] = 10^-7 and pH = 7
a. True
b. False
62. Which of the following acetate buffers will take more acid or base to deplete (more buffer capacity)?
a) Acetate buffer 0.05 M.
b) Acetate buffer 0.5 M.
c) Acetate buffer 0.005 M.
d) Acetate buffer 0.01M.
63. The Henderson–Hasselbalch equation for weak acid is (pH = pKa + log [HA] / [H+]).
a. True
b. False
64. The Henderson–Hasselbalch equation for weak acid is (pH = pKw + log [H+] / [HA])
a. True
b. False
65. Osmosis refers to the flow of solvent molecules through a semipermeable membrane from high concentration to low concentration of the solution.
a. True
b. False
66. If a large volume of 50% w/v glucose (hypertonic) solution is mixed with the blood, this may result in :
a) Swelling of RBCs.
b) Rapture of RBCs.
c) Shrinkage of RBCs.
d) No effect.
67. Out of the given mixtures, the one that appears clear and transparent (i.e. true solution) is ........
a) Chalk powder and water.
b) Starch and water.
c) Sand and water.
d) The soluble dye in water.
68. Kw = [H+] x [OH-] and equals to:
a) 1 x 10^-14 M^2
b) 1 x 10^-15 M^2
c) 10 x 10^-14 M^2
d) 1 x 10+10^-14 M^2
69. Kw is called the ...............
a) Ion product constant for base.
b) Ion product constant for acid.
c) Ion product constant for water.
70. In general, the degree of ionization of acidic preservatives affects their antimicrobial effectiveness.
a. True.
b. False
71. Does the buffer's concentration affect its capacity?
a. Yes
b. No
72. The Henderson–Hasselbalch equation for weak base is (pH = pKw - pKb + log [HA] /[H+])
a. True
b. False
73. Glucose in water is an electrolyte solution.
a. True
b. False
74. The [H+] concentration in the solution is 1.0 X 10-5 M, so the answer is ........
a) Basic solution.
b) Neutral solution.
c) Strong basic solution.
d) Acidic solution.
75. The solvent which possesses the highest dielectric constant (polarity) is ..............
a) Acetone.
b) Ether.
c) Chloroform.
d) Water.
76. An amino acid can act as an acid and a base. True or false?
a. True
b. False
77. A strong acid has a large Ka value. True or false?
a. True
b. False
78. A buffer solution contains ethanoic acid and its conjugate base; the pKa of ethanoic acid is 4.74. At what pH does the solution buffer?
a. 3.0
b. 4.0
c. 5.0
d. 6.0
79. Which of the following comprises a buffer solution?
a) A weak acid in solution
b) A strong acid in solution
c) A weak base in solution
d) A weak acid and its conjugate base in solution
80. Which of the following is NOT an example of a weak acid?
a) Lactic acid
b) Carbonic acid
c) Sulfuric acid
d) Pyruvic acid
81. An aqueous solution containing a concentration of 2.5 x10-8 OH- ions will have a pH of the following?
a. 6.40
b. 6.42
c) 7.40
d) 7.60
82. Which one of the following is a weak acid?
a) HNO3
b) HI
c) HBr
d) H2CO3
83.A solution of HCl with a concentration of 4 x10^-4 mol L^-1 has a pH of the following
a. 2.67
b. 3.21
c. 3.40
d. 4.31
84. Which one of the following relationships is true in the water at 25ºC?
a) [H+] = [H2O]
b) [OH-] = [H2O^-]
c) Kw > 1x 10^-14
d) [H+] = [OH-]
85. Which of the following relationships is true for an acidic solution at 25ºC?
a) [H+] > [OH-]
b) pH > 7.00
c) Kw > 1x10^-14
d) The solution is negatively-charged
86. Which one of the following is equal to the pKa of a weak acid?
a. Its relative molecular mass
b. The pKb of its conjugate base
c. The pH of a solution containing equal amounts of the acid and its conjugate base
d. The equilibrium concentration of its conjugate base
87. Which of the following structures represents the conjugate acid of HPO4
a) H2PO^-
b) H3PO^4
c) H4PO^4+
d) PO4^3-
88. Molarity tells us _____.
a) how many grams of solute are dissolved in a given volume of solution
b) how many particles are dissolved in a given volume of solution
c) the likelihood that a given volume of solution will dissolve more solid
d) whether a solution is considered weak or strong
89. Which of the following is true about a nonpolar solution?
a) There are no intermolecular forces at work.
b) Nonpolar liquids generally do not form solutions with any other liquids.
c) Hydrogen bonds are not at work in a nonpolar solution.
d) Particles dissolved in a nonpolar solvent are not surrounded by solvent molecules
90. In a polar solution, the solute particles become dissolved when intermolecular forces cause solvent particles to surround them.
a. True
b. False
91. In a solution containing water and polar solute particles _____.
a) the polar particles will disperse randomly throughout the water
b) the polar particles form ionic bonds with water molecules
c) the polar particles will not dissolve
d) hydrogen bonding allows the particles to dissolve
92. A solution is _____.
a) a liquid mixture that must be predominantly water
b) a liquid mixture that is predominantly solvent
c) a liquid mixture that is predominantly solute
d) a liquid mixture that contains a solid
93. In an isotonic solution, the cell size will ........
a) Remain the same
b) Shrink
c) Swell
d) Significantly affected
94. The picture below represents a cell wall in solution, with red
spheres being solute particles. The solution surrounding the cell
wall is best described as:
a) Hypotonic to the cell
b) Isotonic to the cell
c) Hypertonic to the cell
95. In a hypotonic solution, the cell size will ........
a) Remain the same
b) Shrink
c) Swell
d) Not affected
96. The picture below represents a cell wall in solution, with red
spheres being solute particles. The solution surrounding the cell
wall is best described as:
a) Hypotonic to the cell fluid
b) Isotonic to the cell fluid
c) Hypertonic to the cell fluid
97. In a hypertonic solution, the cell size will:
a) Remain the same
b) Shrink
c) Swell
d) Not affected
98. The picture below represents a cell wall in solution, with red spheres
being solute particles. The solution surrounding the cell wall is best
described as ...............
a) Hypotonic to the cell fluid
b) Isotonic to the cell fluid
c) Hypertonic to the cell fluid
d) Equitonic to the cell fluid
99. A semipermeable membrane allows ..............
a) Only solute through
b) Only solvent through
c) Both solute and solvent through
100. Choose the correct trend in the theoretical van’t Hoff factor i for the nonelectrolyte solute
a) i < 1
b) i = 1
c) i > 1
101. Choose the correct trend in the theoretical van’t Hoff factor (i) for a dissociating ionic solute
a) i < 1
b) i = 1
c) i > 1
d) Non of the above
102. What is the van’t Hoff factor for the compound CH3OH?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 6
d. 9
103. What is the van’t Hoff factor for the compound Na2SO4?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
104. For drug’s solubility expression, Molality is ...........
The moles of solute in 1g of solvent
b) The moles of solute in 1g of solution
c) The moles of solute in 1kg of solvent
d) The moles of solute in 1kg of solution
105. Particles are detected neither by ordinary microscope nor electron microscopes are ...........
a) Colloidal dispersion
b) Coarse dispersion
c) True solutions
d) None of the above
106. What is the range of the particle size of molecular dispersion (true solution) ?
a. Greater than 0.5 μm
b) 1.0 nm to 500 nm
c) Less than 0.5 nm
d) None of the above
107. What is the best description of blood?
a) Sol
b) Foam
c) Solution
d) Aerosol
108. Generally, solutions contain.............
a) A very low percentage of insoluble solids
b) A low percentage of insoluble solids
c) Soluble API(s) as well as excipients
d) soluble solids.
109. Which of the following is NOT a semisolid dosage form?
a) Cream
b) spirit
c) Toothpaste
d) Gel
110. Mandl’s paint is also known as .......
a) Compound iodine paint
b) Aqueous iodine paint
c) Strong iodine paint
d) Lugol’s solution
111. Gargles must be …… before use.
a) Concentrated
b) Warmed
c) Diluted
d) Cooled
112. Linctus contains ........
A. 40% Glycerol
B. 5-40% Alcohol
C. 66.7% Sucrose
D. None of these
113. Elixir contains ...............
A. 40% Glycerol
B. 5-44% Alcohol
C. 66.7% Sucrose
D. None of these
114. Benzoic acid is a good antifungal and antibacterial preservative and provides the pH does not exceed:
a. 2
b. 9
c. 5
d. 7
115. One fluid ounce is equal to ................
a. 30 ml
b. 20 ml
c. 25 ml
d. 50 ml
116. Henderson - Hassel equation is related to
A. Buffer solution
B. Osmotic pressure
C. Absorption
D. Dissolution rate
117. If the red blood cells are placed in 5% w/v sodium chloride solution, then -
A. Hemolysis occurs
B. Shrinkage of the cells occurs
C. Cells become redder
D. None of the above
118. The aqueous solution that is saturated with volatile oil is called .............
A. Aromatic water
B. Elixirs
C. Tinctures
D. Spirits
119. Which thickening agent is inorganic and can be used for solution dosage forms?
A. Acacia
B. Compound tragacanth powder
C. Bentonite
D. None of the above
120. Lemon spirit is used in the mixtures as ............
A. Vehicle
B. Flavoring agent
C. Preservative
D. None of the above
121. A mother requests a preparation for her 5-year-old son for a chesty cough. Which of the following products is the most appropriate?
A. Dextromethorphane syrup
B. Alupent syrup
C. Vicks Medinite syrup
D. Neoclarityn syrup
122. Simple syrup is a saturated solution of ..............
A. Fructose
B. Dextrose
C. Sucrose
D. Maltose
123. The events in oral liquid packaging that are likely to occur sequentially are ................
a) Filling> Labeling>Stacking> Inspection
b) Filling> Inspection> Labeling> Stacking
c) Inspection> Filling> Labeling> Stacking
d) Inspection> Filling> Stacking> Labeling
124. Which of the following quality control test does NOT apply to elixir?
a) Consistency
b) Preservative test
c) Refractive index
d) Alcoholic contents
125. The instability of solutions can be identified by ........
a) Microbial growth
b) Precipitation
c) Chemical gas formation
d) All of the above
126. Which of the following is an example of buffers ?
a) Propylene glycol
b) Sorbitol
c) Tween 80
d) Sodium Oxalate
127. Regarding products stability, select the right order.
a) Solution > Suspension > Powder for reconstitution
b) Powder for reconstitution > Suspension > Solution
c) Suspension > Solution > Powder for reconstitution
d) Powder for reconstitution > Solution > Suspension
128. ______ is added in neomycin elixir to adjust pH between 4-5
a) Citric acid
b) Ethyl alcohol
c) Buffer
d) A and C
129. Which of the following is NOT true about the elixir?
a) Hydroalcoholic preparation
b) Can be non-medicated
c) Meant for oral use
d) Do not contain water
130. Syrup can be formulated by methods except ..............
a) Simple solution method
b) Extraction process
c) Percolation
d) Chemical reaction
131. Which of the following ingredient is added in syrup to prevent the crystallization of sucrose?
a) Glycerin
b) Sorbitol
c) Propylene glycol
d) All of the above
132. Concentration of simple syrup BP is ............
a) 85% w/v
b) 66.7% w/v
c) 66.7% w/w
d) 65% w/w
133. Following liquid dosage form can be used internally
a) Syrup
b) Simple solution
c) Elixirs
d) All of the above
134. Concentration of simple syrup USP is ........
a) 85% w/v
b) 66.7% w/v
c) 66.7% w/w
d) 65% w/w
135. One of the following is applied without friction or massage.
a) Lotion
b) Liniments
c) Both
d) None
136. Simple syrup is prepared by ...............
a) Hot process
b) Cold process
c) Percolation
d) All of the above
137. Collodions are applied on the …….?
a) Mouth
b) Body cavities
c) Skin
d) None
138. Following liquids are applied only on unbroken skin?
a) Lotions
b) Liniments
c) Both
d) None
139. Sweetened hydroalcoholic liquids are?
a) Elixirs
b) Syrups
c) Lotions
d) Liniments
140. Which of the following formulations would not apply to ocular administration?
a) Solution
b) Liniment
c) Suspension
d) Ointment
141. Of the following oral liquid formulations, which would be considered as an oropharyngeal formulation?
a) Syrup
b) Elixir
c) Mouthwash
d) Linctus
142. An __________ is taken orally and contains alcohol as one of its ingredients.
A. aerosol
B. elixir
C. enema
D. syrup
143. Which of the following is a type of oral dosage form?
A. Aerosol
B. Nebulizer
C. Subcutaneous administration
D. Solution
144. Which of the following is a type of Oral dosage form?
A. Aerosol
B. Nebulizer
C. Subcutaneous administration
D. Tablet
145. Which of the following is a type of Inhalational dosage form?
A. Aerosol
B. Nebulizer
C. Subcutaneous administration
D. Tablet
E. A and B
146. What do you mean by ophthalmic dosage form?
A. Dosage form for the drugs administered through the ears.
B. Dosage form for the drugs administered through the eyes.
C. Dosage form for the drugs administered through the nose.
D. Both for the eyes and the nose.
147. What do you mean by otic dosage form?
A. Dosage form for the drugs administered through the ears.
B. Dosage form for the drugs administered through the eyes.
C. Dosage form for the drugs administered through the nose.
D. Both for the eyes and the nose.
148. What is the dosage form for the drug to be administered under the skin?
A. Subcutaneous
B. Transdermal
C. Topical
D. Both subcutaneous and transdermal.
149. What is the dermal (relating to skin) preparation?
A. Paste
B. Film
C. Cream
D. All of them
150. __________ is taken orally and contains alcohol as one of its ingredients.
A. Aerosol
B. elixir
C. enema
D. syrup
151. A O/W emulsion
A. aerosol
B. cream
C. ointment
D. tablet
152. other word for a lozenge is a troche.
a. True.
b. False.
153. Emits a fine mist
A. aerosol
B. cream
C. ointment
D. tablet
154. Which of the following formulations would not apply to ocular administration?
a) Solution
b) Liniment
c) Suspension
d) Ointment
155. A tablet to treat a headache must first be dissolved in water before swallowing. Which one of the following best describes this type of tablet?
a) Modified release
b) Oral disintegrating
c) Effervescent
d) Buccal
156. Capsules normally fall into two main categories. Which are they?
a) Hard gelatin capsules and soft gelatin capsules
b) Hard gelatin capsules and layered capsules
c) Soft gelatin capsules and compressed capsules
d) Compressed and layered capsules
157. Intravenous, intramuscular and subcutaneous are all examples of which routes of administration?
a) Pulmonary administration
b) Parenteral administration
c) Otic administration
d) Ocular administration
158. Where is the site of administration for a dosage form that uses transdermal delivery?
a) The eyes
b) The lungs
c) Under the tongue
d) The skin
159. Which of the following dosage forms delivers the API to the GI tract?
a) Rectal suppositories
b) Nasal sprays
c) Vaginal pessaries
d) Eye drops
160. Name two different types of an inhaler
a) MDI & API
b) IV & SC
c) DPI & MDI
d) GIT & ATP
161. Nasal administration is commonly used for the relief of ............
a) Headache
b) Cough
c) Sore throat
d) Congestion
162. Ocular administration involves the treatment of which area?
a) The skin
b) The eyes
c) The ears
d) The lungs
163. Compound tragacanth mucilage is used as a suspending agent when
a) The vehicle is water and chloroform water
b) The vehicle is other than water and chloroform water
c) When no vehicle is used
d) None of the above
164. The concentration of compound tragacanth powder used as suspending agent is ..................
a) 1 gm/ 100 ml
b) 2 gm/ 100 ml
c) 0.1 gm/ 100 ml
d) 0.2 gm/ 100 ml
165. Hydroxymethyl cellulose is added in eye drops to -
A. Enhance viscosity
B. Maintain pH
C. Provide isotonicity
D. None of the above
166. Which thickening agent is inorganic?
A. Acacia
B. Compound tragacanth powder
C. Bentonite
D. None of the above
167. Powders are more stable than …….
A. Capsule
B. Tablet
C. Syrup
D. Elixirs
E. C and D
168. The ratio of the ultimate height of the sediment to the initial height of the total suspension, settling in a cylinder under standard conditions is known as:
a) Degree of emulsification
b) Degree of flocculation
c) Degree of de-flocculation
d) Volume of sedimentation
169. The structured vehicle is also known as
a) Thickening agents
b) Suspending agents
c) Both thickening or suspending agents
d) Surfactants
170. Of which the following solids is diffusible?
a) Chalk
b) Magnesium trisilicate
c) Calamine
d) Zinc oxide
171. Which of the following is NOT an example of wetting agents used in suspensions?
a) Propylene glycol
b) Sorbitol
c) Tween 80
d) Citrates
172. Of the following criteria of API is not suitable for the formulation of suspension
a) High chemical stability
b) High water solubility
c) Good wettability in vehicles
d) Pleasant organoleptic properties
173. Which of the following is not a characteristic of flocculated suspensions?
a) Supernatant is clear
b) Form a hard cake
c) The rate of sedimentation is high
d) The sediment is easy to redisperse
174. Which of the following is true about suspensions?
a) Can improve chemical stability
b) Suspension exhibits a higher rate of bioavailability
c) Can mask the unpleasant bitter taste
d) All of the above
175. Coarse suspension is a dispersion of particles with a mean diameter
a) 1-100 μm
b) < 1 μm
c) > 1 μm
d) >0.5 μm
176. The following is applied by friction
a) Lotion
b) Liniments
c) Both
d) None
177. Simple syrup is prepared by
a) Hot process
b) Cold process
c) Percolation
d) All of the above
178. Biphasic liquid dosage form with immiscible liquids is .....
a) Syrup
b) Suspension
c) Emulsion
d) All of the above
179. 15. ______ is added in neomycin elixir to adjust pH between 4-5
a) Boric acid
b) Citric acid
c) Ethyl alcohol
d) Propylene glycol
179. Preservatives are generally not added in syrup formulation because of ............
a) High osmotic pressure of syrup
b) High viscosity of syrup
c) Antimicrobial properties of additives
d) All of the above
180. Which of the following ingredient is added in syrup to prevent the crystallization of sucrose?
a) Glycerin
b) Sorbitol
c) Propylene glycol
d) All of the above
